Question 1 (B1.1)
Which characteristic of living organisms is correctly matched to the description?
| characteristic | description | |
|---|---|---|
| A | excretion | the removal from organisms of the waste products of metabolism |
| B | nutrition | the chemical reactions in cells that break down nutrient molecules and release energy for metabolism |
| C | respiration | the taking in of materials for energy, growth and development |
| D | sensitivity | the action by an organism or part of an organism causing a change of position or place |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: Option A is correct because excretion is indeed the removal of metabolic waste products. Option B describes respiration, not nutrition. Option C describes nutrition, not respiration. Option D describes movement, not sensitivity.
Question 2 (B3.2)
When a plant cell is put into a solution which has a lower water potential than the cell, the cytoplasm can pull away from the cell wall. What is the term for this?
A. flaccid
B. plasmolysis
C. turgid
D. turgor pressure
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Plasmolysis occurs when a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution (lower water potential), causing water to leave the cell by osmosis. The cytoplasm shrinks and pulls away from the cell wall. Flaccid refers to a cell that is limp due to water loss but not necessarily showing plasmolysis. Turgid describes a cell full of water, and turgor pressure is the pressure of water pushing against the cell wall.
Question 3 (B4.1)
Which chemical element is found in proteins, but not in carbohydrates or fats?
A. carbon
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. nitrogen
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Nitrogen is present in proteins (in amino groups) but absent in carbohydrates and fats. All three macromolecules contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, but only proteins contain nitrogen.
Question 4 (B5.1)
The graphs show the possible effects of temperature on the rate of reaction of an enzyme. Which graph is correct for a human enzyme?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: Human enzymes work best at body temperature (around 37°C). The rate increases with temperature until this optimum, then decreases sharply as the enzyme denatures at higher temperatures. This gives a bell-shaped curve with the peak around 37°C.
Question 5 (B6.1)
What does chlorophyll enable plants to absorb?
A. carbon dioxide
B. energy from light
C. mineral salts
D. water
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Chlorophyll is a pigment that absorbs light energy for photosynthesis. While plants do absorb carbon dioxide, water, and mineral salts, these are not absorbed by chlorophyll specifically.
Question 6 (B7.2)
What is the correct definition of ingestion?
A. The breakdown of large, insoluble food molecules into small, water-soluble molecules.
B. The movement of digested food molecules through the wall of the small intestine into the blood.
C. The passing out of food that has not been digested, as faeces, through the anus.
D. The taking of substances into the body through the mouth.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Ingestion is the process of taking food into the body through the mouth. Option A describes digestion, B describes absorption, and C describes egestion.
Question 7 (B9.3)
Which row describes a part of the circulatory system in mammals?
| name of blood vessel | type of blood carried | coming from | going to | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | aorta | oxygenated | right ventricle | body |
| B | pulmonary artery | oxygenated | left ventricle | lungs |
| C | pulmonary vein | deoxygenated | lungs | left atrium |
| D | vena cava | deoxygenated | body | right atrium |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: The vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium, making D correct. A is wrong because the aorta comes from the left ventricle. B is wrong because the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood. C is wrong because pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.
Question 8 (B12.1)
After sprinting 200 metres as fast as possible, an athlete could not continue and was breathing deeply. What had accumulated in her muscles?
A. alcohol
B. carbon dioxide
C. lactic acid
D. water
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: During vigorous exercise when oxygen is limited, muscles respire anaerobically, producing lactic acid. The deep breathing helps repay the oxygen debt by oxidizing the lactic acid. Alcohol is not produced in human anaerobic respiration.
Question 9 (B13.1)
What occurs when our eyes look from a near object in dim light to a distant object in bright light?
A. Pupils constrict and lenses become thinner.
B. Pupils constrict and lenses become fatter.
C. Pupils dilate and lenses become thinner.
D. Pupils dilate and lenses become fatter.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: In bright light, pupils constrict to reduce light entering. For distant objects, ciliary muscles relax making lenses thinner. The opposite occurs for near objects in dim light (pupils dilate, lenses become fatter).
Question 10 (B15.3)
The diagram shows a section through an insect-pollinated flower.
When pollination occurs, where must the pollen grains reach?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: For successful pollination, pollen must reach the stigma (B), which is the receptive surface of the female reproductive part where pollen germination occurs.
Question 11 (B16.1)
Which sex chromosomes need to be present in a sperm cell to produce a male zygote?
A. X only
B. Y only
C. XX
D. XY
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The sex of a zygote is determined by the sperm cell. A sperm carrying an X chromosome will produce a female (XX) zygote when combined with the mother’s X chromosome, while a sperm carrying a Y chromosome will produce a male (XY) zygote. Therefore, to produce a male zygote, the sperm must contain a Y chromosome.
Question 12 (B18.2)
The diagram shows a food web.
What is the maximum number of trophic levels shown?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 10
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The maximum number of trophic levels in a food web represents the longest food chain present. In this case, the food web contains a chain with 5 levels: producer (grass) → primary consumer (grasshopper) → secondary consumer (spider) → tertiary consumer (hog snake) → quaternary consumer (hawk).
Question 13 (B19.1)
One of the problems with the overuse of fertilisers is the eutrophication of lakes and rivers. What effect does this have on the water?
| oxygen concentration | bacterial activity | |
|---|---|---|
| A | decreases | decreases |
| B | decreases | increases |
| C | increases | decreases |
| D | increases | increases |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Eutrophication occurs when excess fertilisers cause algal blooms. When these algae die, decomposing bacteria multiply rapidly (increased bacterial activity), consuming oxygen in the process. This leads to decreased oxygen concentration in the water, which can suffocate aquatic life.
Question 14 (C1.1)
Which process occurs when the arrangement of particles in a substance changes from regular to random?
A. boiling
B. condensing
C. freezing
D. melting
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Melting is the process where a solid turns into a liquid. In solids, particles are arranged in a regular pattern, while in liquids the arrangement becomes random as the particles gain enough energy to break free from their fixed positions but still remain close together.
Question 15 (C6.1)
Two substances, X and Y, are heated and then cooled. The observations are shown:
Which type of change occurs when X and Y are heated?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Substance X undergoes a chemical change (color change indicates new substance formed), while substance Y undergoes a physical change (sublimation and recondensation of the same substance).
Question 16 (C2.6)
Diamond and graphite are different forms of the element carbon. Graphite conducts electricity. Which statement explains why diamond does not conduct electricity?
A. All of the atoms in diamond are arranged tetrahedrally.
B. All of the bond lengths in diamond are the same.
C. All of the bonds in diamond are single bonds.
D. All of the outer shell electrons in diamond are held in covalent bonds.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Diamond doesn’t conduct electricity because all four outer electrons of each carbon atom are involved in strong covalent bonds, leaving no free electrons to carry charge. In graphite, only three electrons are bonded, leaving one delocalized electron per atom that can conduct electricity.
Question 17 (C3.3)
The concentration of a sample of dilute sulfuric acid, H2SO4, is 0.01 mol/dm3. What is the mass of sulfuric acid in 1 dm3 of the sample?
A. 0.49 g
B. 4.9 g
C. 0.98 g
D. 9.8 g
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: 1. Calculate molar mass of H2SO4: (2×1) + 32 + (4×16) = 98 g/mol 2. Mass = moles × molar mass = 0.01 mol × 98 g/mol = 0.98 g Therefore, 1 dm3 of 0.01 mol/dm3 H2SO4 contains 0.98 g of sulfuric acid.
Question 18 (C4.1)
Which row identifies the products of the electrolysis of the named electrolyte using carbon electrodes?
| electrolyte | product at anode | product at cathode | |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | aqueous copper(II) sulfate | oxygen | copper |
| B | concentrated aqueous sodium chloride | chlorine | sodium |
| C | dilute sulfuric acid | hydrogen | oxygen |
| D | molten potassium bromide | potassium | bromine |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: For aqueous copper(II) sulfate with inert carbon electrodes: – At cathode: Cu2+ ions are reduced to copper metal (as copper is less reactive than hydrogen) – At anode: OH– ions are oxidized to oxygen gas The other options are incorrect because: B) sodium isn’t produced (hydrogen is); C) products are reversed; D) products are reversed (bromine forms at anode, potassium at cathode).
Question 19 (C5.1)
An acid is added to an alkali until the final solution is just neutral. The reaction is exothermic.
Which graph shows how the temperature changes as the acid is being added to the alkali?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: For an exothermic neutralization reaction, the temperature rises as acid is added until the equivalence point (neutralization), then levels off or decreases slightly as excess acid is added. Graph C shows this pattern.
Question 20 (C6.2)
Which statement explains why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction?
A. A greater proportion of colliding particles possess activation energy.
B. The activation energy is lowered.
C. The reactant particles collide faster.
D. The reactant particles collide more frequently.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Increasing concentration means more reactant particles per unit volume. This leads to more frequent collisions between reactant particles (D), increasing the reaction rate. The activation energy (B) remains unchanged, and while more collisions occur, the proportion with sufficient energy (A) and their speed (C) don’t change with concentration alone.
Question 21 (C7.3)
Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide neutralise each other to form water and sodium chloride.
Which method is used to make the solution crystallise?
A. chromatography
B. evaporation
C. filtration
D. fractional distillation
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Evaporation is used to crystallise salts from solution. When the solvent (water) evaporates, the dissolved sodium chloride becomes more concentrated until it can no longer stay dissolved and crystallises out. Chromatography separates mixtures, filtration removes solids from liquids, and fractional distillation separates liquids with different boiling points.
Question 22 (C8.1)
What do elements in the same group in the Periodic Table have in common?
A. number of electron shells
B. number of electrons in the outer shell
C. number of nucleons in the nucleus
D. proton number
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Elements in the same group have the same number of valence (outer shell) electrons, which determines their chemical properties. While elements in the same period have the same number of electron shells, proton number increases across the table, and nucleon number varies even within groups.
Question 23 (C9.1)
Which statement describes the properties of solid metals?
A. They are brittle and good thermal conductors.
B. They are brittle and poor thermal conductors.
C. They are malleable and good thermal conductors.
D. They are malleable and poor thermal conductors.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Metals are typically malleable (can be hammered into shape without breaking) and good thermal conductors due to their delocalized electrons that can transfer energy efficiently. Brittleness is characteristic of non-metals like ceramics, and poor thermal conduction is typical of insulators.
Question 24 (C10.2)
Sulfur dioxide, nitrogen monoxide and carbon monoxide are common pollutants in air.
Which row shows a method of reducing the emissions of these pollutants into the air?
| sulfur dioxide | nitrogen monoxide | carbon monoxide | |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | using low sulfur petrol | using a catalytic converter | using a catalytic converter |
| B | using calcium oxide in a gas flue | using calcium oxide in a gas flue | using a catalytic converter |
| C | using calcium oxide in a gas flue | using a catalytic converter | using calcium oxide in a gas flue |
| D | using a catalytic converter | using calcium oxide in a gas flue | using calcium oxide in a gas flue |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: Low sulfur petrol reduces SO₂ emissions. Catalytic converters in vehicles reduce both NO (converting it to N₂) and CO (converting it to CO₂). Calcium oxide is only effective for SO₂ removal in flue gases, not for NO or CO.
Question 25 (C11.2)
The structures of four compounds are shown.
What are the names of the compounds?
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | ethane | ethanol | ethene | methane |
| B | ethene | methane | ethanol | ethane |
| C | ethene | methane | ethane | ethanol |
| D | methane | ethene | ethane | ethanol |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: 1. Ethane (C₂H₆) – single bond between carbons 2. Ethanol (C₂H₅OH) – ethane with OH group 3. Ethene (C₂H₄) – double bond between carbons 4. Methane (CH₄) – simplest hydrocarbon with one carbon
Question 26 (C11.3)
Fractional distillation separates petroleum into useful fractions.
Fraction L has a lower boiling point than fraction H.
Which row describes the size of molecules and the attractive forces between molecules in fractions L and H?
| size of molecules | attractive forces between molecules | |
|---|---|---|
| A | L larger than H | L greater than H |
| B | L larger than H | L less than H |
| C | L smaller than H | L less than H |
| D | L smaller than H | L greater than H |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: In fractional distillation, fractions with lower boiling points contain smaller hydrocarbon molecules (L) with weaker intermolecular forces. Larger molecules (H) have stronger London dispersion forces due to greater surface area for interactions and higher boiling points.
Question 27 (C11.7)
Compound X is the monomer in an addition polymerisation reaction.
Which statement describes a molecule of X?
A. It has an acidic end and basic end.
B. It has two acidic ends.
C. It is a long chain molecule with a high molecular mass.
D. It is an alkene.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Addition polymerization requires monomers with double bonds (alkenes) that can open up to form polymer chains. Options A and B describe condensation polymerization monomers. Option C describes a polymer, not a monomer.
Question 28 (P1.5.1)
A spring that obeys Hooke’s law has an unstretched length of 5.0 cm. A load of weight 0.50 N is hung from the spring and the length of the spring becomes 10.0 cm.
The load is replaced with a new load and the length of the spring becomes 15.0 cm.
The spring has not passed its limit of proportionality.
What is the weight of the new load?
A. 0.50 N
B. 0.75 N
C. 1.0 N
D. 1.5 N
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Using Hooke’s law (F = kx): First case: 0.50 N = k × (10.0 – 5.0) cm → k = 0.10 N/cm Second case: F = 0.10 N/cm × (15.0 – 5.0) cm = 1.0 N The extension is doubled (from 5 cm to 10 cm), so the force doubles.
Question 29 (P1.6.1)
An object X with mass 2.0 kg is moving with a speed of 4.0 m/s.
Which object has kinetic energy equal to that of object X?
| mass of object/kg | speed of object m/s | |
|---|---|---|
| A | 0.50 | 16 |
| B | 1.0 | 8.0 |
| C | 8.0 | 2.0 |
| D | 16 | 1.0 |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: KE = ½mv². For X: KE = ½ × 2.0 × (4.0)² = 16 J. Calculate KE for each option: A: ½ × 0.5 × 16² = 64 J B: ½ × 1.0 × 8.0² = 32 J C: ½ × 8.0 × 2.0² = 16 J D: ½ × 16 × 1.0² = 8 J Only option C matches X’s kinetic energy.
Question 30 (P1.6.3)
For which list is the Sun the original source of the energy for all of the energy resources?
A. coal, geothermal and wind
B. coal, hydroelectric and nuclear fission
C. hydroelectric, oil and wind
D. oil, geothermal and nuclear fission
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: – Hydroelectric: Sun drives water cycle – Oil: Fossil fuel from ancient biomass (plant/animal remains) – Wind: Caused by uneven solar heating of atmosphere Geothermal (Earth’s internal heat) and nuclear fission (uranium) are not solar-derived. Coal is solar-derived but options containing it include non-solar sources.
Question 31 (P2.1.1)
When equal masses of solids, liquids and gases are heated equally, they expand by different amounts. Which list shows the relative order of the magnitudes of the expansion, starting with the state of matter that expands the least?
A. gas, liquid, solid
B. liquid, gas, solid
C. liquid, solid, gas
D. solid, liquid, gas
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Solids expand the least when heated because their particles are tightly packed in a fixed arrangement. Liquids expand more than solids as their particles are less tightly packed. Gases expand the most because their particles are far apart and move freely, allowing for significant expansion when heated.
Question 32 (P3.1)
Diagram 1 represents a wave.
Which diagram represents a wave with twice the frequency and half the amplitude of the wave in diagram 1?
The scales are the same in all the diagrams.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Twice the frequency means the wave should have half the wavelength (more waves in the same time period). Half the amplitude means the peaks and troughs should be half as high/deep as the original wave. Option B correctly shows both these modifications while maintaining the same wave shape.
Question 33 (P3.2.1)
A student stands in front of a plane mirror on a wall. Which statement about the image of the student is not correct?
A. The image is laterally inverted.
B. The image is smaller than the student.
C. The image is upright.
D. The student and the image are equal distances from the mirror.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: In a plane mirror, the image is always the same size as the object. The other statements are correct: the image is laterally inverted (left and right reversed), upright (not upside down), and the object distance equals the image distance from the mirror.
Question 34 (P4.2.2)
There is a current of 3.0A in a resistor. How much electric charge passes through the resistor in 2.0 minutes?
A. 0.025 C
B. 1.5 C
C. 6.0 C
D. 360 C
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Using the formula Q = I × t, where I = 3.0A and t = 2.0 minutes = 120 seconds. Q = 3.0 × 120 = 360 C. The charge passing through the resistor is 360 coulombs.
Question 35 (P3.4)
A sports field is next to a large school building. A student at the far side of the sports field sees a groundsman hit a pole with a hammer.
After the hammer hits the pole, the student hears two bangs.
Why does the student hear two bangs?
| first bang caused by | second bang caused by | |
|---|---|---|
| A | sound of hammer hitting pole | sound of pole hitting hammer |
| B | sound reaching the student’s left ear | sound reaching the student’s right ear |
| C | sound reaching student directly | sound reflected back from school building |
| D | sound reflected back from school building | sound reaching student directly |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The student hears two bangs because sound travels both directly from the pole to the student and indirectly by reflecting off the school building. The direct sound arrives first as it travels a shorter distance, while the reflected sound takes a longer path and arrives slightly later, creating an echo effect.
Question 36 (P4.3)
In the circuit, component X is used to control the brightness of the lamp.
What is component X?
A. an ammeter
B. a fixed resistor
C. a fuse
D. a variable resistor
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: A variable resistor (rheostat) can control the brightness of a lamp by varying the resistance in the circuit, which changes the current flowing through the lamp. Ammeters measure current but don’t control it, fixed resistors provide constant resistance, and fuses are safety devices that don’t adjust brightness.
Question 37 (P4.3.1)
A circuit contains a power supply, a lamp, an ammeter and a NTC thermistor, connected in series.
The NTC thermistor is now heated. What happens to the brightness of the lamp and what happens to the ammeter reading?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: An NTC (Negative Temperature Coefficient) thermistor decreases its resistance when heated. In a series circuit, lower resistance means higher current (ammeter reading increases). The higher current makes the lamp brighter as more electrical energy is converted to light and heat energy.
Question 38 (P4.4)
The diagram shows the connections to an electric heater. The circuit includes three fuses.
Which of the fuses are correctly placed?
A. fuse 1, fuse 2 and fuse 3
B. fuse 1 and fuse 2 only
C. fuse 1 only
D. fuse 2 only
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Only fuse 1 is correctly placed in the live wire. Fuses should always be placed in the live wire to protect the circuit and appliance if excess current flows. Fuse 2 in the neutral wire and fuse 3 in the earth wire are incorrectly placed and provide no protection.
Question 39 (P4.5.4)
A current-carrying wire is placed between the poles P and Q of a magnet, as shown.
The direction of the current is shown. A force acts on the wire in the upward direction as shown.
What is the direction of the magnetic field?
A. from P to Q
B. from Q to P
C. towards the bottom of the page
D. towards the top of the page
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Using Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule: First finger (Field) points from North (Q) to South (P), Second finger (Current) points right, Thumb (Force) points up. Therefore, the magnetic field direction is from Q to P (North to South).
Question 40 (P4.5.6)
The output from the generator in a power station is connected to a transformer before electricity is sent along a transmission cable.
Why is a transformer used?
A. to decrease the voltage and decrease the current
B. to decrease the voltage and increase the current
C. to increase the voltage and decrease the current
D. to increase the voltage and increase the current
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Transformers are used to increase voltage (step-up) for transmission, which decreases current proportionally (P = IV). High voltage transmission reduces energy loss as heat (I²R losses) in the cables. The voltage is later decreased (step-down) for safe domestic use.