Question 1 (B1.1)
Which process do all living organisms carry out?
A. asexual reproduction
B. excretion
C. ingestion
D. photosynthesis
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: All living organisms carry out excretion to remove metabolic waste products. While other options like photosynthesis (D) are limited to plants, and ingestion (C) isn’t done by plants, excretion is universal.
Question 2 (B2.1)
The diagram shows a specialised cell from a plant.
Which structures not found in animal cells are shown in the diagram and which structure often found in other plant cells is missing?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Plant cells have cell walls (Z) and large vacuoles (W) which animal cells lack. The chloroplast (present in many plant cells) is missing from this specialized cell.
Question 3 (B4.1)
Which result with the biuret test shows that protein is present?
A. blue
B. green
C. orange
D. purple
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: The biuret test turns purple/violet in the presence of proteins due to the formation of a copper-peptide complex. Blue indicates no protein present.
Question 4 (B5.1)
Which statements are correct for all enzymes?
1. They are proteins.
2. They are unaffected by temperature.
3. They speed up chemical reactions.
4. They work best at a high pH.
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: All enzymes are proteins (1) and biological catalysts that speed up reactions (3). However, they are affected by temperature (2 is wrong) and most work best at neutral pH (4 is wrong).
Question 5 (B6.1)
Green plants need magnesium ions. Which plant process is limited when magnesium is deficient?
A. meiosis
B. photosynthesis
C. pollination
D. respiration
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Magnesium is a key component of chlorophyll. Without sufficient magnesium, chlorophyll production is impaired, directly limiting photosynthesis.
Question 6 (B7.3)
What is the effect of bile on food after it leaves the stomach?
A. acidifies the food entering the duodenum
B. activates enzymes which digest glycerol
C. increases the surface area of fats for digestion
D. provides fat for digesting enzymes
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Bile emulsifies fats, breaking them into smaller droplets to increase surface area for lipase action. It neutralizes (not acidifies) stomach acid and doesn’t provide fat or activate glycerol-digesting enzymes.
Question 7 (B8.1)
The diagrams show sections through a stem and a root.
Which indicate the positions of the xylem?
A. P and S
B. P and T
C. Q and S
D. Q and T
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Xylem vessels are typically located toward the center in roots (P) and toward the inner side of vascular bundles in stems (T), providing structural support and water transport.
Question 8 (B12.1)
What are the products of the anaerobic respiration of glucose in yeast?
A. alcohol and carbon dioxide
B. alcohol only
C. lactic acid and carbon dioxide
D. lactic acid only
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: Yeast undergoes alcoholic fermentation, producing ethanol (alcohol) and CO₂. Lactic acid is produced in human muscle cells during anaerobic respiration.
Question 9 (B13.3)
Which statement about the role of blood vessels in the skin is correct?
A. If the environment is too cold, vasoconstriction of capillaries occurs.
B. If the environment is too cold, vasodilation of arterioles occurs.
C. If the environment is too hot, vasoconstriction of capillaries occurs.
D. If the environment is too hot, vasodilation of arterioles occurs.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: When hot, arterioles dilate (vasodilation) to increase blood flow to skin surface for heat loss. Vasoconstriction occurs when cold to conserve heat.
Question 10 (B15.4)
During pregnancy, the placenta is used to exchange substances between the mother and the fetus.
Which row is correct?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Ans: B
Question 11 (B16.1)
A nucleus of a potato plant cell has 48 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will there be in a potato pollen nucleus?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 48
D. 96
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Pollen nuclei are haploid (n) as they are gametes. The plant cell nucleus is diploid (2n) with 48 chromosomes, so the haploid number is half of this, which is 24 chromosomes.
Question 12 (B18.2)
In the food chain shown, 10% of the energy is transferred between each trophic level.
grass → grasshopper → frog → snake → buzzard
For every 100 kJ of energy in the herbivore, how much energy will be transferred to the tertiary consumer?
A. 0.1 kJ
B. 1 kJ
C. 10 kJ
D. 100 kJ
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The herbivore (grasshopper) is the primary consumer (100 kJ). The frog (secondary consumer) receives 10% = 10 kJ. The snake (tertiary consumer) receives 10% of 10 kJ = 1 kJ.
Question 13 (B19.1)
Some of the stages of eutrophication are listed:
1. death of organisms requiring dissolved oxygen in water
2. increased availability of nitrate and other ions
3. increased decomposition after death of producers
4. reduction in dissolved oxygen
What is the correct order of these stages in eutrophication?
A. 2 → 1 → 4 → 3
B. 2 → 3 → 4 → 1
C. 3 → 2 → 4 → 1
D. 3 → 4 → 1 → 2
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct sequence is: (2) nutrient increase → (3) algal bloom dies and decomposes → (4) oxygen depletion → (1) death of aerobic organisms.
Question 14 (C1.1)
Which statement describes the arrangement of particles in a solid?
A. The particles are close together and move randomly.
B. The particles are close together and vibrate about a fixed point.
C. The particles are far apart and move randomly.
D. The particles are far apart and vibrate about a fixed point.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: In solids, particles are closely packed in a fixed arrangement and vibrate about fixed positions due to strong intermolecular forces.
Question 15 (C6.1)
Which processes are chemical changes?
1. conversion of steam to liquid water
2. cracking of alkanes
3. fractional distillation of petroleum
4. thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: (2) Cracking and (4) thermal decomposition involve breaking chemical bonds to form new substances. (1) and (3) are physical changes involving state changes or separation of mixtures.
Question 16 (C2.6)
Silicon(IV) oxide has a giant molecular structure. Which row is correct?
| number of oxygen atoms bonded to each silicon atom | number of silicon atoms bonded to each oxygen atom | |
|---|---|---|
| A | 2 | 2 |
| B | 2 | 4 |
| C | 4 | 2 |
| D | 4 | 4 |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: In SiO₂, each Si atom forms 4 covalent bonds with O atoms (tetrahedral arrangement), while each O atom bridges between 2 Si atoms.
Question 17 (C3.2)
1 g of hydrogen contains 6×10²³ atoms. The relative atomic mass of helium is 4.
How many atoms does 1 g of helium contain?
A. 1.5×10²³
B. 2.4×10²⁴
C. 6×10²³
D. 2.4×10²³
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: 1 mole of He (4 g) contains 6×10²³ atoms. Therefore, 1 g contains (6×10²³)/4 = 1.5×10²³ atoms.
Question 18 (C4.1)
During the electrolysis of aluminium oxide, which ions are reduced and at which electrode does this reduction occur?
A. aluminium ions at the anode
B. aluminium ions at the cathode
C. oxide ions at the anode
D. oxide ions at the cathode
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Al³⁺ ions gain electrons (reduction) at the cathode: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al. Oxide ions are oxidized at the anode.
Question 19 (C5.1)
Which statement describes what happens when ethanol burns?
A. Chemical energy transfers to thermal energy in an endothermic reaction.
B. Chemical energy transfers to thermal energy in an exothermic reaction.
C. Thermal energy transfers to chemical energy in an endothermic reaction.
D. Thermal energy transfers to chemical energy in an exothermic reaction.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Combustion releases heat (exothermic), converting chemical energy in ethanol to thermal energy.
Question 20 (C6.3)
Three reaction equations are listed:
1. 2Na + H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂
2. 2NaCl → 2Na + Cl₂
3. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
Which reactions involve reduction and oxidation?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: Both (1) and (2) involve electron transfer: (1) Na is oxidized, H is reduced; (2) Na is reduced, Cl is oxidized. (3) is thermal decomposition without redox.
Question 21 (C7.1)
The pH values of four liquids are 1, 4, 7 and 13.
The four liquids are distilled water, nitric acid, potassium hydroxide and vinegar.
Which row shows the pH values of the liquids?
| distilled water | nitric acid | potassium hydroxide | vinegar | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | 4 | 7 | 13 | 1 |
| B | 4 | 13 | 7 | 1 |
| C | 7 | 1 | 4 | 13 |
| D | 7 | 1 | 13 | 4 |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation:
- Nitric acid is a strong acid with pH 1
- Vinegar is a weak acid with pH around 4
- Distilled water is neutral with pH 7
- Potassium hydroxide is a strong base with pH 13
Only option D correctly matches these substances with their pH values.
Question 22 (C12.3)
The colours in an ink can be separated by chromatography.
Which diagram shows the correct way to set up the apparatus?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: In paper chromatography, the spot of ink should be placed just above the solvent level so that the solvent can rise up the paper by capillary action and separate the components of the ink. If the spot is submerged, the ink will dissolve directly into the solvent without separation.
Question 23 (C8.1)
Which statement about the Periodic Table is correct?
A. Elements are listed in order of neutron number.
B. Elements are listed in order of nucleon number.
C. Elements are listed in order of proton number.
D. Elements are listed in order of relative atomic mass.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The Periodic Table arranges elements in order of increasing atomic (proton) number. While relative atomic mass generally increases with proton number, there are exceptions (like tellurium and iodine) where this isn’t the case.
Question 24 (C8.2)
Information about three Group I elements is shown:
| melting point / °C | the formula of the oxides | |
|---|---|---|
| lithium | 180 | Li2O |
| sodium | 98 | Na2O |
| potassium | 63 | K2O |
Rubidium is below potassium in Group I.
Which statements about rubidium are correct?
1. The formula of rubidium oxide is Rb2O.
2. Rubidium is more dense than potassium.
3. Rubidium’s melting point is greater than 63°C.
4. The formula of rubidium hydroxide is Rb(OH)2.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation:
- 1 is correct as all Group I elements form oxides with formula M2O
- 2 is correct as density increases down Group I
- 3 is incorrect as melting points decrease down the group
- 4 is incorrect as Group I hydroxides have formula MOH
Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Question 25 (C9.2)
Four properties of metals are listed:
1. high melting point
2. low density
3. resistance to corrosion
4. conducts electricity
Which properties make aluminium suitable for use in cans containing drinks?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: For drink cans, the most important properties are:
- Low density (2) – makes cans lightweight
- Resistance to corrosion (3) – prevents reaction with drinks
While electrical conductivity (4) is a metallic property, it’s not relevant for cans. High melting point (1) isn’t specifically required for this application.
Question 26 (C6.2)
During the Contact process, sulfur dioxide is reacted with oxygen to convert it to sulfur trioxide.
Which catalyst is used?
A. copper oxide
B. iron
C. nickel
D. vanadium(V) oxide
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: The Contact process for manufacturing sulfuric acid uses vanadium(V) oxide (V2O5) as the catalyst for the reaction: 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3.
Question 27 (C11.7)
Which diagram represents the structure of nylon?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Nylon is a polyamide, characterized by repeating units containing the amide functional group (-CONH-). The correct structure shows these amide links between carbon chains.
Question 28 (P1.5.1)
The diagram shows the two horizontal forces acting on a toy car of mass 2.0 kg that is moving along a horizontal floor.
What are the resultant force on the car and its acceleration?
| resultant force / N | acceleration m/s2 | |
|---|---|---|
| A | 4.0 | 0.50 |
| B | 4.0 | 2.0 |
| C | 8.0 | 0.25 |
| D | 8.0 | 4.0 |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Resultant force = forward force – resistive force = 6.0 N – 2.0 N = 4.0 N
- Using F = ma → a = F/m = 4.0 N / 2.0 kg = 2.0 m/s2
Therefore, the correct values are 4.0 N resultant force and 2.0 m/s2 acceleration.
Question 29 (P1.5.1)
Diagram 1 shows a spring with its length indicated. Diagram 2 shows the same spring with a 20 N load hung from it, and the new length of the spring.
The spring obeys Hooke’s Law.
Which graph is the extension-load graph for the spring?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Extension = 25 cm – 15 cm = 10 cm
- Gradient = extension/load = 10 cm / 20 N = 0.5 cm/N
- Since the spring obeys Hooke’s Law, the graph should be a straight line through the origin with this gradient
Therefore, option A is correct.
Question 30 (P1.6.2)
An engine is doing work on a car as the car moves along a road.
Which two changes must result in less work being done on the car by the engine?
A. decreasing the engine’s force on the car and decreasing the distance moved by the car
B. decreasing the engine’s force on the car and increasing the distance moved by the car
C. increasing the engine’s force on the car and decreasing the distance moved by the car
D. increasing the engine’s force on the car and increasing the distance moved by the car
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: Work done = force × distance (W = Fd). To decrease work done, you need to decrease either the force or the distance or both. Option A describes decreasing both factors, which would definitely result in less work being done.
Question 31 (P1.6.3)
A machine has useful output energy of 1000 J, and wasted energy of 300 J.
Which expression is used to calculate the efficiency of the machine?
A. \(\frac{300}{(1000 + 300)} \times 100\%\)
B. \(\frac{300}{1000} \times 100\%\)
C. \(\frac{(1000 – 300)}{1000} \times 100\%\)
D. \(\frac{1000}{(1000 + 300)} \times 100\%\)
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Efficiency is calculated as the ratio of useful output energy to total input energy, expressed as a percentage. The total input energy is the sum of useful output energy (1000 J) and wasted energy (300 J). Therefore, the correct expression is \(\frac{1000}{(1000 + 300)} \times 100\%\).
Question 32 (P2.2.2)
The more energetic molecules of a liquid are escaping from its surface, causing the liquid to cool.
What is happening to the liquid?
A. It is boiling.
B. It is condensing.
C. It is evaporating.
D. It is melting.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Evaporation occurs when the more energetic molecules at the surface of a liquid escape into the gas phase, which results in cooling of the remaining liquid. Boiling involves the entire liquid reaching its boiling point, while condensing and melting are processes where a gas turns to liquid or a solid turns to liquid, respectively.
Question 33 (P3.1)
A transverse wave is travelling through a medium in the direction shown.
In which direction do the particles of the medium vibrate?
A. parallel to the line joining P to Q
B. parallel to the line joining Q to R
C. perpendicular to the line joining P to Q
D. perpendicular to the line joining Q to R
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Since the wave is traveling in the direction from Q to R, the particles vibrate perpendicular to this line.
Question 34 (P3.2.2)
A glass block is surrounded by air. Light travelling in the glass block reaches the edge of the block. The critical angle of the glass is 42°.
Which row shows an angle of incidence \( i \) of the light and what happens to the light when it reaches the edge of the glass block at this angle of incidence?
| \( i \) | what happens to the light | |
|---|---|---|
| A | 30° | totally internally reflected |
| B | 45° | refracted |
| C | 60° | totally internally reflected |
| D | 75° | refracted |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle (42°). At 60°, which is greater than 42°, the light will be totally internally reflected. At angles less than the critical angle (e.g., 30° and 45°), the light will be refracted.
Question 35 (P4.2.2)
There is a current of 6.0 A in an electric heater.
How much electric charge passes through the heater in one minute?
A. 0.10 C
B. 6.0 C
C. 10 C
D. 360 C
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Charge (Q) is calculated using the formula \( Q = I \times t \), where \( I \) is current (6.0 A) and \( t \) is time (60 seconds). Thus, \( Q = 6.0 \times 60 = 360 \) C.
Question 36 (P4.3.2)
Which row shows how lamps are connected in a lighting circuit in a house and gives an advantage of connecting them in this way?
| how lamps are connected | advantage of connecting them in this way | |
|---|---|---|
| A | in parallel | they can be switched separately |
| B | in parallel | they share the voltage |
| C | in series | they can be switched separately |
| D | in series | they share the voltage |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: In a house lighting circuit, lamps are connected in parallel. This allows each lamp to be switched independently and ensures that if one lamp fails, the others remain operational. Parallel connections also ensure that each lamp receives the full voltage.
Question 37 (P4.2.5)
An electric kettle is rated at 3.0 kW and is connected to a 250 V supply. The kettle is switched on for 2.0 minutes.
Which row shows the current in the kettle and the energy transferred by the kettle?
| current/A | energy/J | |
|---|---|---|
| A | 12 | 6000 |
| B | 12 | 360 000 |
| C | 750 | 6000 |
| D | 750 | 360 000 |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The current (I) can be calculated using \( P = IV \), so \( I = \frac{P}{V} = \frac{3000}{250} = 12 \) A. The energy transferred (E) is calculated using \( E = Pt \), where \( t = 120 \) seconds (2 minutes). Thus, \( E = 3000 \times 120 = 360,000 \) J.
Question 38 (P4.4)
An electrical extension block has four sockets, a cable which can safely take a current of 6 A and a plug. It is protected by a fuse rated at 5 A.
The extension block is used with four appliances and the 5 A fuse blows. The owner replaces the 5 A fuse with a 13 A fuse.
Why is the extension block now dangerous?
A. The appliances may overheat before the fuse blows.
B. The cable may overheat before the fuse blows.
C. The sockets may burn out before the fuse blows.
D. The 13 A fuse may blow too soon.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The cable is rated to safely carry a maximum of 6 A. If a 13 A fuse is used, the cable could overheat and potentially cause a fire before the fuse blows, as the fuse allows a much higher current than the cable can handle.
Question 39 (P4.5.5)
The diagram shows an electrical device.
What is this electrical device?
A. a d.c. motor
B. an a.c. generator
C. a transformer
D. a solenoid
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: The presence of a split-ring commutator and carbon brushes indicates that this is a d.c. motor. The commutator reverses the current direction in the coil every half-turn, ensuring continuous rotation in one direction when connected to a direct current (d.c.) supply.
Question 40 (P5.2.2)
Which type of radiation has the greatest ionising effect, and which is the most penetrating?
| greatest ionising effect | most penetrating | |
|---|---|---|
| A | α-particles | α-particles |
| B | α-particles | γ-rays |
| C | γ-rays | α-particles |
| D | γ-rays | γ-rays |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: α-particles have the greatest ionising effect due to their large mass and charge, but they are the least penetrating. γ-rays are the most penetrating type of radiation, able to pass through thick materials like lead, but they have the least ionising effect.