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Question 1

Which measuring instrument can be used to find the volume of a small stone?
A. measuring cylinder partly filled with water
B. measuring tape
C. metre rule
D. protractor

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.4: Density (Describe how to determine the density of a liquid, of a regularly shaped solid and of an irregularly shaped solid which sinks in a liquid (volume by displacement))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

To find the volume of an irregularly shaped small object like a stone, we can’t just measure its sides with a ruler or tape because there’s no simple mathematical formula for its specific shape. Instead, we use a practical method called displacement. By dropping the stone into a measuring cylinder that is partly filled with water, the water level will naturally rise. The difference between the new water level and the original water level tells us the exact volume of the water displaced, which is perfectly equal to the volume of the solid stone. Therefore, the measuring cylinder partly filled with water is the correct tool for this job.

Question 2

The diagrams show speed-time graphs for four different bodies moving for $6.0\text{ s}$.
Which body travelled the least distance?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion (Calculate the area under a speed–time graph to determine the distance travelled for motion with constant speed or constant acceleration)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When looking at a speed-time graph, the total distance travelled by the object is represented by the area underneath the drawn line. For graph A, the area is a triangle with base 6 and height 6, giving a distance of $\frac{1}{2} \times 6 \times 6 = 18\text{ m}$. For graph B, the area is a smaller triangle with base 6 and height 4, giving $\frac{1}{2} \times 6 \times 4 = 12\text{ m}$. Graph C shows a constant speed of $6\text{ m/s}$ for $6\text{ s}$, which forms a large rectangular area of $6 \times 6 = 36\text{ m}$. Graph D forms a triangle with base 6 and height 8, giving $\frac{1}{2} \times 6 \times 8 = 24\text{ m}$. Comparing all these calculated areas, body B clearly has the smallest area under the graph, meaning it travelled the least distance.

Question 3

Which row shows the mass and the weight of an object near the Earth’s surface?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and weight (Define gravitational field strength as force per unit mass; recall and use the equation $g = \frac{W}{m}$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

We need to remember the relationship between mass and weight near the Earth’s surface, which is given by the equation $W = mg$. From the standard instructions in physics papers, we know the acceleration of free fall $g$ is typically taken as $10\text{ m/s}^2$ (or $10\text{ N/kg}$) for simplicity. Let’s check the options with this formula. If the mass is $2\text{ kg}$, the weight should be calculated as $2\text{ kg} \times 10\text{ N/kg} = 20\text{ N}$. Looking at the given rows, row C perfectly matches this calculation with a mass of $2\text{ kg}$ and a weight of $20\text{ N}$. The other rows don’t follow this 1 to 10 ratio, so they must be incorrect.

Question 4

The diagram shows four pieces of laboratory apparatus.
Which pieces of apparatus are used to find the density of a liquid?
A. balance and stop-watch
B. balance and measuring cylinder
C. measuring cylinder and ruler
D. stop-watch and ruler

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.4: Density (Describe how to determine the density of a liquid…)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To determine the density of any substance, we need to know two fundamental quantities: its mass and its volume, because the mathematical formula for density is $\rho = \frac{m}{V}$. For a liquid, we can easily find its volume by pouring it directly into a measuring cylinder and reading the scale. To find its mass, we use a balance to weigh the cylinder with the liquid, and then subtract the mass of the empty cylinder. A ruler and a stop-watch are completely unnecessary here since we aren’t measuring length or time to find density. Therefore, the correct combination of apparatus is a balance and a measuring cylinder.

Question 5

What is the unit for the moment of a force about a point?
A. $\text{W}$
B. $\text{Ns}$
C. $\text{N/m}$
D. $\text{Nm}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Define the moment of a force as moment = force × perpendicular distance from the pivot)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The moment of a force is a physical measure of its turning effect around a specific pivot point. The formula to calculate this is the force applied multiplied by the perpendicular distance from the pivot point to the line of action of the force. Since force is universally measured in Newtons ($\text{N}$) and distance is measured in meters ($\text{m}$), we just multiply these two units together. This logically gives us the unit Newton-meters, which is written as $\text{Nm}$. The other options represent different physical quantities entirely, like Watts ($\text{W}$) for power or Newton-seconds ($\text{Ns}$) for impulse.

Question 6

On which ball is a non-zero resultant force acting?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.1: Effects of forces (Know that an object either remains at rest or continues in a straight line at constant speed unless acted on by a resultant force)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

According to Newton’s first law of motion, an object will remain completely at rest or continue to move at a constant speed in a straight line if the net (resultant) force acting on it is exactly zero. For the ball moving at a constant speed (A), the ball resting peacefully on a bench (B), and the ball floating in equilibrium on water (D), there is no acceleration taking place, which guarantees the resultant force is zero. However, a free-falling ball that has just been released (C) is actively accelerating downwards purely under the influence of gravity ($g$). Because it is accelerating, there must be a non-zero resultant force pulling it down, which in this case is the ball’s weight.

Question 7

Which statements must be correct for an object to be in equilibrium?
       1 The object is moving in a straight line.
       2 There is no resultant force on the object.
       3 There is no resultant moment on the object.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (State that, when there is no resultant force and no resultant moment, an object is in equilibrium)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

For an object to be in a state of true mechanical equilibrium, two absolute conditions must be strictly met. First, all translational forces must perfectly balance out, meaning there is absolutely no resultant force acting on the object (Statement 2). Second, all rotational forces must also balance, meaning there is no resultant turning effect or moment (Statement 3). While it’s true that an object moving in a straight line at a constant speed is technically in translational equilibrium, simply “moving in a straight line” isn’t a mandatory requirement for equilibrium because an object completely at rest is also in equilibrium! Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are universally necessary conditions.

Question 8

An object falls towards the Earth’s surface. What happens to the gravitational potential energy and to the kinetic energy of the object?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.1: Energy (Describe how energy is transferred between stores during events and processes)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When an object is physically falling downwards toward the Earth’s surface, its height above the ground is constantly shrinking. Because gravitational potential energy is directly tied to an object’s height ($E_p = mgh$), this stored energy naturally decreases as it falls. At the same exact time, the object is accelerating smoothly due to Earth’s gravitational pull, meaning it is getting faster and faster. Since kinetic energy is linked to the square of the speed ($E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$), its kinetic energy is actively increasing. Essentially, the falling object is undergoing an energy transfer, converting its gravitational potential energy directly into kinetic energy!

Question 9

Which source of energy is not currently used to generate electrical energy?
A. nuclear fusion
B. solar
C. tidal
D. waves

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.3: Energy resources (Know that research is being carried out to investigate how energy released by nuclear fusion can be used to produce electrical energy on a large scale)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

We harness many amazing resources to successfully generate electricity today, including extensive arrays of solar panels, massive tidal barrages, and experimental wave power machines. Moreover, nuclear fission (which works by splitting heavy atoms like Uranium) is widely used in commercial power stations worldwide. However, nuclear fusion (the intense process of joining light atoms together, powering our Sun) requires extreme pressures and temperatures that are incredibly difficult to sustain and control here on Earth. While scientists are heavily researching and building massive experimental fusion reactors, it is not yet practically or commercially used to generate electrical energy for our grids.

Question 10

A mass is lifted from rest on the ground to Y. There is no air resistance.

$P$ is the increase in gravitational energy of the mass.
$Q$ is the kinetic energy of the mass at Y.

Which expression is equal to the mechanical work done on the mass?
A. $P + Q$
B. $P – Q$
C. $Q – P$
D. $P \times Q$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.2: Work (Understand that mechanical or electrical work done is equal to the energy transferred)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

According to the fundamental principle of energy conservation, the total mechanical work that is physically done on an object always equals the total energy that gets transferred into it. As this mass is being lifted upwards to position Y from an initial state of rest, work is actively being done against gravity to increase its height, giving us the accumulated gravitational potential energy, $P$. Furthermore, if the mass reaches Y and still has some kinetic energy $Q$ (meaning it’s moving), it means additional work was also done to accelerate the object to that speed. Therefore, the total mechanical work done by the lifting force is exactly equal to the sum of all the energies the object gained, which is simply $P + Q$.

Question 11

A pressure gauge is lowered into the sea. Measurements of the pressure and depth are taken as the pressure gauge is lowered.
Which statement describes how and why the pressure changes as the gauge is lowered?
A. The density of the sea water decreases so the pressure increases.
B. The depth of the gauge below the surface of the sea increases so the pressure increases.
C. The height of the gauge above the sea bed decreases so the pressure decreases.
D. The temperature of the sea water decreases so the pressure decreases.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.8: Pressure (Describe, qualitatively, how the pressure beneath the surface of a liquid changes with depth and density of the liquid)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

As the pressure gauge goes deeper into the sea, its depth below the surface is steadily increasing. According to the physics of fluids, the pressure in a liquid ($p = \rho gh$) increases directly with depth because there is a greater weight of water pressing down from above. The density of sea water remains relatively constant, and while the temperature might drop slightly in real life, the dominant factor causing the massive increase in pressure is simply the increasing depth of the water column. Therefore, the pressure increases entirely because the depth below the surface increases.

Question 12

The pressure of a fixed mass of gas in a cylinder is measured.
The volume of the gas in the cylinder is slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas does not change.
Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes during this process?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.3: Gases and the absolute scale of temperature (Describe qualitatively, in terms of particles, the effect on the pressure of a fixed mass of gas of a change of volume at constant temperature)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

We are dealing with a fixed mass of gas being compressed at a constant temperature. According to Boyle’s Law, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume ($pV = \text{constant}$). As the volume is slowly decreased over time, the gas particles are forced into a much smaller space, meaning they collide with the cylinder walls much more frequently. This increased frequency of particle collisions causes the internal pressure to rise. Looking at the options, graph C correctly depicts the pressure increasing steadily over time as the compression takes place.

Question 13

Which statement about the motion of molecules describes the process of evaporation?
A. Molecules break free from their fixed positions.
B. Freely moving molecules collide and join together.
C. Molecules escape from the surface of a liquid.
D. Freely moving molecules gain energy and move further apart.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.3: Melting, boiling and evaporation (Describe evaporation in terms of the escape of more-energetic particles from the surface of a liquid)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Evaporation is specifically a surface phenomenon where a liquid turns into a gas at temperatures below its actual boiling point. In any body of liquid, molecules are constantly moving and colliding, possessing a range of different kinetic energies. Occasionally, a highly energetic molecule near the top surface gains enough momentum to overcome the attractive intermolecular forces holding it in the liquid phase. When this happens, the molecule literally escapes from the surface of the liquid and becomes a freely moving gas particle. Thus, evaporation is fundamentally defined by these energetic molecules escaping from the liquid’s surface.

Question 14

The diagram shows a thermometer calibrated in degrees Celsius.
What are the values of the lower fixed point and of the upper fixed point on the Celsius scale?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.3: Melting, boiling and evaporation (Know the melting and boiling temperatures for water at standard atmospheric pressure)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The Celsius temperature scale is fundamentally defined by two standard reference points, known as fixed points, which are based on the specific thermal properties of water at standard atmospheric pressure. The lower fixed point is defined as the melting point of pure ice, which is set at exactly $0^\circ\text{C}$. The upper fixed point is defined as the boiling point of pure water, which is established as exactly $100^\circ\text{C}$. Therefore, regardless of the highest and lowest physical markings shown on any individual thermometer, the defining fixed points of the Celsius scale itself are always $0^\circ\text{C}$ and $100^\circ\text{C}$.

Question 15

What happens to a solid when its temperature increases?
A. It contracts.
B. Its density increases.
C. Its internal energy increases.
D. Its molecules move freely.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.2: Specific heat capacity (Know that a rise in the temperature of an object increases its internal energy)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

When thermal energy is actively supplied to a solid object, its temperature begins to rise. At the microscopic level, this added heat energy is converted directly into kinetic energy, causing the tightly packed particles in the solid lattice to vibrate much more vigorously around their fixed positions. The total amount of energy held by all these particles is known as the object’s internal energy. Therefore, as the temperature of the solid goes up, its internal energy fundamentally increases. It typically expands slightly (not contracts) causing density to decrease, and its molecules remain in fixed lattice positions rather than moving freely like a gas.

Question 16

Which piece of equipment is designed to produce a type of electromagnetic wave?
A. electric fire
B. electric generator
C. electric motor
D. electromagnet

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Describe the main features of the electromagnetic spectrum… infrared; electric grills)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

An electric fire is specifically designed to produce thermal energy, which is predominantly transferred into the room through infrared radiation. Infrared radiation is a very well-known part of the electromagnetic spectrum. On the other hand, an electric generator is meant to induce alternating electrical current, and an electric motor uses current to produce physical kinetic energy. While an electromagnet creates a strong magnetic field, it doesn’t radiate traveling electromagnetic waves like an antenna or a heating element does. Therefore, the electric fire is the only piece of equipment here explicitly designed to emit an electromagnetic wave (infrared).

Question 17

Particles can move, transferring thermal energy, as shown.
In which states of matter does this movement occur?
A. gas and liquid only
B. gas and solid only
C. gas, liquid and solid
D. liquid and solid only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.3.2: Convection (Know that convection is an important method of thermal energy transfer in liquids and gases)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The diagram illustrates a classic convection current, where a heated substance expands, becomes less dense, and naturally rises, while cooler, denser portions sink down to replace it. For this physical circulation to happen, the particles themselves must be entirely free to flow and move past one another. In solid materials, particles are locked into a rigid lattice structure and can only vibrate in place, making flow completely impossible. Liquids and gases, however, are both classified as fluids precisely because their particles are mobile. Thus, convection currents can only occur in gases and liquids.

Question 18

The diagram shows plane water waves in a ripple tank passing through a gap between two barriers and spreading out.
Which name is given to this effect?
A. diffraction
B. reflection
C. refraction
D. total internal reflection

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Describe how waves can undergo: reflection, refraction, and diffraction through a narrow gap)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

When a straight (plane) wave travels and hits an obstacle or a narrow opening, the wave doesn’t just travel straight through perfectly. Instead, it bends around the edges of the barrier and spreads out into the geometric shadow region behind it. In physics, this distinct spreading of waves as they pass through an aperture or around an edge is officially known as diffraction. Reflection is bouncing off a surface, and refraction involves bending due to a change in speed/medium. Since the water waves are staying in the same medium but spreading through a gap, the phenomenon is absolutely diffraction.

Question 19

What are the correct labels for the ray diagram?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.3: Thin lenses (Define and use the terms focal length, principal axis and principal focus; Draw and use ray diagrams for the formation of an image by a converging lens)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

In standard optical ray diagrams involving thin lenses, light rays begin at the original physical item, which is defined as the object (label W on the far left). As the light travels parallel to the principal axis and hits the converging lens, it refracts and bends inwards to pass precisely through a specific point on the central axis. This focal point is known as the principal focus (label Y). The light rays then continue until they intersect on the other side of the lens, and this intersection point is where the final image (label Z) is successfully formed. Therefore, the object is W, the image is Z, and the principal focus is Y.

Question 20

The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror.
At which labelled position is the image of the object formed?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light (Describe the formation of an optical image by a plane mirror and give its characteristics, i.e. same size, same distance from mirror, virtual)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When an object is placed in front of a completely flat plane mirror, the physics of reflection guarantee that a virtual image is formed. One of the absolute fundamental characteristics of this virtual image is that it sits exactly as far behind the mirror as the actual object rests in front of it. It also forms along a geometric line completely perpendicular to the mirror’s surface passing through the object. Position B directly matches both of these spatial criteria. Remember, the observer’s viewing angle (the eye) only determines whether they can see the image, it does not change where the image is actually located in space!

Question 21

The angle between an incident ray and the surface of a plane mirror reflecting the ray is 70°.
What is the angle of incidence?
A. 20°
B. 40°
C. 70°
D. 140°

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light (Define and use the terms normal, angle of incidence and angle of reflection)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

In optics, all standard angles are measured relative to the “normal,” which is an imaginary line drawn exactly perpendicular (at 90°) to the mirror’s surface at the point of incidence. The question gives us the angle between the incident light ray and the mirror’s physical surface, which is 70°. To find the true angle of incidence, we must subtract this surface angle from 90°. Doing the math, $90^{\circ} – 70^{\circ} = 20^{\circ}$. Therefore, the angle of incidence is 20°.

Question 22

Visible light has a frequency of approximately $5.0 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}$.
M and N are two other types of electromagnetic radiation.
The frequency of M is $5.0 \times 10^{6}\text{ Hz}$.
The frequency of N is $5.0 \times 10^{15}\text{ Hz}$.
Which types of radiation are M and N?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Describe the main features of the electromagnetic spectrum in order of frequency, from radio waves to gamma rays)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we must recall the order of the electromagnetic spectrum by frequency, moving from lowest to highest: Radio waves, Microwaves, Infrared, Visible light, Ultraviolet, X-rays, and Gamma rays. The frequency of visible light is given as roughly $10^{14}\text{ Hz}$. Radiation M has a significantly lower frequency ($10^{6}\text{ Hz}$), which firmly places it at the very bottom end of the spectrum, among radio waves. Radiation N has a slightly higher frequency ($10^{15}\text{ Hz}$) than visible light, putting it just past the visible spectrum into the ultraviolet region. Thus, M is radio waves and N is ultraviolet.

Question 23

Two students are describing different types of electromagnetic radiation.

       student 1: This radiation is used in communications.
       student 2: This radiation is used in remote controllers.

Which row shows the possible type of radiation that each student is describing?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Describe the role of electromagnetic waves in: microwaves; satellite television, mobile phones… infrared; short range communications such as remote controllers for televisions)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Let’s match the descriptions to their practical applications in the real world. Student 1 talks about communications; both microwaves and radio waves are heavily utilized for modern communications, including cellular networks and Wi-Fi. Student 2 mentions remote controllers; the standard invisible radiation used by almost all household remote controls (like for a TV) is infrared. Since sound waves are completely missing from the electromagnetic spectrum entirely, Option C is instantly wrong. Option A perfectly matches both uses: microwaves for long-distance communications and infrared for short-range remote controllers.

Question 24

A 100 m race is started by firing a gun. The gun makes a bang and a puff of smoke at the same time.
When does the finishing judge see the smoke and when does he hear the bang?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.4: Sound (Know that the speed of sound in air is approximately 330–350 m/s)
TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Know that the speed of electromagnetic waves in a vacuum is $3.0 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}$ and is approximately the same in air)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

This classic physics scenario highlights the massive difference between the speed of light and the speed of sound. Light travels extraordinarily fast, at approximately $300,000,000\text{ m/s}$. At a distance of 100 meters, the light from the puff of smoke reaches the judge’s eyes essentially instantaneously (in about $0.0000003\text{ s}$). Sound, however, is much more sluggish, travelling through air at about $330\text{ m/s}$. We can calculate the exact time it takes for the sound to travel the 100m track using $t = \frac{d}{v}$, which gives $\frac{100}{330} \approx 0.3$ seconds. Consequently, the judge will see the smoke immediately and then hear the loud bang roughly 0.3 seconds later.

Question 25

An electric hairdryer is rated 230 V, 2 A.
Which circuit could be used to check that these ratings are correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components (Draw and interpret circuit diagrams containing… ammeters, voltmeters)
TOPIC 4.2.2 & 4.2.3: Electric current / Potential difference (Describe the use of ammeters and voltmeters)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To safely and correctly verify the electrical ratings of an appliance like a hairdryer, we must measure the total current flowing right through it and the potential difference (voltage) dropping directly across it. An ammeter is specially designed with very low internal resistance to measure current, so it absolutely must be placed in series with the component to allow the full current to pass through it. A voltmeter, on the other hand, has very high internal resistance to measure potential difference, so it must always be connected in parallel across the component. Therefore, the only circuit configuration that obeys both rules is D.

Question 26

The diagram shows a circuit used to control the potential difference (p.d.) across a lamp.
The variable resistor is adjusted until the p.d. across the lamp is 6.0 V.
The current in the lamp is 0.5 A.
What is the resistance of the lamp?
A. 0.083 Ω
B. 3.0 Ω
C. 6.5 Ω
D. 12.0 Ω

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.4: Resistance (Recall and use the equation for resistance $R = \frac{V}{I}$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

We need to find the resistance of the lamp. The problem gives us the potential difference (voltage) across the lamp, which is 6.0 V, and the current flowing through it, which is 0.5 A. According to Ohm’s law, resistance is defined as the ratio of potential difference to current, given by the formula $R = \frac{V}{I}$. Plugging in our values, we get $R = \frac{6.0}{0.5}$. Dividing 6.0 by 0.5 gives us exactly 12.0 Ω. Therefore, the electrical resistance of the lamp is 12.0 Ω.

Question 27

What are the units of electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
A. amperes
B. watts
C. ohms
D. volts

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.3: Electromotive force and potential difference (Know that e.m.f. is measured in volts (V))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Electromotive force, or e.m.f., represents the total electrical work done by a power source (like a cell or battery) in moving a unit of positive charge entirely around a complete circuit. Despite containing the word “force” in its historical name, it is absolutely not a mechanical force measured in Newtons. Instead, it is a measure of energy per unit charge, exactly like potential difference. Therefore, just like potential difference, electromotive force is officially measured in volts (V). For context, amperes measure current, watts measure power, and ohms measure resistance.

Question 28

A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry woollen cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.
Which statement is correct?
A. Electrons move from the cloth to the rod.
B. Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C. Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D. Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.1: Electric charge (Explain that charging of solids by friction involves only a transfer of negative charge (electrons))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When dealing with solid objects, only the tiny, negatively charged electrons at the outer edges of atoms are free to move between materials. The positively charged protons are locked tightly deep inside the massive atomic nuclei and cannot move to transfer charge. When the plastic rod is rubbed with the woollen cloth, the physical friction transfers electrons from one material to the other. Because the rod ends up with a net positive charge, it means it must have lost some of its negative charges. Therefore, the electrons were stripped away and successfully moved from the rod to the cloth.

Question 29

A circuit containing a cell, a resistor and a lamp is set up as shown.
A student connects a voltmeter to the circuit in one of the positions shown.
In which position does the voltmeter measure the potential difference (p.d.) across the lamp?
A. Position A (Voltmeter connected in parallel across the cell)
B. Position B (Voltmeter connected in series within the main circuit loop)
C. Position C (Voltmeter connected in parallel specifically across the lamp)
D. Position D (Voltmeter connected in parallel across the resistor)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.3: Electromotive force and potential difference (Describe the use of voltmeters)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To accurately measure the potential difference (or voltage drop) specifically across a particular electrical component, the voltmeter must always be connected in parallel directly across that component. This means the two input leads of the voltmeter should be placed firmly on either side of the lamp. Position A measures the total e.m.f. provided across the cell. Position B is placed in series, which is completely incorrect for a voltmeter due to its high resistance. Position D incorrectly measures the p.d. across the fixed resistor. Position C is perfectly connected in parallel across the lamp, so it correctly measures the lamp’s potential difference.

Question 30

The diagram shows a potential divider circuit.
The temperature of the thermistor increases.
What happens to the resistance of the thermistor, and what happens to the reading on the voltmeter?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.3: Action and use of circuit components (Describe the action of a variable potential divider)
TOPIC 4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components (Draw and interpret circuit diagrams containing… thermistors (NTC only))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

In standard IGCSE physics, thermistors are heavily assumed to be of the NTC (Negative Temperature Coefficient) variety. This simply means that as their temperature increases, their internal resistance inversely decreases. The diagram shown is a classic potential divider, meaning the total voltage from the cell is shared proportionally between the top resistor and the bottom thermistor based exactly on their current resistances. Since the thermistor’s resistance has decreased due to the heat, it will now take a proportionally smaller “share” of the total potential difference. Therefore, the voltmeter, which is wired directly across the thermistor, will display a decreased reading.

Question 31

A student sets up four circuits using identical batteries and three identical lamps.
In which circuit will all the lamps be the brightest?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits (State the advantages of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In a parallel circuit, each individual branch effectively receives the full electromotive force (e.m.f.) from the power supply. Therefore, when identical lamps are connected entirely in parallel across the battery (circuit D), they each experience the maximum possible potential difference without having to share it. Because electrical power is calculated as $P = \frac{V^2}{R}$, maximizing the voltage inherently maximizes the power output, meaning the lamps will shine at their absolute brightest. In series circuits or mixed circuits, the voltage is shared across components, making the connected lamps significantly dimmer.

Question 32

Which diagram shows the circuit symbol for a fuse?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components (Draw and interpret circuit diagrams containing… fuses)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In standard physics circuit diagrams, specific components have universally agreed-upon geometric symbols to prevent confusion. A simple blank rectangle (A) represents a fixed resistor. A rectangle with a diagonal line flattening out (B) is a thermistor. A rectangle with a diagonal arrow cutting right through it (C) represents a variable resistor. However, a rectangle with a continuous horizontal line running straight through its geometric center is the international standard symbol for a fuse. Therefore, option D correctly depicts a fuse.

Question 33

If the insulation within a mains cable becomes damaged, two of the wires in it may touch and cause a short circuit.
Which row is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.4: Electrical safety (State the hazards of damaged insulation… Explain the use and operation of fuses)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

When damaged insulation allows a live wire and a neutral wire to physically touch, a dangerous short circuit occurs. This abruptly creates a path of extremely low electrical resistance, allowing a massive surge of current to flow rapidly through the cables. This enormous current generates immense heat due to electrical friction, which can easily melt the surrounding wires and trigger a catastrophic fire. To actively protect against this specific hazard, a fuse is integrated into the circuit; the excessive current melts the thin wire inside the fuse, breaking the circuit instantly before any fire can start.

Question 34

Four small compasses are placed around a solenoid.
A current is now switched on in the solenoid.
Which diagram shows possible new directions of the compass needles?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5: Electromagnetic effects (Describe the effect on the magnetic field around straight wires and solenoids of changing the magnitude and direction of the current)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

When a steady direct current flows through a tightly wound solenoid, it generates a robust magnetic field that perfectly mimics a standard bar magnet. The magnetic field lines naturally emerge straight out from the North pole, curve gracefully around the outside, and re-enter at the South pole. If we assume the left end becomes the North pole, the compass on the left will firmly point away to the left. The field lines curve over the top and bottom, pointing back towards the right, so those compasses must point right. Finally, the lines enter the South pole, pulling the right compass to point left. Option D matches this exact continuous field loop.

Question 35

Transformers are used in the transmission of electrical power to houses.
Which type of transformer is used at the power station prior to connection to the power lines and which type is used prior to delivery to the houses?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.6: The transformer (Describe the use of transformers in high-voltage transmission of electricity)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

For the efficient bulk transmission of electrical power over very long distances, power stations initially use a step-up transformer to drastically increase the voltage. This high voltage inherently reduces the current ($P = IV$), which critically minimizes thermal energy losses in the transmission cables ($P = I^2R$). However, these incredibly high transmission voltages (often hundreds of thousands of volts) are extremely dangerous for domestic use. Therefore, right before the power is delivered into local houses, a step-down transformer is safely used to reduce the voltage back to a manageable domestic level.

Question 36

The diagrams show the coils of two simple direct current (d.c.) motors. Coil P has three turns of wire and coil Q has two turns. Coil P has the same dimensions as coil Q. The coils are in identical magnet fields.
What produces the greatest turning effect?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.5: The d.c. motor (Know that the turning effect is increased by increasing: the number of turns on the coil, the current)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The total turning effect (or torque) experienced by a direct current motor coil inside a magnetic field is directly proportional to several key factors. Specifically, increasing the number of turns in the wire coil multiplies the force, and increasing the magnitude of the electrical current flowing through it also proportionally increases the force. Since Coil P has more physical turns (3) compared to Coil Q (2), it inherently has an advantage. To absolutely maximize the turning effect overall, we must pair the coil with the most turns (Coil P) with the highest possible current option available, which is 4 A.

Question 37

A nuclide of cobalt contains 27 protons and 32 neutrons.
Which symbol represents this nuclide?
A. ${}_{59}^{27}Co$
B. ${}_{27}^{32}Co$
C. ${}_{59}^{32}Co$
D. ${}_{27}^{59}Co$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.2: The nucleus (Use the nuclide notation ${}_{Z}^{A}\text{X}$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In standard international nuclear symbol notation (${}_{Z}^{A}\text{X}$), the large chemical symbol of the element is represented by X. The bottom number, Z, is explicitly the proton number (atomic number), which dictates exactly what element it is. The top number, A, is the nucleon number (mass number), calculated as the total sum of all protons and neutrons in the nucleus. For this specific cobalt nuclide, the proton number is given as 27. The total nucleon number is calculated by adding $27 + 32$, which equals 59. Therefore, the completely correct scientific symbol must have 59 at the top and 27 at the bottom, matching ${}_{27}^{59}\text{Co}$.

Question 38

Everyone is exposed to background radiation.
What are sources of background radiation?
A. food and drink only
B. rocks only
C. cosmic rays only
D. food and drink, rocks and cosmic rays

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.1: Detection of radioactivity (Know the sources that make a significant contribution to background radiation)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Background radiation is the continuous, low-level ionizing radiation that constantly surrounds us in our natural environment. It does not come from just one place but rather multiple ubiquitous sources. High-energy cosmic rays constantly bombard the Earth’s atmosphere from deep outer space. Certain types of rocks and soils in the Earth’s crust naturally contain trace amounts of radioactive isotopes (like uranium) and emit radon gas. Additionally, the daily food we eat and the water we drink naturally absorb small amounts of these trace environmental radioisotopes. Therefore, all of these options—food, drink, rocks, and cosmic rays—are universally recognized sources of natural background radiation.

Question 39

The diagram shows a piece of apparatus used to determine the nature of the emissions from a radioactive source. The absorbers can be raised out of or lowered into the path of the radiation from the source to the detector. The apparatus is evacuated.
The table gives a set of results for a particular radioactive source.
Which types of radiation are being emitted by the radioactive source?
A. $\alpha$-particles and $\beta$-particles
B. $\alpha$-particles only
C. $\beta$-particles and $\gamma$-rays
D. $\gamma$-rays only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission (Identify $\alpha$, $\beta$ and $\gamma$ emissions by recalling their relative penetrating abilities)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To accurately identify the types of radiation, we systematically analyze the detector counts as different dense absorbers are introduced. Initially, the baseline count is 350. When thin paper is inserted, the count rate stays completely unchanged at 350, meaning absolutely no weakly-penetrating $\alpha$-particles are present (as paper easily stops alpha). When 1.0 mm of aluminium is placed, the count rate drops significantly down to 180, proving that $\beta$-particles are present and being actively absorbed by the metal. When 1.0 cm of thick lead is finally used, the rate drops massively to 23, indicating that highly penetrating $\gamma$-rays are also present and are finally being absorbed by the very dense lead. Thus, the source emits both $\beta$ and $\gamma$ radiation.

Question 40

The half-life of a sample of radioactive material is 400 years.
How long will it take until only $\frac{1}{4}$ of this sample remains undecayed?
A. 100 years
B. 400 years
C. 800 years
D. 1600 years

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.4: Half-life (Define half-life; use this definition in simple calculations)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The half-life of any radioactive isotope is defined as the exact time required for exactly half of the unstable nuclei in a given sample to undergo radioactive decay. If we start with a completely full sample ($100\%$ or $1$), after one full half-life of 400 years passes, exactly $\frac{1}{2}$ of the original sample will remain undecayed. After a second full half-life passes, half of that remaining amount will then decay, leaving exactly $\frac{1}{4}$ of the original sample behind ($\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}$). Since two consecutive half-lives must pass to confidently reach this fractional amount, the total time taken is calculated as $2 \times 400\text{ years} = 800\text{ years}$.

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