Question
The set of all permutations of the list of the integers 1, 2, 3 4 is a group, S4, under the operation of function composition.
In the group S4 let \({p_1} = \left( \begin{gathered}
\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
1&2&3&4
\end{array} \hfill \\
\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
2&3&1&4
\end{array} \hfill \\
\end{gathered} \right)\) and \({p_2} = \left( \begin{gathered}
\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
1&2&3&4
\end{array} \hfill \\
\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
2&1&3&4
\end{array} \hfill \\
\end{gathered} \right)\).
a.Determine the order of S4.[2]
b.Find the proper subgroup H of order 6 containing \({p_1}\), \({p_2}\) and their compositions. Express each element of H in cycle form.[5]
c.Let \(f{\text{:}}\,{S_4} \to {S_4}\) be defined by \(f\left( p \right) = p \circ p\) for \(p \in {S_4}\).
Using \({p_1}\) and \({p_2}\), explain why \(f\) is not a homomorphism.[5]
▶️Answer/Explanation
Markscheme
number of possible permutations is 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 (M1)
= 24(= 4!) A1
[2 marks]
attempting to find one of \({p_1} \circ {p_1}\), \({p_1} \circ {p_2}\) or \({p_2} \circ {p_1}\) M1
\({p_1} \circ {p_1} = \left( {132} \right)\) or equivalent (eg, \({p_1}^{ – 1} = \left( {132} \right)\)) A1
\( {p_1} \circ {p_2} = \left( {13} \right)\) or equivalent (eg, \({p_2} \circ {p_1} \circ {p_1} = \left( {13} \right)\)) A1
\({p_2} \circ {p_1} = \left( {23} \right)\) or equivalent (eg, \({p_1} \circ {p_1} \circ {p_2} = \left( {23} \right)\)) A1
Note: Award A1A0A0 for one correct permutation in any form; A1A1A0 for two correct permutations in any form.
\(e = \left( 1 \right)\), \({p_1} = \left( {123} \right)\) and \({p_2} = \left( {12} \right)\) A1
Note: Condone omission of identity in cycle form as long as it is clear it is considered one of the elements of H.
[5 marks]
METHOD 1
if \(f\) is a homomorphism \(f\left( {{p_1} \circ {p_2}} \right) = f\left( {{p_1}} \right) \circ f\left( {{p_2}} \right)\)
attempting to express one of \(f\left( {{p_1} \circ {p_2}} \right)\) or \(f\left( {{p_1}} \right) \circ f\left( {{p_2}} \right)\) in terms of \({p_1}\) and \({p_2}\) M1
\(f\left( {{p_1} \circ {p_2}} \right) = {p_1} \circ {p_2} \circ {p_1} \circ {p_2}\) A1
\(f\left( {{p_1}} \right) \circ f\left( {{p_2}} \right) = {p_1} \circ {p_1} \circ {p_2} \circ {p_2}\) A1
\( \Rightarrow {p_2} \circ {p_1} = {p_1} \circ {p_2}\) A1
but \({p_1} \circ {p_2} \ne {p_2} \circ {p_1}\) R1
so \(f\) is not a homomorphism AG
Note: Award R1 only if M1 is awarded.
Note: Award marks only if \({p_1}\) and \({p_2}\) are used; cycle form is not required.
METHOD 2
if \(f\) is a homomorphism \(f\left( {{p_1} \circ {p_2}} \right) = f\left( {{p_1}} \right) \circ f\left( {{p_2}} \right)\)
attempting to find one of \(f\left( {{p_1} \circ {p_2}} \right)\) or \(f\left( {{p_1}} \right) \circ f\left( {{p_2}} \right)\) M1
\(f\left( {{p_1} \circ {p_2}} \right) = e\) A1
\(f\left( {{p_1}} \right) \circ f\left( {{p_2}} \right) = \left( {132} \right)\) (M1)A1
so \(f\left( {{p_1} \circ {p_2}} \right) \ne f\left( {{p_1}} \right) \circ f\left( {{p_2}} \right)\) R1
so \(f\) is not a homomorphism AG
Note: Award R1 only if M1 is awarded.
Note: Award marks only if \({p_1}\) and \({p_2}\) are used; cycle form is not required.
[5 marks]
Examiners report
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Question
The group \(\{ G,{\text{ }} * \} \) is Abelian and the bijection \(f:{\text{ }}G \to G\) is defined by \(f(x) = {x^{ – 1}},{\text{ }}x \in G\).
Show that \(f\) is an isomorphism.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Markscheme
we need to show that \(f(a * b) = f(a) * f(b)\) R1
Note: This R1 may be awarded at any stage.
let \(a,{\text{ }}b \in G\) (M1)
consider \(f(a) * f(b)\) M1
\( = {a^{ – 1}} * {b^{ – 1}}\) A1
consider \(f(a * b) = {(a * b)^{ – 1}}\) M1
\( = {b^{ – 1}} * {a^{ – 1}}\) A1
\( = {a^{ – 1}} * {b^{ – 1}}\) since \(G\) is Abelian R1
hence \(f\) is an isomorphism AG
[7 marks]
Examiners report
A surprising number of candidates wasted time and unrewarded effort showing that the mapping \(f\), stated to be a bijection in the question, actually was a bijection. Many candidates failed to get full marks by not properly using the fact that the group was stated to be Abelian. There were also candidates who drew the graph of \(y = \frac{1}{x}\) or otherwise assumed that the inverse of \(x\) was its reciprocal – this is unacceptable in the context of an abstract group question.
Question
A group \(\{ D,{\text{ }}{ \times _3}\} \) is defined so that \(D = \{ 1,{\text{ }}2\} \) and \({ \times _3}\) is multiplication modulo \(3\).
A function \(f:\mathbb{Z} \to D\) is defined as \(f:x \mapsto \left\{ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} {1,{\text{ }}x{\text{ is even}}} \\ {2,{\text{ }}x{\text{ is odd}}} \end{array}} \right.\).
a.Prove that the function \(f\) is a homomorphism from the group \(\{ \mathbb{Z},{\text{ }} + \} {\text{ to }}\{ D,{\text{ }}{ \times _3}\} \).[6]
c.Prove that \(\{ {\text{Ker}}(f),{\text{ }} + \} \) is a subgroup of \(\{ \mathbb{Z},{\text{ }} + \} \).[4]
▶️Answer/Explanation
Markscheme
consider the cases, \(a\) and \(b\) both even, one is even and one is odd and \(a\) and \(b\) are both odd (M1)
calculating \(f(a + b)\) and \(f(a){ \times _3}f(b)\) in at least one case M1
if \(a\) is even and \(b\) is even, then \(a + b\) is even
so\(\;\;\;f(a + b) = 1.\;\;\;f(a){ \times _3}f(b) = 1{ \times _3}1 = 1\) A1
so\(\;\;\;f(a + b) = f(a){ \times _3}f(b)\)
if one is even and the other is odd, then \(a + b\) is odd
so\(\;\;\;f(a + b) = 2.\;\;\;f(a){ \times _3}f(b) = 1{ \times _3}2 = 2\) A1
so\(\;\;\;f(a + b) = f(a){ \times _3}f(b)\)
if \(a\) is odd and \(b\) is odd, then \(a + b\) is even
so\(\;\;\;f(a + b) = 1.\;\;\;f(a){ \times _3}f(b) = 2{ \times _3}2 = 1\) A1
so\(\;\;\;f(a + b) = f(a){ \times _3}f(b)\)
as\(\;\;\;f(a + b) = f(a){ \times _3}f(b)\;\;\;\)in all cases, so\(\;\;\;f:\mathbb{Z} \to D\) is a homomorphism R1AG
[6 marks]
\(1\) is the identity of \(\{ D,{\text{ }}{ \times _3}\} \) (M1)(A1)
so\(\;\;\;{\text{Ker}}(f)\) is all even numbers A1
[3 marks]
METHOD 1
sum of any two even numbers is even so closure applies A1
associative as it is a subset of \(\{ \mathbb{Z},{\text{ }} + \} \) A1
identity is \(0\), which is in the kernel A1
the inverse of any even number is also even A1
METHOD 2
\({\text{ker}}(f) \ne \emptyset \)
\({b^{ – 1}} \in {\text{ker}}(f)\) for any \(b\)
\(a{b^{ – 1}} \in {\text{ker}}(f)\) for any \(a\) and \(b\)
Note: Allow a general proof that the Kernel is always a subgroup.
[4 marks]
Total [13 marks]
Examiners report
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Question
Let \(f:G \to H\) be a homomorphism of finite groups.
a.Prove that \(f({e_G}) = {e_H}\), where \({e_G}\) is the identity element in \(G\) and \({e_H}\) is the identity
element in \(H\).[2]
b.(i) Prove that the kernel of \(f,{\text{ }}K = {\text{Ker}}(f)\), is closed under the group operation.
(ii) Deduce that \(K\) is a subgroup of \(G\).[6]
c.(i) Prove that \(gk{g^{ – 1}} \in K\) for all \(g \in G,{\text{ }}k \in K\).
(ii) Deduce that each left coset of K in G is also a right coset.[6]
▶️Answer/Explanation
Markscheme
\(f(g) = f({e_G}g) = f({e_G})f(g)\) for \(g \in G\) M1A1
\( \Rightarrow f({e_G}) = {e_H}\) AG
[2 marks]
(i) closure: let \({k_1}\) and \({k_2} \in K\), then \(f({k_1}{k_2}) = f({k_1})f({k_2})\) M1A1
\( = {e_H}{e_H} = {e_H}\) A1
hence \({k_1}{k_2} \in K\) R1
(ii) K is non-empty because \({e_G}\) belongs to K R1
a closed non-empty subset of a finite group is a subgroup R1AG
[6 marks]
(i) \(f(gk{g^{ – 1}}) = f(g)f(k)f({g^{ – 1}})\) M1
\( = f(g){e_H}f({g^{ – 1}}) = f(g{g^{ – 1}})\) A1
\( = f({e_G}) = {e_H}\) A1
\( \Rightarrow gk{g^{ – 1}} \in K\) AG
(ii) clear definition of both left and right cosets, seen somewhere. A1
use of part (i) to show \(gK \subseteq Kg\) M1
similarly \(Kg \subseteq gK\) A1
hence \(gK = Kg\) AG
[6 marks]
Examiners report
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