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Question 1

Four athletes run twice around a track. The table shows their times at the end of each lap. Which athlete runs the second lap the fastest?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To find out who ran the second lap the fastest, we need to calculate the time interval for the second lap only by subtracting the time at the end of the first lap from the time at the end of the second lap.
For athlete A, the time is $56 – 26 = 30$ seconds. For athlete B, it is $55 – 27 = 28$ seconds.
For athlete C, the second lap takes $60 – 28 = 32$ seconds, and for athlete D, it takes $54 – 28 = 26$ seconds.
Comparing these results, athlete D has the lowest time for the second lap ($26$ seconds).
Since a lower time for the same distance indicates a higher speed, athlete D is the fastest runner for that specific lap.

Question 2

A racing car is fitted with an on-board computer. Every time the car passes the starting line, the computer records the distance travelled in the following two seconds. Which set of data shows that the car is increasing in speed during the two seconds?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To determine if the car is increasing in speed, we need to look at the distance covered in each consecutive time interval.
In this data set, the computer records the total distance at $0.5$ s, $1.0$ s, $1.5$ s, and $2.0$ s.
If the speed is increasing, the car should travel a greater distance in each subsequent $0.5$ s interval compared to the previous one.
Looking at Option C, the distances covered are $15$ m, $35$ m ($+20$ m), $60$ m ($+25$ m), and $90$ m ($+30$ m).
Since the gap between the distances is getting larger every half-second, it proves the car is accelerating.
In contrast, constant gaps would mean constant speed, and decreasing gaps would mean the car is slowing down.

Question 3

Which row shows the gravitational field strength on the Earth and the definition of velocity?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and Weight
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we need to identify two distinct physical concepts: the constant for Earth’s gravity and the fundamental definition of velocity.
The gravitational field strength on Earth is a standard value used in physics calculations, approximately $9.8$ $\text{N/kg}$, which is often rounded to $10$ $\text{N/kg}$ in many introductory curricula.
Velocity is a vector quantity, meaning it accounts for both the rate of motion and the specific direction of that motion.
Unlike speed, which is just distance over time, velocity is defined specifically as the rate of change of displacement.
Looking at the table, Row D correctly identifies the field strength as $10$ $\text{N/kg}$ and provides the correct definition for velocity.
Therefore, Option D is the only row where both pieces of information are scientifically accurate.

Question 4

Which statement about the weight of an object is correct?
A. The weight of an object is the gravitational force per unit mass.
B. The weight of an object is the gravitational force on an object.
C. The weight is zero when the object is falling at constant speed in the Earth’s atmosphere.
D. The weight is zero when the object is in orbit around the Earth.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and Weight
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Weight is fundamentally defined as the force acting on an object due to gravity.
While mass is an intrinsic property that represents the amount of matter in an object, weight is a force measured in Newtons ($N$).
Option A is incorrect because gravitational force per unit mass actually defines the gravitational field strength, $g$.
Options C and D are common misconceptions; an object still possesses weight as long as it is within a gravitational field, even if it is in freefall or in orbit.
Therefore, the most accurate description is that weight is simply the gravitational pull exerted on that specific object.
Mathematically, this relationship is expressed by the formula $W = m \cdot g$.

Question 5

The diagram shows a load–extension graph for a steel spring. The length of the spring with no load attached is $2.0\text{ cm}$.
Which load increases the length of the spring to $6.0\text{ cm}$?
A. $0.5\text{ N}$
B. $1.0\text{ N}$
C. $1.5\text{ N}$
D. $2.0\text{ N}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.1: Effects of forces (Load-extension graphs)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we first need to determine the extension required to reach the target length. The extension is calculated by subtracting the original length ($2.0\text{ cm}$) from the new length ($6.0\text{ cm}$), which gives us an extension of $4.0\text{ cm}$.
Looking at the provided load-extension graph, we locate the value of $4.0\text{ cm}$ on the vertical axis (Extension).
By moving horizontally from the $4.0\text{ cm}$ mark to the plotted line and then dropping down to the horizontal axis, we can find the corresponding load.
The graph shows that an extension of $4.0\text{ cm}$ corresponds exactly to a load of $1.0\text{ N}$.
Therefore, a $1.0\text{ N}$ load is what increases the total length of the spring to $6.0\text{ cm}$.

Question 6

Which force between two solid surfaces opposes motion?
A. friction
B. gravity
C. kinetic
D. weight

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.1: Effects of force
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

When two solid surfaces are in contact and try to move relative to one another, a resistive force is generated that acts in the opposite direction of the motion.
This specific force is known as friction, and it arises due to the microscopic roughness and molecular attractions between the two surfaces.
While gravity and weight are vertical forces acting toward the center of the Earth, they do not inherently oppose horizontal sliding motion between surfaces.
Kinetic is a term used to describe energy or a type of friction (kinetic friction), but it is not the name of a fundamental force itself.
Therefore, friction is the correct term for the force that actively works to resist or stop the sliding movement between two solids.

Question 7

A box of mass $2.0 \text{ kg}$ and weight $20 \text{ N}$ is carried to the top of some stairs.
How is the work done against gravity on the box calculated?
A. $2.0 \times 1.8$
B. $20 \times 1.2$
C. $2.0 \times 1.2$
D. $20 \times 1.2 \times 1.8$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.2: Work
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To calculate the work done against gravity, we use the standard formula $W = F \times d$, where the force is the weight of the object and the distance is the vertical height gained.
In this problem, the weight of the box is given directly as $20 \text{ N}$, which represents the downward force of gravity we must overcome.
The vertical height of the stairs is $1.2 \text{ m}$, while the horizontal distance of $1.8 \text{ m}$ is irrelevant for calculating work done against gravity.
Therefore, we multiply the weight ($20 \text{ N}$) by the vertical displacement ($1.2 \text{ m}$) to find the energy transferred.
This leads us to the calculation $20 \times 1.2$, making Option B the correct choice.

Question 8

Four submarines are submerged. The density of fresh water is $1000 kg/m^3$ and the density of sea water is $1020 kg/m^3$. Which submarine experiences the greatest pressure due to the water?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.8: Pressure
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To find which submarine experiences the most pressure, we use the liquid pressure formula: $P = \rho gh$, where $\rho$ is the density, $g$ is gravity, and $h$ is the depth.
From this equation, we can see that pressure is directly proportional to both the density of the liquid and the depth of the object.
Comparing the types of water, sea water has a higher density ($1020 kg/m^3$) than fresh water ($1000 kg/m^3$), so we should look at the sea water options first.
Between the two submarines in sea water, the one at a depth of $40 m$ is deeper than the one at $20 m$.
Since submarine D is in the densest fluid at the maximum depth shown, it will experience the greatest pressure.
Therefore, Option D is the correct choice based on these physical principles.

Question 9

The diagram shows the changes in state, $1$, $2$, $3$ and $4$, between solids, liquids and gases.
What are processes $2$ and $3$?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 2.1.1: States of matter
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

To identify the processes, we need to look at the direction of the arrows between the different states of matter.
Process $2$ shows the transition from a liquid to a solid; this phase change is known as freezing or solidification, where energy is released.
Process $3$ represents the change from a liquid to a gas, which occurs when a substance is heated and is known as boiling or evaporation.
By observing the provided table, Option A correctly matches process $2$ with freezing and process $3$ with boiling.
Processes $1$ and $4$ (though not specifically asked for in the final selection) represent melting and condensing respectively.
Therefore, selecting the row that accurately describes these physical changes leads us directly to the first option.

Question 10

Copper has a melting point of $1100$ °C. What is the melting point in kelvin?
A. $727$ K
B. $827$ K
C. $1373$ K
D. $1473$ K

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.3: Gases and the absolute scale of temperature
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To convert a temperature from the Celsius scale to the Kelvin (absolute) scale, we use the standard conversion formula where $T(K) = \theta(^{\circ}C) + 273$.
In this specific problem, we are given the melting point of copper as $1100$ °C.
By substituting the given value into our formula, we calculate the absolute temperature as $1100 + 273$.
Performing the addition gives us a final value of $1373$ K.
Therefore, when expressing the thermal state of copper at its melting point in SI units, $1373$ K is the correct thermodynamic temperature, which corresponds to Option C.

Question 11

A liquid at room temperature fills a flask and a glass tube to level X.
The flask is placed in ice and the liquid level in the tube changes to level Y. Why does the level change to level Y?
A. The flask contracts.
B. The flask expands.
C. The liquid contracts.
D. The liquid expands.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.1: Thermal expansion of solids, liquids, and gases
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

When the flask is placed in ice, the temperature of both the glass container and the liquid inside begins to decrease.
Most substances undergo thermal contraction when cooled because the particles lose kinetic energy and move closer together, occupying less volume.
In this scenario, level Y is lower than level X, which indicates that the total volume of the liquid has decreased.
While the glass flask also contracts slightly, liquids generally expand and contract much more significantly than solids for the same change in temperature.
Therefore, the drop in level from X to Y is primarily caused by the liquid contracting as it cools down to the temperature of the ice.
This makes Option C the correct explanation for the observed change in the tube.

Question 12

Which row correctly describes the state of water at the temperatures shown?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.3: Melting, boiling and evaporation
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we need to consider the standard melting and boiling points of pure water at atmospheric pressure, which are $0$°C and $100$°C respectively.
At $-10$°C, which is well below the freezing point, water exists in a solid state as ice.
At $50$°C, the temperature is between the melting and boiling points, meaning the water has melted but not yet turned to steam, so it is a liquid.
At $110$°C, the temperature has exceeded the boiling point of $100$°C, so the water has completely changed into a gaseous state (steam).
Looking at the table, Row C correctly identifies these states as solid, liquid, and gas for the respective temperatures.

Question 13

A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling. Which statement about the liquid at an instant in time is correct?
A. Any molecule can escape and from any part of the liquid.
B. Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid’s surface.
C. Only molecules with enough energy can escape and only from the liquid’s surface.
D. Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.3: Melting, boiling, and evaporation
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Evaporation is a surface phenomenon that occurs at temperatures below the boiling point.
Unlike boiling, which happens throughout the entire volume of the liquid, evaporation only takes place at the surface where molecules can break free into the air.
For a molecule to escape, it must possess enough kinetic energy to overcome the attractive intermolecular forces holding it in the liquid phase.
The molecules with the highest energy are the ones most likely to “jump” out of the surface, leaving behind the slower, cooler molecules.
Therefore, only high-energy molecules at the surface can escape, making Option C the correct description of this process.

Question 14

A student stirs a hot liquid in a pan with a spoon. Which row explains which material the spoon should be made from so that the student does not burn their hand?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.3.1: Conduction
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To prevent the student from burning their hand, the spoon must be made of a material that does not transfer heat quickly from the hot liquid to the handle.
Materials like wood or plastic are classified as insulators because they have a very low rate of thermal conduction.
Metals, on the other hand, are good conductors of heat due to the presence of free electrons that transfer energy rapidly through the material.
Therefore, choosing an insulator ensures that the thermal energy remains mostly in the liquid rather than traveling up the spoon.
Looking at the table, Option D is the only one that correctly identifies the material as an insulator and provides the correct scientific explanation for why the hand stays safe.

Question 15

Thermal radiation is emitted from all objects. Which mediums can thermal radiation travel through?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.3.3: Radiation
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Thermal radiation consists of electromagnetic waves, specifically in the infrared spectrum, which do not require a physical medium to transfer energy.
Unlike conduction and convection, which rely on particles in solids, liquids, or gases, radiation can travel through the vacuum of space.
Because these waves can pass through any transparent medium as well as empty space, they effectively move through air, water, and a vacuum.
If radiation couldn’t travel through a vacuum, heat from the Sun would never reach the Earth.
Therefore, all three conditions listed—air, vacuum, and water—allow for the passage of thermal radiation, making option A the correct choice.

Question 16

The radius of a circular pond is $3.0$ m. Circular waves are made at the centre of the pond. There are $10$ whole waves between the centre and the edge of the pond and it takes $5.0$ s for all $10$ waves to reach the edge. What is the wavelength and the frequency of the waves?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To find the wavelength, we look at the total distance covered by the waves, which is the radius of the pond, $3.0$ m. Since there are $10$ whole waves in this distance, the wavelength $\lambda$ is calculated as $3.0 \text{ m} / 10 = 0.30 \text{ m}$.
For the frequency, we consider how many waves are produced per second. The problem states that $10$ waves reach the edge in $5.0$ s.
Frequency $f$ is the number of waves divided by the total time, so $f = 10 / 5.0 \text{ s} = 2.0 \text{ Hz}$.
By checking these two values, we can determine that the wavelength is $0.30 \text{ m}$ and the frequency is $2.0 \text{ Hz}$.
This matches the data provided for Option B.

Question 17

How does the direction of vibration of a longitudinal wave compare to its direction of propagation and which wave example is longitudinal?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

In a longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium vibrate back and forth in a direction that is parallel to the direction in which the wave energy travels.
This means the direction of vibration and the direction of propagation are along the same line, rather than being at right angles to each other.
A classic example of a longitudinal wave is a sound wave, where air molecules compress and rarefy as the sound moves forward.
In contrast, light waves and water waves are transverse, as their vibrations occur at $90^\circ$ to the direction of travel.
Looking at the provided table, Option C correctly identifies the parallel nature of the vibration and provides sound as the correct example.

Question 18

The diagram shows a ray of light reflecting from a mirror.
Which row shows the correct names for x, y and Z?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

In the study of optics, we use specific terms to describe how light interacts with a surface.
The line labeled $Z$ is the “normal,” which is an imaginary line drawn perpendicular ($90^{\circ}$) to the mirror’s surface at the point of incidence.
The angle $x$ is the “angle of incidence,” defined as the angle between the incoming (incident) ray and the normal.
Similarly, the angle $y$ is the “angle of reflection,” which is the angle between the reflected ray and the normal line.
According to the laws of reflection, the angle of incidence $x$ is always equal to the angle of reflection $y$.
By matching these definitions to the provided table, we can see that Row A correctly identifies all three components.

Question 19

A converging lens forms an image of an object placed in front of it.
What are the characteristics of the image?
A. real, inverted, diminished
B. real, upright, enlarged
C. virtual, inverted, diminished
D. virtual, upright, enlarged

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.3: Thin lenses
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

By looking at the ray diagram, we can see that the object is placed at a distance greater than twice the focal length ($u > 2f$) from the converging lens.
The rays of light actually meet on the opposite side of the lens, which tells us that the image formed is a real image.
We can observe that the image is formed below the principal axis, meaning it is inverted compared to the object.
Furthermore, the height of the image is clearly smaller than the height of the object, making it diminished in size.
Therefore, the characteristics of the image are real, inverted, and diminished, which corresponds to Option A.

Question 20

White light can be split into different colours by passing it through a prism. What is the name of this process?
A. diffraction
B. dispersion
C. reflection
D. refraction

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.4: Dispersion of light
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When white light enters a glass prism, it slows down and changes direction, a general process known as refraction.
However, different colors of light have different wavelengths, causing them to refract by slightly different angles; for instance, violet light bends more than red light.
This specific phenomenon, where white light is separated into its constituent colors (the visible spectrum), is called dispersion.
While refraction is the cause, “dispersion” is the specific name for the splitting effect described in the question.
Therefore, the correct term to identify this process is dispersion, making Option B the correct choice.

Question 21

Excessive exposure to some regions of the electromagnetic spectrum can cause harmful effects to people. Which regions cause mutation of cells in the body, skin burns and internal heating of body cells?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we need to match the specific biological hazards to the correct parts of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Ionizing radiation like $\gamma$-rays (gamma rays) has high energy and can penetrate deep into tissues to cause cell mutation and cancer.
Ultraviolet (UV) radiation is higher in energy than visible light and is well known for damaging the surface of the skin, leading to painful skin burns.
Internal heating occurs when molecules, particularly water in body cells, absorb lower-energy radiation such as microwaves.
By looking at the table, we see that row C correctly identifies $\gamma$-rays for mutation, ultraviolet for skin burns, and microwaves for internal heating.
Therefore, Option C is the only choice that accurately aligns each hazard with its corresponding radiation type.

Question 22

A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again $1.2$ s after it is produced. The speed of sound in the water is $1500$ m / s.
How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?
A. $450$ m
B. $900$ m
C. $1800$ m
D. $3600$ m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.4: Sound
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To find the depth of the shoal, we first recognize that the total time given ($1.2$ s) is for a round trip—the sound travels down to the fish and then back up to the boat.
We can calculate the total distance traveled by the sound using the formula $\text{distance} = \text{speed} \times \text{time}$.
Substituting the values, we get $1500 \text{ m/s} \times 1.2 \text{ s} = 1800$ m for the entire journey.
Since this distance represents twice the depth (down and up), we must divide it by $2$ to find the actual distance to the fish.
Therefore, the depth is $1800 \text{ m} / 2 = 900$ m, which makes Option B the correct answer.

Question 23

The frequency of a sound wave increases from 31 000Hz to 32 000Hz. What is the nature of the wave and how does it sound to a human with normal hearing?
A. It is a longitudinal wave with a decreasing pitch.
B. It is a transverse wave with an increasing pitch.
C. It is a longitudinal wave that cannot be heard by a human with normal hearing.
D. It is a transverse wave that cannot be heard by a human with normal hearing.

Most-appropriate topic codes:

TOPIC 3.4: Sound
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Sound waves are mechanical waves that travel through a medium as longitudinal waves, characterized by compressions and rarefactions.
The human range of hearing is generally considered to be between 20Hz and 20 000Hz.
In this case, both the initial frequency of 31 000Hz and the final frequency of 32 000Hz are well above the upper limit of human audibility.
Such waves are classified as ultrasound, meaning they are beyond what a human ear can detect regardless of the change in pitch.
Therefore, because sound is longitudinal and the frequencies provided are outside our hearing range, the wave cannot be heard.
This confirms that Option C is the correct description of the wave’s nature and its perception.

Question 24

Small compasses are used to determine the direction of a magnetic field. Which diagram shows the direction that the compass needles point when placed near the N and S poles of a bar magnet?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we need to remember that magnetic field lines always point away from the North pole (N) and toward the South pole (S).
A compass needle is essentially a small bar magnet where the arrow head represents the North-seeking pole.
Since opposite poles attract and like poles repel, the North pole of the compass will be repelled by the magnet’s North pole and attracted to its South pole.
Looking at diagram C, the compass near the N pole points away from it, and the compass near the S pole points toward it.
This correctly aligns with the direction of the magnetic field lines surrounding a bar magnet, making Option C the correct choice.

Question 25

A metal bar is placed inside a current-carrying coil, as shown in diagram 1. There is a small current in the coil. The bar holds a few nails, as shown in diagram 2.
When there is no current in the coil, the nails drop off. Which row is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.3: Magnetic effect of a current
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When a current flows through the coil, it creates a magnetic field that magnetizes the metal bar inside.
The fact that the bar can pick up and hold nails indicates that it has become a magnet; this process is known as induced magnetism.
Because the nails drop off immediately when the current is switched off, it means the bar loses its magnetism just as quickly as it gained it.
Materials that are easily magnetized but lose their magnetism once the external field is removed are called “soft” magnetic materials.
Soft iron is the classic example used for this purpose, making it the material of the bar and the phenomenon an example of induced magnetism as per row B.

Question 26

There is a current $I$ in a resistor of resistance $R$. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is $V$. Which equation gives the power $P$ dissipated by the resistor?
A. $P = IR$
B. $P = IV$
C. $P = \frac{I}{R}$
D. $P = \frac{I}{V}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Electrical power $P$ represents the rate at which energy is transferred or dissipated in a component.
By definition, power is the product of the potential difference $V$ across the component and the current $I$ flowing through it.
This relationship is derived from the fact that $V$ is energy per unit charge and $I$ is the rate of flow of charge.
While other formulas like $P = I^2R$ or $P = \frac{V^2}{R}$ are also valid by substituting Ohm’s Law, the fundamental equation given in the options is $P = IV$.
Therefore, Option B is the correct mathematical representation for power dissipated by the resistor.

Question 27

A student tests the electrical conduction of four materials.
  • aluminium
  • iron
  • plastic
  • silver
Which materials are good conductors of electricity?
A. aluminium, iron and silver
B. aluminium and silver only
C. iron, silver and plastic
D. plastic only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.2: Electric current
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Electrical conductors are materials that allow electric charges to flow through them easily, typically due to the presence of free electrons.
Metals are generally excellent conductors because of their metallic bonding structure.
In the given list, aluminium, iron, and silver are all metals and therefore serve as good conductors of electricity.
Plastic, on the other hand, is a polymer where electrons are tightly bound, making it an effective insulator rather than a conductor.
Since three out of the four materials listed are metals, the correct group of conductors is aluminium, iron, and silver.
This matches Option A, as it correctly identifies all the metallic substances in the student’s test.

Question 28

This question is about the potential difference (p.d.) across, and the current in, a variable resistor.
The resistance of the variable resistor is increased. Which statement is correct?
A. The current can remain constant if the p.d. is decreased.
B. The current can remain constant if the p.d. is increased.
C. The p.d. can remain constant if the current is kept constant.
D. The p.d. can remain constant if the current is increased.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.4: Resistance
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we need to look at Ohm’s Law, which is expressed by the formula V=IR, where V is the potential difference, I is the current, and R is the resistance.
According to the question, the resistance R of the variable resistor is being increased.
If we want the current I to stay exactly the same (constant), we have to look at how V must change to balance the equation.
Since R is getting larger, the product of I×R will naturally increase if I remains unchanged.
Therefore, to maintain that balance, the potential difference V must also be increased proportionally.
This makes Option B the only mathematically and physically sound choice.

Question 29

Diagram 1 shows a resistor connected in a circuit. Diagram 2 shows an identical resistor connected in parallel with the first resistor.
What is the combined resistance of the two resistors in diagram 2?
A. greater than in the circuit of diagram 1
B. less than in the circuit of diagram 1, but greater than zero
C. the same as in the circuit of diagram 1
D. zero

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

In Diagram 1, the circuit has a single resistor with a resistance value of $R$.
When an identical resistor is added in parallel, as shown in Diagram 2, the total or combined resistance of the circuit decreases.
Mathematically, the combined resistance $R_p$

Question 30

Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?
A. the earth wire only
B. the live wire only
C. the neutral wire only
D. the live wire and the earth wire

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.4: Electrical safety
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

A fuse is a critical safety component designed to protect an electrical circuit from excessive current.
It must always be connected to the live wire because this is the wire that carries the high voltage into the appliance.
If a fault occurs and the current becomes too high, the fuse wire melts and breaks the circuit, immediately cutting off the electricity supply.
By placing it in the live wire, we ensure that the appliance is isolated from the high-voltage source, making it safe for the user.
If the fuse were in the neutral wire and it blew, the appliance could still be “live” and potentially cause an electric shock even if it isn’t working.

Question 31

Which graph does not show the correct trend for the force F causing the turning effect on the coil in a d.c. motor?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.5: The d.c. motor
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In a d.c. motor, the force F acting on the wire in a magnetic field is given by the relationship F=BIL, where B is the magnetic field strength, I is the current, and L is the length of the wire.
This means the force is directly proportional to both the current through the coil (F∝I) and the strength of the magnetic field (F∝B), which would result in straight-line graphs passing through the origin.
Increasing the number of turns in the coil also linearly increases the total force because each turn experiences the same force, contributing to the overall turning effect.
However, graph D suggests that increasing the resistance of the coil would increase the force, which is incorrect.
According to Ohm’s Law, I=V/R, so increasing the resistance actually decreases the current, which in turn reduces the force F. Therefore, graph D does not show the correct trend.

Question 32

Which statement about the structure of an atom is correct?
A. Negative electrons surround a neutral nucleus.
B. Negative electrons surround a positive nucleus.
C. Positive electrons surround a neutral nucleus.
D. Positive electrons surround a negative nucleus.

Most-appropriate topic codes:

TOPIC 5.1.1: The atom
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The fundamental structure of an atom consists of a central nucleus and orbiting subatomic particles. The nucleus contains protons, which have a positive charge, and neutrons, which carry no charge at all; this makes the overall charge of the nucleus positive.
Electrons, which carry a negative charge, move in the space around this central nucleus.
While the atom as a whole is usually neutral because the number of positive protons equals the number of negative electrons, the internal arrangement always pairs a positive center with negative outer particles.
Therefore, we say that negative electrons surround a positive nucleus.
This electrostatic attraction between the opposite charges is what holds the atom together, making Option B the only scientifically accurate description.

Question 33

Four statements about isotopes of a certain element are listed. Which statement about the isotopes must be correct?
A. They are radioactive.
B. They are unstable.
C. They have the same number of neutrons.
D. They have the same number of protons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.2: The nucleus
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

By definition, isotopes are atoms of the same element that contain the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
Since they belong to the same element, their atomic number (Z) remains identical, which is why statement D is always correct.
While some isotopes can be radioactive or unstable, many occur naturally as stable forms, so statements A and B are not true for all isotopes.
Statement C is incorrect because it is the variation in the number of neutrons that actually distinguishes one isotope from another.
Therefore, having the same number of protons is the fundamental requirement for any group of isotopes of a single element.

Question 34

What makes a contribution to a person’s annual dose of ionising radiation?
A. food and drink
B. greenhouse gases
C. mobile phone masts
D. radio and TV transmissions

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.1: Detection of radioactivity
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Ionising radiation comes from both natural background sources and man-made activities.
Many naturally occurring foods and drinks contain tiny amounts of radioactive isotopes, such as Potassium-40 or Carbon-14, which contribute to our internal radiation dose.
Options B, C, and D involve non-ionising radiation or chemical processes that do not emit nuclear radiation.
Greenhouse gases affect the climate, while mobile masts and TV transmissions use low-energy radio waves and microwaves.
Therefore, ingestion of food and drink is the only factor listed that directly adds to a person’s annual ionising radiation exposure.

Question 35

The emissions from a radioactive source pass through a sheet of lead that is 10 mm thick. Which type of radiation is emitted from the source and how is the radiation affected by an electric field?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.2: Characteristics of the three kinds of emission
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we first look at the penetrating power of different types of radiation. Alpha particles are stopped by paper, and beta particles are stopped by a few millimeters of aluminum, but only gamma radiation can pass through 10 mm of lead (though it is partially attenuated).
Since the radiation successfully passes through the lead sheet in the question, the source must be emitting gamma rays.
Next, we consider the nature of gamma radiation; unlike alpha or beta particles, gamma rays are electromagnetic waves and carry no electric charge.
Because they are neutral, they are not deflected or attracted by electric fields and will continue to travel in a straight line.
Therefore, the correct combination is that the radiation is gamma and it is not deflected, which corresponds to Option D.

Question 36

Radioactive waste is often mixed with liquid glass. This mixture solidifies and is stored in steel drums. Why is this process used to store radioactive waste?
A. It reduces the decay rate.
B. It reduces the half-life of the waste.
C. The waste is contained in a solid block so it cannot leak out.
D. The glass is transparent so the waste can be seen.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.5: Safety precautions
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The process of mixing radioactive waste with liquid glass, known as vitrification, is primarily used to ensure long-term containment.
Radioactive decay rates and half-lives are intrinsic properties of a nucleus and cannot be changed by physical or chemical processes like mixing with glass.
By solidifying the waste into a glass block, we ensure it becomes chemically stable and physically immobile, preventing it from leaking into the environment or groundwater.
Storing these blocks in steel drums provides an additional barrier against radiation and physical damage.
Transparency is irrelevant here, as the focus is purely on safety and preventing contamination over thousands of years.
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer as it addresses the containment aspect of waste management.

Question 37

Which planet is classed as a rocky planet?
A. Jupiter
B. Saturn
C. Uranus
D. Venus

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.1.2: The Solar System
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In our solar system, planets are generally divided into two main groups: the inner rocky planets and the outer gas giants.
The four rocky planets, also known as terrestrial planets, are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars, which all have solid silicate surfaces.
Jupiter and Saturn are classified as gas giants, consisting mostly of hydrogen and helium without a well-defined solid surface.
Uranus and Neptune are considered ice giants because they are composed mostly of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium, like oxygen and nitrogen.
Since Venus is one of the four inner planets with a solid, rocky crust, it is the correct answer.
Therefore, among the given choices, Venus is the only one that fits the classification of a rocky planet.

Question 38

What is the cause of the phases of the Moon?
A. the movement of the Earth around the Sun
B. the movement of the Moon around the Sun
C. the movement of the Moon around the Earth
D. the movement of the Sun around the Moon

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.1.2: The Solar System
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The Moon does not produce its own light; we see it because it reflects sunlight.
As the Moon orbits the Earth, our perspective of the illuminated half changes depending on its position relative to the Sun and the Earth.
When the Moon is between the Earth and Sun, the dark side faces us, but as it moves along its path, we begin to see different portions of the lit surface.
This cycle of changing appearances is what we refer to as the phases of the Moon.
Therefore, it is the movement of the Moon around the Earth that causes these visual shifts over a period of approximately 29.5 days.
This makes Option C the correct explanation for the lunar cycle.

Question 39

What makes up the Universe?
A. many billions of galaxies
B. Mercury, Venus, the Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune only
C. the Sun, the Earth and the Moon only
D. the Solar System only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.3: The Universe
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The Universe is defined as the entirety of space, time, matter, and energy, encompassing everything that exists.
Options B, C, and D all describe components that are part of our local Solar System, which is just a tiny fraction of a single galaxy.
In reality, the Universe is vast and contains many billions of galaxies, each of which contains millions or billions of stars.
While stars and planets are part of the Universe, they are organized into these massive galactic structures spread across space.
Therefore, saying the Universe is made up of billions of galaxies is the most accurate description of its true scale and composition.

Question 40

The Sun mostly consists of which gases?
A. helium and hydrogen
B. helium and nitrogen
C. hydrogen and oxygen
D. oxygen and nitrogen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.1: The Sun as a star
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The Sun is a massive sphere of glowing gas, and its composition is dominated by the two lightest elements in the periodic table.
Approximately 73% of the Sun’s mass is made up of hydrogen, while helium accounts for nearly 25%.
These gases serve as the fuel for nuclear fusion, where hydrogen nuclei fuse together to form helium, releasing vast amounts of energy in the process.
Other elements like oxygen, carbon, and neon exist only in very trace amounts, totaling less than 2% of the solar mass.
Therefore, the Sun is primarily a mixture of hydrogen and helium gases, making Option A the correct choice.
Understanding this composition is fundamental to studying how stars generate light and heat over billions of years.

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