Question 1 (B1.1)
Which statement is the definition of nutrition?
A) Break down of nutrient molecules and the release of energy for metabolism
B) Maintenance of a constant internal environment
C) Removal of the waste products of metabolism
D) Taking in of materials for energy, growth and development
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D) Taking in of materials for energy, growth and development
Explanation: Nutrition refers to the process by which organisms take in materials from the environment for energy, growth, and development. This is a fundamental characteristic of living organisms.
Question 2 (B2.1)
Which structure in a plant cell makes organic nutrients?
A) Cell membrane
B) Cell wall
C) Chloroplast
D) Nucleus
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C) Chloroplast
Explanation: Chloroplasts are the organelles in plant cells responsible for photosynthesis, which is the process of converting light energy into chemical energy stored in organic nutrients like glucose.
Question 3 (B4.1)
Nutrient molecules are made up from smaller molecules. Nutrients can be identified by food tests.
Which row is true for a protein?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B) Amino acids, Biuret test
Explanation: Proteins are made up of amino acids, and the Biuret test is used to detect the presence of proteins. The test turns purple in the presence of proteins.
Question 4 (B5.1)
A mixture of starch and saliva was set up at four different temperatures. Each mixture was tested with iodine solution after 15 minutes and again after 30 minutes. The results are shown in the table:
| Temperature /°C | Colour with iodine solution (15 minutes) | Colour with iodine solution (30 minutes) |
|---|---|---|
| 0 | Blue-black | Blue-black |
| 15 | Blue-black | Brown |
| 35 | Brown | Brown |
| 95 | Blue-black | Blue-black |
What do the results suggest?
A) The enzyme in saliva is inactive at 95°C.
B) The enzyme in saliva is slow to work at 35°C.
C) The enzyme in saliva works equally well at 15°C and 35°C.
D) The enzyme in saliva works faster at higher temperatures.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A) The enzyme in saliva is inactive at 95°C.
Explanation: Enzymes are proteins that can denature (lose their structure) at high temperatures, such as 95°C. This denaturation causes the enzyme to become inactive, which is why the starch was not broken down at this temperature.
Question 5 (B6.1)
Which cell can control gas exchange?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Question 6 (B7.2)
Much of the internal surface of the human small intestine is covered with villi. What is the function of villi?
A) Excretion of waste into the intestine
B) Secretion of enzymes into the intestine
C) To improve blood circulation in the intestine walls
D) To increase the internal surface area of the intestine
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D) To increase the internal surface area of the intestine
Explanation: Villi are finger-like projections that increase the surface area of the small intestine, allowing for more efficient absorption of nutrients.
Question 7 (B8.3)
Under which conditions will transpiration from a plant be fastest?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B) High temperature, Low humidity
Explanation: Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts, such as leaves. High temperatures increase the rate of evaporation, and low humidity increases the rate of water loss from the plant, leading to faster transpiration.
Question 8 (B12.1)
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
A) Glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide
B) Glucose → carbon dioxide + water
C) Glucose → lactic acid
D) Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A) Glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide
Explanation: In anaerobic respiration, yeast converts glucose into ethanol (alcohol) and carbon dioxide. This process is also known as fermentation.
Question 9 (B13.1)
Which row is correct when looking at a near object?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A) Contracted, Slack, Fat
Explanation: When looking at a near object, the ciliary muscles contract, causing the suspensory ligaments to slacken. This allows the lens to become more rounded (fat), increasing its refractive power to focus on the near object.
Question 10 (B15.4)
In human reproduction, which cells are haploid?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B) Gametes ✓, Zygotes ✗
Explanation: Gametes (sperm and egg cells) are haploid, meaning they contain half the number of chromosomes (23 in humans). Zygotes are diploid, formed by the fusion of two haploid gametes, resulting in 46 chromosomes.
Question 11 (B16.1)
Which term is used to describe an individual with two of the same allele for a characteristic?
A. genotype
B. heterozygous
C. homozygous
D. phenotype
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Homozygous refers to an individual having two identical alleles for a particular gene. For example, if an individual has two alleles for tallness (TT), they are homozygous for that trait.
Question 12 (B18.2)
Which organism in the food web is a secondary and a tertiary consumer?
A. coyote
B. fox
C. mouse
D. rabbit
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: The coyote is both a secondary and tertiary consumer because it feeds on primary consumers (like rabbits) and other secondary consumers (like foxes).
Question 13 (B19.1)
During eutrophication, what reduces the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the water?
A. decreased photosynthesis by producers
B. decreased respiration by decomposers
C. increased photosynthesis by producers
D. increased respiration by decomposers
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: During eutrophication, the increased growth of algae and subsequent death of these organisms lead to an increase in decomposer activity. Decomposers consume oxygen during respiration, which reduces the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the water.
Question 14 (C12.4)
A sample of water is contaminated with insoluble chalk and a soluble salt. Which two processes are used to separate the water from the chalk and salt?
A. distillation and chromatography
B. distillation and crystallisation
C. filtration and chromatography
D. filtration and crystallisation
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Filtration is used to separate the insoluble chalk from the water, and crystallisation is used to separate the soluble salt from the water by evaporating the water and leaving the salt behind.
Question 15 (C2.5)
Which row describes a covalent compound?
| solubility in water | volatility | |
|---|---|---|
| A | high | low |
| B | high | high |
| C | low | low |
| D | low | high |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Covalent compounds generally have low solubility in water and are often volatile, meaning they evaporate easily at room temperature.
Question 16 (C3.2)
The equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown.
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
What is the mass of oxygen that is required for the complete combustion of 16 g of methane?
A. 8 g
B. 16 g
C. 32 g
D. 64 g
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: The molar mass of methane (CH4) is 16 g/mol. For complete combustion, 1 mole of methane requires 2 moles of oxygen (O2). The molar mass of O2 is 32 g/mol, so 2 moles of O2 weigh 64 g. Therefore, 16 g of methane requires 64 g of oxygen for complete combustion.
Question 17 (C5.1)
Which statement describes an endothermic reaction?
A. The products have less energy than the reactants and the temperature decreases.
B. The products have less energy than the reactants and the temperature increases.
C. The products have more energy than the reactants and the temperature decreases.
D. The products have more energy than the reactants and the temperature increases.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: In an endothermic reaction, energy is absorbed from the surroundings, so the products have more energy than the reactants. This absorption of energy causes the temperature of the surroundings to decrease.
Question 18 (C6.2)
Which row describes how the number of effective collisions and the rate of reaction are affected if the activation energy of a reaction is increased?
| number of effective collisions | rate of reaction | |
|---|---|---|
| A | higher | greater |
| B | higher | lower |
| C | lower | greater |
| D | lower | lower |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: If the activation energy of a reaction is increased, fewer particles will have enough energy to overcome the activation energy barrier, leading to fewer effective collisions and a lower rate of reaction.
Question 19 (C6.3)
Which word equation represents a redox reaction?
A. carbon + copper oxide → copper + carbon dioxide
B. hydrochloric acid + potassium hydroxide → potassium chloride + water
C. magnesium carbonate → magnesium oxide + carbon dioxide
D. sodium sulfate + barium nitrate → barium sulfate + sodium nitrate
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: A redox reaction involves both oxidation and reduction. In the reaction between carbon and copper oxide, carbon is oxidized to carbon dioxide, and copper oxide is reduced to copper.
Question 20 (C12.5)
Which chemical test does not produce a precipitate?
A. carbon dioxide and limewater
B. carbonate ions and dilute hydrochloric acid
C. chloride ions and aqueous silver nitrate
D. copper(II) ions and aqueous sodium hydroxide
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: When carbonate ions react with dilute hydrochloric acid, carbon dioxide gas is produced, but no precipitate is formed. The other options all produce precipitates.
Question 21 (C2.2)
Which electronic structure is for a non-metallic element?
A. 2
B. 2,2
C. 2,8,2
D. 2,8,8,2
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: The electronic structure “2” corresponds to helium, which is a non-metallic element. The other options correspond to metallic elements (e.g., beryllium, magnesium, calcium).
Question 22 (C9.4)
The equations for four reactions are shown.
Mn + Ni(NO3)2 → Mn(NO3)2 + Ni
Ni + PbO → NiO + Pb
PbO + Sn → SnO + Pb
Sn(NO3)2 + Ni → Ni(NO3)2 + Sn
What is the order of reactivity of the metals?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The reactivity series of metals is: manganese > nickel > tin > lead. This is determined by the ability of each metal to displace another metal from its compound in a displacement reaction.
Question 23 (C6.1)
Which process does not produce carbon dioxide?
A. acid reacting with a metal
B. acid reacting with sodium carbonate
C. complete combustion of methane
D. respiration
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: When an acid reacts with a metal, hydrogen gas is produced, not carbon dioxide. The other options all produce carbon dioxide as a byproduct.
Question 24 (C8.1)
Which row shows the conditions used in the Haber process?
| temperature/°C | pressure/atm | catalyst | |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 150 | 200 | iron |
| B | 150 | 400 | vanadium oxide |
| C | 450 | 200 | iron |
| D | 450 | 400 | vanadium oxide |
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The Haber process typically operates at a temperature of around 450°C, a pressure of 200 atm, and uses an iron catalyst.
Question 25 (C8.5)
The Contact process is used to manufacture sulfuric acid. Which statement about the Contact process is not correct?
A. A nickel catalyst is used.
B. Sulfur dioxide reacts with oxygen to form sulfur trioxide.
C. Sulfur burns to form sulfur dioxide.
D. Sulfur trioxide dissolves in concentrated sulfuric acid to form oleum.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: In the Contact process, a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst is used, not nickel. The other statements are correct: sulfur dioxide reacts with oxygen to form sulfur trioxide, sulfur burns to form sulfur dioxide, and sulfur trioxide dissolves in concentrated sulfuric acid to form oleum.
Question 26 (C11.6)
What reacts with ethene to form ethanol?
A. bromine
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. steam
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Ethene reacts with steam (water) in the presence of a catalyst (phosphoric acid) to form ethanol. This is a hydration reaction.
Question 27 (C11.7)
Poly(ethene) is made from ethene by the process of addition polymerisation. Which word describes ethene in this process?
A. fuel
B. catalyst
C. monomer
D. solvent
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Ethene is the monomer in the polymerisation process, as it is the small molecule that joins together to form the polymer poly(ethene).
Question 28 (P1.2)
Which speed–time graph represents an object moving with an acceleration of 2.0 m/s2?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct graph shows a straight line with a constant slope, indicating constant acceleration. The slope of the line corresponds to the acceleration, which is 2.0 m/s2.
Question 29 (P1.5)
The diagram shows the extension–load graph for a spring. Which labelled point is the limit of proportionality of the spring?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The limit of proportionality is the point where the graph stops being a straight line, indicating that Hooke’s Law no longer applies. This is point C on the graph.
Question 30 (P1.5)
The diagrams show uniform metre rules each pivoted at the 50 cm mark. Different weights are placed on the rules at different distances from the 0 cm end as shown.
Which rule rotates in a clockwise direction?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The rule rotates clockwise when the moments on the left side of the pivot are greater than those on the right side. In diagram B, the weights and distances are arranged such that the clockwise moment is greater.
Question 31 (P1.6)
Electricity is generated in power stations. Many power stations use steam to drive turbines. Which type of power station does not use steam?
A. chemical energy (fuel) power stations
B. geothermal energy power stations
C. hydroelectric energy power stations
D. nuclear energy power stations
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Hydroelectric power stations generate electricity using the kinetic energy of flowing water, not steam. The other options (chemical, geothermal, and nuclear) use steam to drive turbines.
Question 32 (P2.2)
What is meant by the sensitivity of a liquid-in-glass thermometer?
A. how quickly the thermometer shows a change in temperature
B. the accuracy of the thermometer
C. the amount of change in the length of the liquid column per degree Celsius temperature rise
D. the difference between the maximum and the minimum temperatures that the thermometer can measure
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Sensitivity refers to the change in the length of the liquid column per degree Celsius temperature rise. A more sensitive thermometer will show a larger change in the liquid column for a small change in temperature.
Question 33 (P2.3)
Three identical metal cans X, Y and Z are painted. X is painted dull black, Y is painted dull white and Z is painted shiny silver.
All three cans are filled with the same amount of water at 100°C. They are left in a cool room for the same amount of time.
Which row shows possible temperatures of the water in each of the cans after this time?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: The dull black can (X) will cool the fastest because it is the best emitter of infrared radiation. The shiny silver can (Z) will cool the slowest because it is the poorest emitter. Therefore, the temperatures will be X (lowest), Y (middle), and Z (highest).
Question 34 (P3.1)
The diagram shows the direction of a wave that passes a particle. The particle is made to vibrate by the wave. The direction of vibration of the particle is shown.
Which row states the type of wave that passes the particle, and gives an example of this type of wave?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The wave is transverse, as the particle vibrates perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Light is an example of a transverse wave.
Question 35 (P3.2)
The diagram shows a ray of light travelling in glass from point P. Angle x is greater than the critical angle.
In which labelled direction does the ray continue?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: When the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, total internal reflection occurs. The ray will reflect back into the glass, continuing in direction D.
Question 36 (P3.3)
Which list consists of three regions of the electromagnetic spectrum in order of increasing frequency (lowest first)?
A. microwaves, radio waves, ultraviolet waves
B. microwaves, ultraviolet waves, radio waves
C. radio waves, microwaves, ultraviolet waves
D. ultraviolet waves, radio waves, microwaves
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The order of increasing frequency is radio waves (lowest), microwaves, and ultraviolet waves (highest).
Question 37 (P4.2)
There is a current of 12 A in an electric kettle. How much charge passes through the kettle in one minute?
A. 0.20 C
B. 5.0 C
C. 12 C
D. 720 C
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Charge (Q) is calculated using the formula Q = I × t, where I is current and t is time. Here, Q = 12 A × 60 s = 720 C.
Question 38 (P4.3)
The series circuit shown includes a single component hidden in a box. The switch is open.
The switch is now closed and the lamp lights briefly before going off. The switch is now opened, and then closed again. This time the lamp does not light.
Which symbol represents the component in the box?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: The component is a capacitor. When the switch is closed, the capacitor charges and the lamp lights briefly. Once the capacitor is fully charged, no current flows, and the lamp goes off. When the switch is opened and closed again, the capacitor is already charged, so the lamp does not light.
Question 39 (P4.5)
A solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field. Which diagram shows the magnetic field pattern?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: The correct diagram shows the magnetic field lines running parallel to the axis of the solenoid, with the field lines emerging from the north pole and entering the south pole.
Question 40 (P5.2)
Which type of radiation has the greatest ionising effect?
A. infrared rays
B. α-particles
C. β-particles
D. γ-rays
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: α-particles have the greatest ionising effect because they are large and carry a double positive charge, which allows them to interact strongly with matter and ionise atoms.