Home / 0625_w23_qp_13

Question 1

A student uses a metre ruler to measure the length of six identical table-tennis balls placed between two wooden blocks.
What is the diameter of one ball?
A. 4 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 6 cm
D. 8 cm

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.1: Physical quantities and measurement techniques (Determine an average value for a small distance by measuring multiples)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

From the diagram, the total length of six identical balls placed in a row is measured to be $24\text{ cm}$.
Since the balls are identical, the diameter of one ball is found by dividing the total length by the number of balls.
Calculation: Diameter $= \frac{24\text{ cm}}{6} = 4\text{ cm}$.
This method of measuring multiples reduces the uncertainty in finding the small distance of a single diameter.
Therefore, the diameter of one ball is $4\text{ cm}$, matching Option A.

Question 2

A train is on a straight track. The graph shows how a quantity y varies with time.
Which statements can be true?
1. The train is stationary and y represents the distance from the last station.
2. The train is moving and y represents the distance from the last station.
3. The train is stationary and y represents the speed of the train.
4. The train is moving and y represents the speed of the train.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion (Sketch, plot and interpret distance-time and speed-time graphs)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The graph shows $y$ remains constant over time. If $y$ is distance and the train is stationary (1), distance doesn’t change, matching the graph.
If $y$ is speed and the train moves at constant speed (4), the speed graph would be a horizontal line.
Statement (2) is false as moving changes distance; statement (3) is false as stationary means zero speed.
Thus, only statements 1 and 4 can be true, corresponding to Option B.

Question 3

A vehicle sent to explore the surface of Mars has a mass of 200 kg.
The acceleration of free fall on Mars is 3.7 m / \(s^{2}\).
What is the weight of the vehicle on Mars?
A. 20 N
B. 54 N
C. 740 N
D. 2000 N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and weight (Define gravitational field strength as force per unit mass; recall and use the equation \(g = \frac{W}{m}\))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Weight is calculated using the equation \(W = mg\), where \(m\) is mass and \(g\) is the gravitational field strength.
Substitute the given values: \(W = 200 \text{ kg} \times 3.7 \text{ m/s}^2\).
This gives \(W = 740 \text{ N}\).
The weight depends on the local gravitational field strength, not Earth’s value of \(9.8 \text{ N/kg}\).
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.

Question 4

A student writes about mass and weight.
Which statement is correct?
A. A ship which is floating has mass but no weight.
B. Mass is a scientific word that means the same as weight.
C. Mass is measured in newtons.
D. The mass of an astronaut is the same on the Moon as on the Earth.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and weight (State that mass is a measure of the quantity of matter; distinguish between mass and weight)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Mass is the quantity of matter in an object and does not change with location.
Weight is the gravitational force on an object and depends on the gravitational field strength.
On the Moon, gravity is weaker, so weight decreases, but the mass remains constant.
Option A is wrong as floating objects still have weight; Option B confuses the two concepts.
Option C is incorrect because mass is measured in kilograms, while newtons measure weight.

Question 5

A student carries out an experiment to determine the density of an irregularly shaped solid. The solid is placed on a balance and a reading is taken. The solid is then immersed in a liquid in a measuring cylinder.
Which values should be used in the calculation?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.4: Density (Describe how to determine the density of an irregularly shaped solid which sinks in a liquid)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Density is calculated using the equation \(\rho = \frac{m}{V}\), where \(m\) is the mass of the object alone and \(V\) is the volume of the object alone.
The balance reading of \(78.0\text{ g}\) represents the mass \(m\) of the solid.
The volume \(V\) of the solid is found by the displacement method: Final volume (\(69.5\text{ cm}^3\)) – Initial volume (\(60.0\text{ cm}^3\)) = \(9.5\text{ cm}^3\).
Therefore, the correct values to use are the mass of the solid and the volume difference (the volume of the solid itself).
This corresponds to Option A.

Question 6

A uniform rod rests on a pivot at its centre. The rod is not attached to the pivot. Forces are then applied to the rod in four different ways, as shown. The weight of the rod can be ignored.
Which diagram shows the rod in equilibrium?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Apply the principle of moments to situations with one force each side of the pivot)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

For the rod to be in equilibrium, there must be no resultant force and no resultant moment.
The pivot is at the centre, so the perpendicular distances from the pivot to the lines of action of the forces must be considered.
In option A, the two equal forces are applied at equal distances on opposite sides of the pivot, creating equal and opposite moments.
Thus, the clockwise moment cancels the anticlockwise moment, resulting in no resultant moment and equilibrium.
Options B, C, and D show unbalanced forces or unequal moments, causing the rod to rotate.

Question 7

The diagram shows a beam balanced on a pivot. Two forces, X and Y, are acting on the beam.
Which calculation gives the moment of the force Y about the pivot?
A. Y × (a + b)
B. \( \frac{Y}{a + b}\)
C. Y × b
D. \( \frac{Y}{b}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Define the moment of a force as moment = force × perpendicular distance from the pivot; recall and use this equation)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The moment of a force about a pivot is defined as the product of the force and the perpendicular distance from the pivot to the line of action of the force.
From the diagram, force Y acts vertically downward, and its line of action is a perpendicular distance $b$ from the pivot.
Therefore, the moment of force Y is correctly calculated as $Y \times b$.
Option A is incorrect because $a + b$ is not the perpendicular distance for force Y; it is the total length of the beam.
Options B and D are incorrect as they involve division rather than multiplication.

Question 8

A mass bounces up and down on a steel spring. The diagram shows the mass and the spring at different points during the motion.
At which point is the least energy in the gravitational potential store of the mass and at which point is the most energy in the elastic store of the spring?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.1: Energy (State that energy may be stored as gravitational potential and elastic, and apply the principle of conservation of energy)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Gravitational potential energy depends on height, so the least is at the lowest point (Point C).
Elastic potential energy in the spring depends on extension or compression, so the most is at maximum stretch (Point A).
Therefore, the correct combination is least gravitational at C and most elastic at A.
This matches Option D in the table provided.

Question 9

Electrical power is generated from different resources. Some of these resources are listed.
  • chemical energy stored in biofuels
  • chemical energy stored in fossil fuels
  • energy stored in tides
  • geothermal resources
  • hydroelectric resources
  • light from the Sun
  • nuclear fuel
How many of the resources listed are classified as renewable?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.3: Energy resources (Describe advantages and disadvantages of each method in terms of renewability)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Renewable resources are those that are naturally replenished on a human timescale. From the list, biofuels, tidal, geothermal, hydroelectric, and solar (light from the Sun) are renewable.
Fossil fuels and nuclear fuel are non-renewable as they exist in finite deposits.
Counting the renewable items gives a total of $5$.
This corresponds to Option C.

Question 10

A microwave oven is rated at 900 watts.
Which statement correctly describes the meaning of this value?
A. 900 joules are transferred every second.
B. 900 amperes are transferred every second.
C. 900 volts are transferred every second.
D. 900 ohms are transferred every second.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.4: Power (Define power as work done per unit time and also as energy transferred per unit time; recall and use the equations)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Power is defined as the rate of energy transfer, measured in watts (W).
One watt is equivalent to one joule per second ($1\text{ W} = 1\text{ J/s}$).
Therefore, a rating of $900\text{ W}$ means the microwave transfers $900\text{ joules}$ of electrical energy into heat and other forms every second.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they confuse the units for current, potential difference, and resistance.

Question 11

Why is it easier to push a sharp nail, rather than a blunt nail, into a piece of wood?
A. The sharp nail exerts a larger force on the wood.
B. The sharp nail exerts a smaller force on the wood.
C. The sharp nail exerts a larger pressure on the wood.
D. The sharp nail exerts a smaller pressure on the wood.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.8: Pressure (Describe how pressure varies with force and area in the context of everyday examples)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Pressure is defined as force per unit area (\(p = \frac{F}{A}\)).
A sharp nail has a much smaller surface area at its point compared to a blunt nail.
When the same pushing force is applied, the smaller area of the sharp nail results in a significantly larger pressure on the wood.
This higher pressure makes it easier for the nail to penetrate the surface.
Therefore, the sharp nail exerts a larger pressure, making Option C correct.

Question 12

A sealed bottle of constant volume contains air.
The air in the bottle is heated by the Sun.
What is the effect on the average speed of the air particles in the bottle and the average distance between them?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.2: Particle model (Describe the relationship between the motion of particles and temperature)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Heating the air increases the kinetic energy of the particles, so their average speed increases.
Since the bottle is sealed and has a constant volume, the particles cannot expand or move further apart; the average distance between them remains unchanged.
Therefore, the average speed increases while the average distance stays the same.
This corresponds directly to the option where speed increases and distance stays the same.

Question 13

Which graph shows the relationship between the pressure p of a fixed mass of gas and its volume V at a constant temperature?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.3: Gases and the absolute scale of temperature (Recall and use the equation $pV = \text{constant}$ for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, including a graphical representation of this relationship)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

According to Boyle’s law, for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, pressure is inversely proportional to volume: $p \propto \frac{1}{V}$.
This relationship produces a hyperbolic curve on a $p$–$V$ graph, where pressure decreases as volume increases.
Option C correctly shows this inverse proportionality with a smooth curve approaching but never touching the axes.
Option A shows a linear decrease, B shows no relationship, and D shows direct proportionality, all of which are incorrect.
Therefore, the graph in Option C accurately represents the $pV = \text{constant}$ relationship.

Question 14

What happens when a metal block is heated?
A. Its width, height and length all increase.
B. Its width increases only.
C. Its height increases only.
D. Its length increases only.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

2.2.1 Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases: Describe, qualitatively, the thermal expansion of solids at constant pressure
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

When a solid such as a metal block is heated, the particles vibrate more and move slightly further apart.
This increased separation occurs in all directions throughout the material.
Consequently, the expansion is not limited to a single dimension; it results in an increase in width, height, and length simultaneously.
This uniform expansion in all linear dimensions is a key characteristic of the thermal expansion of solids.

Question 15

Which statement about the temperature of the solid describes what happens when a solid is melting?

A) The temperature increases and there is an input of energy.
B) The temperature increases and there is no input of energy.
C) The temperature remains constant and there is an input of energy.
D) The temperature remains constant and there is no input of energy.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

2.2.3 Melting, boiling and evaporation: Describe melting in terms of energy input without a change in temperature
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

During melting, the energy supplied (input of energy) is used to break the intermolecular bonds between particles rather than increasing their kinetic energy.
As a result, the temperature of the substance remains constant at its melting point until all of the solid has changed into a liquid.
Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they either suggest a temperature increase or no energy input, which contradicts the process of a phase change.
This matches Option C.

Question 16

A cupboard is placed in front of a heater. Air can move through a gap under the cupboard.
Which row describes the temperature and the direction of movement of the air in the gap?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

2.3.2 Convection: Explain convection in liquids and gases in terms of density changes
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Air near the heater is warmed, expands, and becomes less dense, rising upwards.
Cooler, denser air moves in to replace it, creating a convection current.
Therefore, the air moving through the gap under the cupboard is the cooler air flowing towards the heater.
This matches the description of cool air moving towards the heater in Row B.

Question 17

Which statement about waves is correct?
A. All waves can travel through a vacuum.
B. All waves travel at the same speed.
C. Seismic S-waves can be modelled as longitudinal waves.
D. Waves transfer energy without transferring matter.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Know that waves transfer energy without transferring matter)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Waves are disturbances that propagate through a medium or space, transferring energy from one point to another.
Importantly, the particles of the medium (if present) oscillate about a fixed position and are not transported with the wave.
Options A, B, and C are incorrect: mechanical waves require a medium, wave speeds vary, and S-waves are transverse.
Therefore, the fundamental principle that waves transfer energy without transferring matter is the correct statement.

Question 18

The diagram shows a transverse wave.
Which row identifies the amplitude and the wavelength of the wave?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Describe the features of a wave in terms of wavefront, wavelength, frequency, crest (peak), trough, amplitude and wave speed)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The amplitude is the maximum displacement from the undisturbed position, measured vertically from the center line to a crest or trough.
The wavelength is the horizontal distance between two consecutive corresponding points on the wave, such as crest to crest or trough to trough.
In the diagram, distance Y represents the amplitude and distance Z represents one complete wavelength.
Therefore, the row identifying amplitude as Y and wavelength as Z is correct.
This matches Option B.

Question 19

A beam of light from the Sun strikes a prism.
The dispersed beam is incident on a white wall between X and Y.
Which colours are seen at X, Z and Y?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.4: Dispersion of light (Describe the dispersion of light as illustrated by the refraction of white light by a glass prism)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

When white light undergoes dispersion through a glass prism, violet light is refracted the most and red light the least.
Therefore, the spectrum on the wall will have red at the top (Y) and violet at the bottom (X), with green in the middle (Z).
Option C correctly assigns red to Y, green to Z, and violet to X.
This aligns with the known order of increasing frequency and decreasing wavelength from red to violet.

Question 20

The diagram shows a ray of light incident on a plane mirror.
The angle between the ray and the mirror is 35°.
The ray is reflected by the mirror.
What is the angle of reflection?
A. 35°
B. 55°
C. 70°
D. 110°

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light (State that for reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection; recall and use this relationship)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The angle of incidence is measured between the incident ray and the normal (a line perpendicular to the mirror).
Since the ray makes an angle of $35^{\circ}$ with the mirror surface, the angle of incidence is $90^{\circ} – 35^{\circ} = 55^{\circ}$.
According to the law of reflection, the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence.
Therefore, the angle of reflection is also $55^{\circ}$.
This corresponds to Option B.

Question 21

A thin converging lens in a camera produces a real image on a photo-sensitive surface, as shown.
At which position is the image of the top of the object formed?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.3: Thin lenses (Draw and use ray diagrams for the formation of a real image by a converging lens)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

A real image formed by a converging lens is always inverted (upside down) relative to the object.
Since the top of the object (arrow) is above the principal axis, its image must be formed below the principal axis on the photo-sensitive surface.
In the diagram, only position C lies on the surface and is inverted relative to the object’s top.
Therefore, the correct position for the image of the top of the object is C.

Question 22

The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.
Which types of wave are E, F and G?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Know the main regions of the electromagnetic spectrum in order of frequency and in order of wavelength)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The spectrum diagram shows decreasing wavelength and increasing frequency from left to right.
Between ultraviolet and X-rays is the narrow visible light region, making E = visible light.
To the right of X-rays are gamma rays, which have the highest frequency and shortest wavelength, making G = gamma rays.
Therefore, the correct sequence for E, F, and G is visible light, X-rays, gamma rays, which corresponds to Option D.

Question 23

A sound is produced and an echo is heard after the sound reflects off a wall.
How do the properties of the echo compare to the original sound wave?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.4: Sound (Describe an echo as the reflection of sound waves)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The speed of sound depends only on the medium (air), so it remains the same for the echo.
The frequency of a wave is determined by the source and does not change upon reflection.
Since wave speed $v = f\lambda$ and both $v$ and $f$ are unchanged, the wavelength $\lambda$ also remains unchanged.
Therefore, the echo has the same speed, frequency, and wavelength as the original sound.
This corresponds to the properties listed in Option B.

Question 24

Which metal can be attracted by a magnet?
A. zinc
B. lead
C. iron
D. copper

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism (Describe the forces between magnetic poles and between magnets and magnetic materials)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Magnetic materials are those that experience a force when placed in a magnetic field.
Common magnetic metals include iron, nickel, cobalt, and alloys like steel.
Zinc, lead, and copper are non-magnetic materials and are not attracted to a magnet.
Iron is a ferromagnetic material and is strongly attracted by a magnet.
Therefore, the only correct choice is iron (Option C).

Question 25

A student uses an ammeter to measure the current in a resistor. He considers three different circuits, as shown.
In which of the circuits does the ammeter measure the current in the resistor?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.2: Electric current (Describe the use of ammeters with different ranges; Know that the current at every point in a series circuit is the same)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

An ammeter must be connected in series with the component to measure the current flowing through it.
In circuit 1, the ammeter is in series with the resistor, so it measures the correct current.
In circuit 2, the ammeter is also in series with the resistor, correctly measuring the current.
In circuit 3, the ammeter is connected in parallel with the resistor, which would create a short circuit and not measure the current through the resistor correctly.
Therefore, only circuits 1 and 2 have the ammeter connected correctly.

Question 26

Which substances both contain large concentrations of free electrons?
A. aluminium and glass
B. copper and water
C. copper and nylon
D. silver and gold

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.2: Electric current (Describe electrical conduction in metals in terms of the movement of free electrons)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Electrical conduction in metals occurs due to the presence of free (delocalised) electrons that move through the lattice.
Silver and gold are both excellent metallic conductors and contain a high density of free electrons.
Glass, water, and nylon are insulators or poor conductors with very few free electrons.
Copper is a good conductor, but it is paired with insulators in options B and C.
Only option D lists two metals, both of which have large concentrations of free electrons.

Question 27

What is the unit of resistance?
A. ampere
B. ohm
C. volt
D. watt

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.4: Resistance (Recall and use the equation for resistance $R = \frac{V}{I}$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Resistance is defined as the ratio of potential difference ($V$) to current ($I$), expressed as $R = \frac{V}{I}$.
The SI unit of potential difference is the volt ($V$) and current is the ampere ($A$).
Therefore, one unit of resistance is equivalent to one volt per ampere, which is defined as the ohm ($\Omega$).
This confirms Option B as the correct unit.

Question 28

A teacher wishes to show the production of electrostatic charges.
She holds a rod and rubs it with a cotton cloth. A copper rod, a glass rod, a plastic rod and a steel rod are available.
Which two rods would both be suitable to use?
A. a copper rod and a glass rod
B. a glass rod and a plastic rod
C. a plastic rod and a copper rod
D. a plastic rod and a steel rod

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

4.2.1 Electric charge: Describe simple experiments to show the production of electrostatic charges by friction and explain that charging of solids by friction involves only a transfer of negative charge (electrons).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To produce electrostatic charges by friction, the rod must be an electrical insulator so that charge does not flow away.
Glass and plastic are insulators, so they become charged when rubbed and retain the charge.
Copper and steel are electrical conductors, so any charge produced flows through the rod and the person’s hand to earth.
Therefore, only the glass rod and the plastic rod are suitable for this demonstration.

Question 29

Resistors of resistance 2.0 Ω and 3.0 Ω are connected in two different circuits.
What is the total resistance in each circuit?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits (Calculate the combined resistance of resistors in series and parallel)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

For circuit 1 (series), total resistance is the sum: $R = 2.0\,\Omega + 3.0\,\Omega = 5.0\,\Omega$.
For circuit 2 (parallel), use the formula $\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{2.0} + \frac{1}{3.0} = \frac{5}{6}$, so $R = \frac{6}{5} = 1.2\,\Omega$.
Therefore, the total resistances are $5.0\,\Omega$ and $1.2\,\Omega$, which corresponds to row C in the table.
This matches the expected behaviour of series and parallel resistor combinations.

Question 30

The current in an electrical heater is 5.0 A.
The heater is connected to the mains by a flexible cable that can carry a current of up to 15 A.
The mains circuit can carry a current of up to 30 A.
Different fuses are available to protect the heater’s cable.
Which fuse is the most suitable?
A. 4.0 A
B. 10 A
C. 20 A
D. 40 A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.4: Electrical safety (Explain the use and operation of fuses and choose appropriate fuse ratings)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The fuse rating must be slightly higher than the normal operating current of $5.0\text{ A}$ to prevent unnecessary blowing.
It must also be lower than the cable’s maximum current rating of $15\text{ A}$ to protect the cable from overheating.
The $10\text{ A}$ fuse satisfies both conditions: it is $> 5.0\text{ A}$ and $< 15\text{ A}$.
A $4.0\text{ A}$ fuse would blow during normal use, while $20\text{ A}$ or $40\text{ A}$ fuses would not protect the cable.
Therefore, the $10\text{ A}$ fuse is the most suitable choice.

Question 31

A generator uses the principle of electromagnetic induction.
Which change would increase the induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) in the coil?
A. increasing the number of turns in the coil
B. placing the magnets further apart
C. using a coil made from steel wire
D. reversing one of the magnets

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.1: Electromagnetic induction (State the factors affecting the magnitude of an induced e.m.f.)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The magnitude of an induced e.m.f. depends on the rate of change of the magnetic field linking the coil.
Increasing the number of turns in the coil increases the total length of wire cutting the magnetic field lines.
This produces a larger induced e.m.f. for the same magnetic field and speed of movement.
Placing magnets further apart weakens the field, steel wire is less conductive, and reversing a magnet does not increase magnitude.
Therefore, increasing the number of turns is the correct method to increase the induced e.m.f.

Question 32

A current passes along a wire placed between the poles of a permanent magnet.
The wire experiences a force due to the magnetic field.
What will change the direction of this force?
A. increasing the current
B. reversing the current
C. increasing the strength of the magnetic field
D. using an electromagnet with the same polarity as the permanent magnet

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.4: Force on a current-carrying conductor (Recall and use the relative directions of force, magnetic field and current)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The direction of the force is determined by Fleming’s left-hand rule and is perpendicular to both the current and the magnetic field.
Reversing the current direction reverses the force direction, whereas changing the magnitude of current or field strength only affects the size of the force.
Using an electromagnet with the same polarity does not alter the field direction, so the force direction remains unchanged.
Therefore, reversing the current is the only change that will reverse the direction of the force.

Question 33

What is a transformer used for?
A. changing a direct current into an alternating current
B. changing the magnitude of an alternating voltage
C. reducing the frequency of an alternating current
D. switching off the current in a circuit when there is a fault

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.6: The transformer (Describe the construction of a simple transformer and its use for voltage transformations)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

A transformer operates on the principle of electromagnetic induction and only functions with alternating current (a.c.).
Its primary purpose is to change (step up or step down) the magnitude of an alternating voltage.
It cannot change direct current into alternating current, alter the frequency, or act as a safety switch (which is the role of a fuse or circuit breaker).
Therefore, the only correct description of its use is changing the magnitude of an alternating voltage.

Question 34

What are the relative charges on a proton, a neutron and an electron?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.2: The nucleus (State the relative charges of protons, neutrons and electrons as +1, 0 and –1 respectively)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

A proton carries a positive charge (+1), a neutron has no charge (0), and an electron carries a negative charge (–1).
This matches the values listed in row C of the table.
These relative charges are fundamental to the nuclear model of the atom described in the syllabus.
Therefore, Option C is the correct choice.

Question 35

The half-life of carbon-14 is 5700 years.
An object containing carbon-14 has a count rate of 100 counts / minute when it is first formed. The graph shows how the count rate decreases over time.
Which point on the graph corresponds to a time 11 400 years after the formation of the object?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.4: Half-life (Define half-life and use it in simple calculations involving decay curves)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Time elapsed is $11400$ years, which equals $2$ half-lives ($11400 \div 5700 = 2$).
After one half-life, the count rate halves to $50$ counts/min; after two half-lives, it halves again to $25$ counts/min.
On the graph, the point corresponding to a count rate of $25$ counts/min at the appropriate time is point D.
This matches the expected decay after $11400$ years, confirming point D as the correct choice.

Question 36

Which type of radioactive decay causes the nucleus of one element to change into the nucleus of another element?
 

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.3: Radioactive decay (State that during α-decay or β-decay, the nucleus changes to that of a different element)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Both alpha and beta decay involve a change in the number of protons in the nucleus, resulting in a different atomic number and thus a different element.
Gamma decay releases energy without changing the proton or nucleon number, so the element remains the same.
Therefore, both alpha-emission and beta-emission cause the nucleus to change into another element.
This corresponds to the image selection for Option A.

Question 37

A scientist needs to use a source of γ-rays as safely as possible.
Which action will not reduce the total radiation that reaches the scientist?

A. keeping the distance between the source and the scientist as large as possible
B. keeping the temperature of the source as low as possible
C. keeping the time for which the scientist uses the source as small as possible
D. placing a lead screen between the scientist and the source

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.5: Safety precautions (Explain safety precautions for all ionising radiation in terms of reducing exposure time, increasing distance and using shielding)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Radioactive decay is a spontaneous nuclear process and is not affected by physical conditions such as temperature.
Therefore, cooling the source does not change its activity or the emission of γ-rays, providing no reduction in exposure.
Increasing distance, reducing exposure time, and using lead shielding are all established methods to minimize received radiation.
Consequently, keeping the temperature low is the action that will not reduce the total radiation reaching the scientist.

Question 38

Which time period is approximately equal to 24 hours?
A. the time for the Earth to complete one rotation on its axis
B. the time for the Earth to orbit the Sun
C. the time for the Moon to orbit the Earth
D. the time for the Sun to orbit the Earth

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.1.1: The Earth (Know that the Earth rotates on its axis once in approximately 24 hours, and use this to explain observations of the apparent daily motion of the Sun and the periodic cycle of day and night)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The Earth rotates on its own tilted axis once every 24 hours, causing the daily cycle of day and night.
Option B (orbiting the Sun) takes approximately 365 days, which defines a year.
Option C (the Moon orbiting Earth) takes about one month, leading to the Moon’s phases.
Option D is incorrect as the Sun does not orbit the Earth; this is an outdated model.

Question 39

The nearest star to the Sun is about four light-years away from the Earth.
A student makes three statements about the star.
  1. Light from the star takes about four years to reach the Earth.
  2. Light from the Sun takes about four years to travel to the star and back to the Earth.
  3. The star is outside our galaxy.
Which statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.3: The Universe (Know that one light-year is the distance travelled by light in one year; know that the Milky Way contains many stars including the Sun)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Statement 1 is correct: one light-year is the distance light travels in one year, so light from a star four light-years away takes four years to reach Earth.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the distance is four light-years one way, so a round trip for light would take eight years, not four.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the nearest star to the Sun (Proxima Centauri) is part of the Milky Way galaxy, so it is not outside our galaxy.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, making Option C the right choice.

Question 40

The table shows some elements and some regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Which row shows one of the most common elements in the Sun and one of the regions in which the Sun radiates most of its energy?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

6.2.1 The Sun as a star: Know that the Sun is a star of medium size, consisting mostly of hydrogen and helium, and that it radiates most of its energy in the infrared, visible light and ultraviolet regions of the electromagnetic spectrum
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The Sun is composed mostly of hydrogen (and helium) as stated in the syllabus.
It radiates energy across the entire electromagnetic spectrum, but the peak intensity is in the visible light region.
Row D correctly identifies hydrogen as a primary constituent and visible light as a main radiation region.
Infrared and ultraviolet are also emitted, but visible light is the most prominent region specified.
Therefore, the correct match is Hydrogen and Visible light.

Scroll to Top