Question 1
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To find the volume of an irregularly shaped small object like a stone, we can’t just measure its sides with a ruler or tape because there’s no simple mathematical formula for its specific shape. Instead, we use a practical method called displacement. By dropping the stone into a measuring cylinder that is partly filled with water, the water level will naturally rise. The difference between the new water level and the original water level tells us the exact volume of the water displaced, which is perfectly equal to the volume of the solid stone. Therefore, the measuring cylinder partly filled with water is the correct tool for this job.
Question 2

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
When looking at a speed-time graph, the total distance travelled by the object is represented by the area underneath the drawn line. For graph A, the area is a triangle with base 6 and height 6, giving a distance of $\frac{1}{2} \times 6 \times 6 = 18\text{ m}$. For graph B, the area is a smaller triangle with base 6 and height 4, giving $\frac{1}{2} \times 6 \times 4 = 12\text{ m}$. Graph C shows a constant speed of $6\text{ m/s}$ for $6\text{ s}$, which forms a large rectangular area of $6 \times 6 = 36\text{ m}$. Graph D forms a triangle with base 6 and height 8, giving $\frac{1}{2} \times 6 \times 8 = 24\text{ m}$. Comparing all these calculated areas, body B clearly has the smallest area under the graph, meaning it travelled the least distance.
Question 3

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We need to remember the relationship between mass and weight near the Earth’s surface, which is given by the equation $W = mg$. From the standard instructions in physics papers, we know the acceleration of free fall $g$ is typically taken as $10\text{ m/s}^2$ (or $10\text{ N/kg}$) for simplicity. Let’s check the options with this formula. If the mass is $2\text{ kg}$, the weight should be calculated as $2\text{ kg} \times 10\text{ N/kg} = 20\text{ N}$. Looking at the given rows, row C perfectly matches this calculation with a mass of $2\text{ kg}$ and a weight of $20\text{ N}$. The other rows don’t follow this 1 to 10 ratio, so they must be incorrect.
Question 4

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To determine the density of any substance, we need to know two fundamental quantities: its mass and its volume, because the mathematical formula for density is $\rho = \frac{m}{V}$. For a liquid, we can easily find its volume by pouring it directly into a measuring cylinder and reading the scale. To find its mass, we use a balance to weigh the cylinder with the liquid, and then subtract the mass of the empty cylinder. A ruler and a stop-watch are completely unnecessary here since we aren’t measuring length or time to find density. Therefore, the correct combination of apparatus is a balance and a measuring cylinder.
Question 5
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The moment of a force is a physical measure of its turning effect around a specific pivot point. The formula to calculate this is the force applied multiplied by the perpendicular distance from the pivot point to the line of action of the force. Since force is universally measured in Newtons ($\text{N}$) and distance is measured in meters ($\text{m}$), we just multiply these two units together. This logically gives us the unit Newton-meters, which is written as $\text{Nm}$. The other options represent different physical quantities entirely, like Watts ($\text{W}$) for power or Newton-seconds ($\text{Ns}$) for impulse.
Question 6

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According to Newton’s first law of motion, an object will remain completely at rest or continue to move at a constant speed in a straight line if the net (resultant) force acting on it is exactly zero. For the ball moving at a constant speed (A), the ball resting peacefully on a bench (B), and the ball floating in equilibrium on water (D), there is no acceleration taking place, which guarantees the resultant force is zero. However, a free-falling ball that has just been released (C) is actively accelerating downwards purely under the influence of gravity ($g$). Because it is accelerating, there must be a non-zero resultant force pulling it down, which in this case is the ball’s weight.
Question 7
2 There is no resultant force on the object.
3 There is no resultant moment on the object.
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For an object to be in a state of true mechanical equilibrium, two absolute conditions must be strictly met. First, all translational forces must perfectly balance out, meaning there is absolutely no resultant force acting on the object (Statement 2). Second, all rotational forces must also balance, meaning there is no resultant turning effect or moment (Statement 3). While it’s true that an object moving in a straight line at a constant speed is technically in translational equilibrium, simply “moving in a straight line” isn’t a mandatory requirement for equilibrium because an object completely at rest is also in equilibrium! Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are universally necessary conditions.
Question 8

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When an object is physically falling downwards toward the Earth’s surface, its height above the ground is constantly shrinking. Because gravitational potential energy is directly tied to an object’s height ($E_p = mgh$), this stored energy naturally decreases as it falls. At the same exact time, the object is accelerating smoothly due to Earth’s gravitational pull, meaning it is getting faster and faster. Since kinetic energy is linked to the square of the speed ($E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$), its kinetic energy is actively increasing. Essentially, the falling object is undergoing an energy transfer, converting its gravitational potential energy directly into kinetic energy!
Question 9
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We harness many amazing resources to successfully generate electricity today, including extensive arrays of solar panels, massive tidal barrages, and experimental wave power machines. Moreover, nuclear fission (which works by splitting heavy atoms like Uranium) is widely used in commercial power stations worldwide. However, nuclear fusion (the intense process of joining light atoms together, powering our Sun) requires extreme pressures and temperatures that are incredibly difficult to sustain and control here on Earth. While scientists are heavily researching and building massive experimental fusion reactors, it is not yet practically or commercially used to generate electrical energy for our grids.
Question 10
A mass is lifted from rest on the ground to Y. There is no air resistance.

$P$ is the increase in gravitational energy of the mass.
$Q$ is the kinetic energy of the mass at Y.
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According to the fundamental principle of energy conservation, the total mechanical work that is physically done on an object always equals the total energy that gets transferred into it. As this mass is being lifted upwards to position Y from an initial state of rest, work is actively being done against gravity to increase its height, giving us the accumulated gravitational potential energy, $P$. Furthermore, if the mass reaches Y and still has some kinetic energy $Q$ (meaning it’s moving), it means additional work was also done to accelerate the object to that speed. Therefore, the total mechanical work done by the lifting force is exactly equal to the sum of all the energies the object gained, which is simply $P + Q$.
Question 11
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As the pressure gauge goes deeper into the sea, its depth below the surface is steadily increasing. According to the physics of fluids, the pressure in a liquid ($p = \rho gh$) increases directly with depth because there is a greater weight of water pressing down from above. The density of sea water remains relatively constant, and while the temperature might drop slightly in real life, the dominant factor causing the massive increase in pressure is simply the increasing depth of the water column. Therefore, the pressure increases entirely because the depth below the surface increases.
Question 12

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We are dealing with a fixed mass of gas being compressed at a constant temperature. According to Boyle’s Law, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume ($pV = \text{constant}$). As the volume is slowly decreased over time, the gas particles are forced into a much smaller space, meaning they collide with the cylinder walls much more frequently. This increased frequency of particle collisions causes the internal pressure to rise. Looking at the options, graph C correctly depicts the pressure increasing steadily over time as the compression takes place.
Question 13
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Evaporation is specifically a surface phenomenon where a liquid turns into a gas at temperatures below its actual boiling point. In any body of liquid, molecules are constantly moving and colliding, possessing a range of different kinetic energies. Occasionally, a highly energetic molecule near the top surface gains enough momentum to overcome the attractive intermolecular forces holding it in the liquid phase. When this happens, the molecule literally escapes from the surface of the liquid and becomes a freely moving gas particle. Thus, evaporation is fundamentally defined by these energetic molecules escaping from the liquid’s surface.
Question 14


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The Celsius temperature scale is fundamentally defined by two standard reference points, known as fixed points, which are based on the specific thermal properties of water at standard atmospheric pressure. The lower fixed point is defined as the melting point of pure ice, which is set at exactly $0^\circ\text{C}$. The upper fixed point is defined as the boiling point of pure water, which is established as exactly $100^\circ\text{C}$. Therefore, regardless of the highest and lowest physical markings shown on any individual thermometer, the defining fixed points of the Celsius scale itself are always $0^\circ\text{C}$ and $100^\circ\text{C}$.
Question 15
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When thermal energy is actively supplied to a solid object, its temperature begins to rise. At the microscopic level, this added heat energy is converted directly into kinetic energy, causing the tightly packed particles in the solid lattice to vibrate much more vigorously around their fixed positions. The total amount of energy held by all these particles is known as the object’s internal energy. Therefore, as the temperature of the solid goes up, its internal energy fundamentally increases. It typically expands slightly (not contracts) causing density to decrease, and its molecules remain in fixed lattice positions rather than moving freely like a gas.
Question 16
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An electric fire is specifically designed to produce thermal energy, which is predominantly transferred into the room through infrared radiation. Infrared radiation is a very well-known part of the electromagnetic spectrum. On the other hand, an electric generator is meant to induce alternating electrical current, and an electric motor uses current to produce physical kinetic energy. While an electromagnet creates a strong magnetic field, it doesn’t radiate traveling electromagnetic waves like an antenna or a heating element does. Therefore, the electric fire is the only piece of equipment here explicitly designed to emit an electromagnetic wave (infrared).
Question 17

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The diagram illustrates a classic convection current, where a heated substance expands, becomes less dense, and naturally rises, while cooler, denser portions sink down to replace it. For this physical circulation to happen, the particles themselves must be entirely free to flow and move past one another. In solid materials, particles are locked into a rigid lattice structure and can only vibrate in place, making flow completely impossible. Liquids and gases, however, are both classified as fluids precisely because their particles are mobile. Thus, convection currents can only occur in gases and liquids.
Question 18

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When a straight (plane) wave travels and hits an obstacle or a narrow opening, the wave doesn’t just travel straight through perfectly. Instead, it bends around the edges of the barrier and spreads out into the geometric shadow region behind it. In physics, this distinct spreading of waves as they pass through an aperture or around an edge is officially known as diffraction. Reflection is bouncing off a surface, and refraction involves bending due to a change in speed/medium. Since the water waves are staying in the same medium but spreading through a gap, the phenomenon is absolutely diffraction.
Question 19


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In standard optical ray diagrams involving thin lenses, light rays begin at the original physical item, which is defined as the object (label W on the far left). As the light travels parallel to the principal axis and hits the converging lens, it refracts and bends inwards to pass precisely through a specific point on the central axis. This focal point is known as the principal focus (label Y). The light rays then continue until they intersect on the other side of the lens, and this intersection point is where the final image (label Z) is successfully formed. Therefore, the object is W, the image is Z, and the principal focus is Y.
Question 20

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When an object is placed in front of a completely flat plane mirror, the physics of reflection guarantee that a virtual image is formed. One of the absolute fundamental characteristics of this virtual image is that it sits exactly as far behind the mirror as the actual object rests in front of it. It also forms along a geometric line completely perpendicular to the mirror’s surface passing through the object. Position B directly matches both of these spatial criteria. Remember, the observer’s viewing angle (the eye) only determines whether they can see the image, it does not change where the image is actually located in space!
Question 21
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In optics, all standard angles are measured relative to the “normal,” which is an imaginary line drawn exactly perpendicular (at 90°) to the mirror’s surface at the point of incidence. The question gives us the angle between the incident light ray and the mirror’s physical surface, which is 70°. To find the true angle of incidence, we must subtract this surface angle from 90°. Doing the math, $90^{\circ} – 70^{\circ} = 20^{\circ}$. Therefore, the angle of incidence is 20°.
Question 22
The frequency of M is $5.0 \times 10^{6}\text{ Hz}$.
The frequency of N is $5.0 \times 10^{15}\text{ Hz}$.

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To solve this, we must recall the order of the electromagnetic spectrum by frequency, moving from lowest to highest: Radio waves, Microwaves, Infrared, Visible light, Ultraviolet, X-rays, and Gamma rays. The frequency of visible light is given as roughly $10^{14}\text{ Hz}$. Radiation M has a significantly lower frequency ($10^{6}\text{ Hz}$), which firmly places it at the very bottom end of the spectrum, among radio waves. Radiation N has a slightly higher frequency ($10^{15}\text{ Hz}$) than visible light, putting it just past the visible spectrum into the ultraviolet region. Thus, M is radio waves and N is ultraviolet.
Question 23
Two students are describing different types of electromagnetic radiation.
student 1: This radiation is used in communications.
student 2: This radiation is used in remote controllers.

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Let’s match the descriptions to their practical applications in the real world. Student 1 talks about communications; both microwaves and radio waves are heavily utilized for modern communications, including cellular networks and Wi-Fi. Student 2 mentions remote controllers; the standard invisible radiation used by almost all household remote controls (like for a TV) is infrared. Since sound waves are completely missing from the electromagnetic spectrum entirely, Option C is instantly wrong. Option A perfectly matches both uses: microwaves for long-distance communications and infrared for short-range remote controllers.
Question 24


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This classic physics scenario highlights the massive difference between the speed of light and the speed of sound. Light travels extraordinarily fast, at approximately $300,000,000\text{ m/s}$. At a distance of 100 meters, the light from the puff of smoke reaches the judge’s eyes essentially instantaneously (in about $0.0000003\text{ s}$). Sound, however, is much more sluggish, travelling through air at about $330\text{ m/s}$. We can calculate the exact time it takes for the sound to travel the 100m track using $t = \frac{d}{v}$, which gives $\frac{100}{330} \approx 0.3$ seconds. Consequently, the judge will see the smoke immediately and then hear the loud bang roughly 0.3 seconds later.
Question 25

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To safely and correctly verify the electrical ratings of an appliance like a hairdryer, we must measure the total current flowing right through it and the potential difference (voltage) dropping directly across it. An ammeter is specially designed with very low internal resistance to measure current, so it absolutely must be placed in series with the component to allow the full current to pass through it. A voltmeter, on the other hand, has very high internal resistance to measure potential difference, so it must always be connected in parallel across the component. Therefore, the only circuit configuration that obeys both rules is D.
Question 26
The current in the lamp is 0.5 A.

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We need to find the resistance of the lamp. The problem gives us the potential difference (voltage) across the lamp, which is 6.0 V, and the current flowing through it, which is 0.5 A. According to Ohm’s law, resistance is defined as the ratio of potential difference to current, given by the formula $R = \frac{V}{I}$. Plugging in our values, we get $R = \frac{6.0}{0.5}$. Dividing 6.0 by 0.5 gives us exactly 12.0 Ω. Therefore, the electrical resistance of the lamp is 12.0 Ω.
Question 27
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Electromotive force, or e.m.f., represents the total electrical work done by a power source (like a cell or battery) in moving a unit of positive charge entirely around a complete circuit. Despite containing the word “force” in its historical name, it is absolutely not a mechanical force measured in Newtons. Instead, it is a measure of energy per unit charge, exactly like potential difference. Therefore, just like potential difference, electromotive force is officially measured in volts (V). For context, amperes measure current, watts measure power, and ohms measure resistance.
Question 28
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When dealing with solid objects, only the tiny, negatively charged electrons at the outer edges of atoms are free to move between materials. The positively charged protons are locked tightly deep inside the massive atomic nuclei and cannot move to transfer charge. When the plastic rod is rubbed with the woollen cloth, the physical friction transfers electrons from one material to the other. Because the rod ends up with a net positive charge, it means it must have lost some of its negative charges. Therefore, the electrons were stripped away and successfully moved from the rod to the cloth.
Question 29
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To accurately measure the potential difference (or voltage drop) specifically across a particular electrical component, the voltmeter must always be connected in parallel directly across that component. This means the two input leads of the voltmeter should be placed firmly on either side of the lamp. Position A measures the total e.m.f. provided across the cell. Position B is placed in series, which is completely incorrect for a voltmeter due to its high resistance. Position D incorrectly measures the p.d. across the fixed resistor. Position C is perfectly connected in parallel across the lamp, so it correctly measures the lamp’s potential difference.
Question 30


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In standard IGCSE physics, thermistors are heavily assumed to be of the NTC (Negative Temperature Coefficient) variety. This simply means that as their temperature increases, their internal resistance inversely decreases. The diagram shown is a classic potential divider, meaning the total voltage from the cell is shared proportionally between the top resistor and the bottom thermistor based exactly on their current resistances. Since the thermistor’s resistance has decreased due to the heat, it will now take a proportionally smaller “share” of the total potential difference. Therefore, the voltmeter, which is wired directly across the thermistor, will display a decreased reading.
Question 31

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In a parallel circuit, each individual branch effectively receives the full electromotive force (e.m.f.) from the power supply. Therefore, when identical lamps are connected entirely in parallel across the battery (circuit D), they each experience the maximum possible potential difference without having to share it. Because electrical power is calculated as $P = \frac{V^2}{R}$, maximizing the voltage inherently maximizes the power output, meaning the lamps will shine at their absolute brightest. In series circuits or mixed circuits, the voltage is shared across components, making the connected lamps significantly dimmer.
Question 32

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In standard physics circuit diagrams, specific components have universally agreed-upon geometric symbols to prevent confusion. A simple blank rectangle (A) represents a fixed resistor. A rectangle with a diagonal line flattening out (B) is a thermistor. A rectangle with a diagonal arrow cutting right through it (C) represents a variable resistor. However, a rectangle with a continuous horizontal line running straight through its geometric center is the international standard symbol for a fuse. Therefore, option D correctly depicts a fuse.
Question 33

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When damaged insulation allows a live wire and a neutral wire to physically touch, a dangerous short circuit occurs. This abruptly creates a path of extremely low electrical resistance, allowing a massive surge of current to flow rapidly through the cables. This enormous current generates immense heat due to electrical friction, which can easily melt the surrounding wires and trigger a catastrophic fire. To actively protect against this specific hazard, a fuse is integrated into the circuit; the excessive current melts the thin wire inside the fuse, breaking the circuit instantly before any fire can start.
Question 34


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When a steady direct current flows through a tightly wound solenoid, it generates a robust magnetic field that perfectly mimics a standard bar magnet. The magnetic field lines naturally emerge straight out from the North pole, curve gracefully around the outside, and re-enter at the South pole. If we assume the left end becomes the North pole, the compass on the left will firmly point away to the left. The field lines curve over the top and bottom, pointing back towards the right, so those compasses must point right. Finally, the lines enter the South pole, pulling the right compass to point left. Option D matches this exact continuous field loop.
Question 35

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For the efficient bulk transmission of electrical power over very long distances, power stations initially use a step-up transformer to drastically increase the voltage. This high voltage inherently reduces the current ($P = IV$), which critically minimizes thermal energy losses in the transmission cables ($P = I^2R$). However, these incredibly high transmission voltages (often hundreds of thousands of volts) are extremely dangerous for domestic use. Therefore, right before the power is delivered into local houses, a step-down transformer is safely used to reduce the voltage back to a manageable domestic level.
Question 36


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The total turning effect (or torque) experienced by a direct current motor coil inside a magnetic field is directly proportional to several key factors. Specifically, increasing the number of turns in the wire coil multiplies the force, and increasing the magnitude of the electrical current flowing through it also proportionally increases the force. Since Coil P has more physical turns (3) compared to Coil Q (2), it inherently has an advantage. To absolutely maximize the turning effect overall, we must pair the coil with the most turns (Coil P) with the highest possible current option available, which is 4 A.
Question 37
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In standard international nuclear symbol notation (${}_{Z}^{A}\text{X}$), the large chemical symbol of the element is represented by X. The bottom number, Z, is explicitly the proton number (atomic number), which dictates exactly what element it is. The top number, A, is the nucleon number (mass number), calculated as the total sum of all protons and neutrons in the nucleus. For this specific cobalt nuclide, the proton number is given as 27. The total nucleon number is calculated by adding $27 + 32$, which equals 59. Therefore, the completely correct scientific symbol must have 59 at the top and 27 at the bottom, matching ${}_{27}^{59}\text{Co}$.
Question 38
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Background radiation is the continuous, low-level ionizing radiation that constantly surrounds us in our natural environment. It does not come from just one place but rather multiple ubiquitous sources. High-energy cosmic rays constantly bombard the Earth’s atmosphere from deep outer space. Certain types of rocks and soils in the Earth’s crust naturally contain trace amounts of radioactive isotopes (like uranium) and emit radon gas. Additionally, the daily food we eat and the water we drink naturally absorb small amounts of these trace environmental radioisotopes. Therefore, all of these options—food, drink, rocks, and cosmic rays—are universally recognized sources of natural background radiation.
Question 39


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To accurately identify the types of radiation, we systematically analyze the detector counts as different dense absorbers are introduced. Initially, the baseline count is 350. When thin paper is inserted, the count rate stays completely unchanged at 350, meaning absolutely no weakly-penetrating $\alpha$-particles are present (as paper easily stops alpha). When 1.0 mm of aluminium is placed, the count rate drops significantly down to 180, proving that $\beta$-particles are present and being actively absorbed by the metal. When 1.0 cm of thick lead is finally used, the rate drops massively to 23, indicating that highly penetrating $\gamma$-rays are also present and are finally being absorbed by the very dense lead. Thus, the source emits both $\beta$ and $\gamma$ radiation.
Question 40
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The half-life of any radioactive isotope is defined as the exact time required for exactly half of the unstable nuclei in a given sample to undergo radioactive decay. If we start with a completely full sample ($100\%$ or $1$), after one full half-life of 400 years passes, exactly $\frac{1}{2}$ of the original sample will remain undecayed. After a second full half-life passes, half of that remaining amount will then decay, leaving exactly $\frac{1}{4}$ of the original sample behind ($\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}$). Since two consecutive half-lives must pass to confidently reach this fractional amount, the total time taken is calculated as $2 \times 400\text{ years} = 800\text{ years}$.
