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Question 1

Substance L takes the shape of the container that holds it.
What could be the state of matter of substance L?
A. liquid or gas
B. gas or solid
C. solid or liquid
D. solid only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — State the distinguishing properties of solids, liquids and gases; Describe the structures of solids, liquids and gases in terms of particle separation, arrangement and motion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Taking the shape of the container is a key distinguishing property shared by both liquids and gases. Liquids have a fixed volume but take the shape of their container, while gases take both the shape and the volume of their container. Solids, on the other hand, have a fixed shape and volume — they do not conform to the shape of a container because their particles are held in fixed positions in a rigid lattice. Since substance L takes the shape of the container, it must be either a liquid or a gas, making option A the correct answer.

Question 2

The melting points and boiling points of pure substances M, N and O are shown.
 MNO
melting point / °C−114115−101
boiling point / °C78445−34
The substances are chlorine, ethanol and sulfur. Which row identifies M, N and O?
 MNO
Achlorineethanolsulfur
Bethanolsulfurchlorine
Csulfurchlorineethanol
Dsulfurethanolchlorine

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — Describe changes of state in terms of melting, boiling, evaporating, freezing and condensing.
Topic 12.4: Separation and purification — Identify substances and assess their purity using melting point and boiling point information.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Substance N has the highest melting point (115 °C) and boiling point (445 °C) of the three — this matches sulfur, which is a solid at room temperature with very high thermal stability. Substance O has both a melting point and boiling point below 0 °C (m.p. = −101 °C, b.p. = −34 °C), meaning it is a gas at room temperature — this matches chlorine (Cl₂). Substance M has a melting point of −114 °C but a boiling point of 78 °C, meaning it is a liquid at room temperature — this perfectly matches ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH). Therefore, M = ethanol, N = sulfur, O = chlorine, which is option B.

Question 3

Which statement explains why the noble gases are unreactive?
A. They are in the same group of the Periodic Table.
B. They are gases at room temperature.
C. They each have a full outer electron shell.
D. They are found in air.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.5: Noble gases — Describe the Group VIII noble gases as unreactive, monatomic gases and explain this in terms of electronic configuration.
Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — State that Group VIII noble gases have a full outer electron shell.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Chemical reactivity depends on the arrangement of electrons, specifically the outer electron shell. Noble gases have a completely filled outer electron shell (e.g., helium has 2, and the others have 8 outer electrons), which is an extremely stable configuration. Because they have no need to gain, lose, or share electrons to achieve stability, they do not form chemical bonds and are effectively unreactive. Options A, B, and D describe observable characteristics of noble gases but do not explain the underlying reason for their lack of reactivity — only option C addresses the cause.

Question 4

What is the electronic configuration of a P3− ion?
A. 2, 8, 2
B. 2, 8, 5
C. 2, 8, 6
D. 2, 8, 8

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Determine the electronic configuration of elements and their ions with proton number 1 to 20.
Topic 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Describe the formation of negative ions, known as anions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Phosphorus has atomic number 15, so a neutral P atom has 15 electrons arranged as 2, 8, 5. The P3− ion has gained 3 extra electrons (since it carries a 3− charge), giving it a total of 15 + 3 = 18 electrons. These 18 electrons fill the shells as: 2 (first shell) + 8 (second shell) + 8 (third shell) = 2, 8, 8. This is the same electron configuration as argon (a noble gas), which explains why the P3− ion is stable. The correct answer is D.

Question 5

Some information about four metal atoms or ions is shown.
atom or ionchargeproton numbernumber of electronsnucleon number
Q+3 1027
R+212 24
S+2 1026
T 1616 
Which two atoms or ions are from isotopes of the same element?
A. Q and R
B. Q and T
C. R and S
D. S and T

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.3: Isotopes — Define isotopes as different atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons; Interpret and use symbols for atoms and ions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same proton number) but different nucleon numbers. For R: proton number = 12, charge = +2, so it has lost 2 electrons, confirming 10 electrons. For S: charge = +2, electrons = 10, so proton number = 10 + 2 = 12. Both R and S therefore have a proton number of 12 (magnesium), but different nucleon numbers (24 and 26 respectively), making them isotopes of magnesium. Q has a proton number of 10 + 3 = 13 (aluminium), and T has proton number 16 (sulfur) — neither matches the other. The answer is C.

Question 6

Which row describes the changes to the atoms when a metal and a non-metal react together to form an ionic compound?
 metal atomnon-metal atom
Agains electrons to form a cationgains electrons to form an anion
Bgains electrons to form a cationloses electrons to form an anion
Closes electrons to form a cationgains electrons to form a cation
Dloses electrons to form a cationgains electrons to form an anion

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Describe the formation of positive ions (cations) and negative ions (anions); Describe the formation of ionic bonds between elements from Group I and Group VII.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In ionic bonding, metals have few outer-shell electrons which they lose to form positively charged cations (e.g., Na → Na⁺). Non-metals have nearly full outer shells and gain electrons to form negatively charged anions (e.g., Cl + e⁻ → Cl⁻). A cation is a positive ion (formed by losing electrons) and an anion is a negative ion (formed by gaining electrons). Option D correctly states that the metal atom loses electrons to form a cation and the non-metal atom gains electrons to form an anion — this is the fundamental process of ionic bond formation.

Question 7

In the following diagrams, X and Y are atoms of different elements. Which diagram correctly shows the arrangement of outer-shell electrons in a molecule of methane, CH₄?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — Describe the formation of covalent bonds in simple molecules including CH₄; Use dot-and-cross diagrams to show the electronic configurations in these molecules.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Methane (CH₄) consists of one carbon atom (4 outer electrons) covalently bonded to four hydrogen atoms (1 outer electron each). In the dot-and-cross diagram, the central carbon atom shares one pair of electrons with each of the four hydrogen atoms, forming four single covalent C–H bonds. There are no lone pairs on the central carbon atom once all four bonds are formed, as all four of carbon’s outer electrons are used in bonding. The correct diagram (D) shows exactly this: one central X (carbon) surrounded symmetrically by four Y (hydrogen) atoms, each sharing one pair of electrons, with no lone pairs remaining on X.

Question 8

Which pathway describes the properties of graphite?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.6: Giant covalent structures — Describe the giant covalent structures of graphite and diamond; Relate the structures and bonding of graphite to its use as an electrode (conducts electricity due to delocalized electrons).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Graphite is a giant covalent structure in which each carbon atom is bonded to three others via strong covalent bonds, forming layers of hexagonal rings. Each carbon contributes one electron to a delocalized “sea” of electrons that exists between the layers — these mobile electrons allow graphite to conduct electricity even in the solid state, making it unique among non-metals. Following the pathway: graphite is covalently bonded (Yes) and it does conduct electricity when solid (Yes), which leads to option A. This combination of properties is what makes graphite useful as an electrode material.

Question 9

Which row identifies the formula of the named substance?
 nameformula
Acobalt(II) chlorideCuCl₂
BethaneC₂H₆
CheliumHe₂
Diron(III) oxideFe₃O₂

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 3.1: Formulae — State the formulae of the elements and compounds named in the subject content.
Topic 11.4: Alkanes — Know the formula of ethane (C₂H₆).
Topic 8.5: Noble gases — Noble gases are monatomic (He, not He₂).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Option A is wrong: CuCl₂ is copper(II) chloride, not cobalt(II) chloride (which should be CoCl₂). Option C is wrong: helium is a noble gas that exists as single atoms — its formula is He, not He₂ (noble gases are monatomic). Option D is wrong: iron(III) oxide has iron in the +3 state; balancing charges gives Fe₂O₃ (2 × (+3) = 3 × (−2) = 6), not Fe₃O₂. Option B is correct: ethane is the two-carbon alkane with formula C₂H₆, following the general alkane formula CₙH₂ₙ₊₂ with n = 2, giving C₂H₆. The correct answer is B.

Question 10

Antifreeze contains a mixture of water and ethylene glycol.
The diagram shows their displayed formulae.
What is the molecular formula of ethylene glycol?
A. CHO
B. C₂H₆O₂
C. C₂H₆O₃
D. C₆H₁₈O₆

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology — Draw and interpret the displayed formula of a molecule to show all the atoms and all the bonds; Define the molecular formula of a compound.
Topic 3.1: Formulae — Deduce the formula of a simple compound from the relative numbers of atoms present in a diagrammatic representation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

By counting all atoms in the displayed formula HO–CH₂–CH₂–OH: there are 2 carbon atoms (C₂), 4 hydrogen atoms on the two CH₂ groups plus 2 hydrogen atoms on the two OH groups = 6 hydrogen atoms (H₆), and 2 oxygen atoms from the two OH groups (O₂). This gives the molecular formula C₂H₆O₂. Options C and D are incorrect atom counts, and A is simply the empirical formula CHO (which doesn’t match the displayed structure). The correct molecular formula is C₂H₆O₂, option B.

Question 11

The equation for the reaction of magnesium with oxygen is shown.
$$2\text{Mg} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{MgO}$$
In an experiment, 6.0 g of magnesium is reacted with excess oxygen. Which mass of magnesium oxide, MgO, is produced?
A. 10 g
B. 20 g
C. 40 g
D. 80 g

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — Calculate reacting masses in simple proportions.
Topic 3.3: The mole and the Avogadro constant — Use the relationship: amount of substance (mol) = mass (g) / molar mass (g/mol); Calculate stoichiometric reacting masses.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

First, calculate moles of Mg: moles = mass ÷ molar mass = 6.0 g ÷ 24 g/mol = 0.25 mol. From the balanced equation, 2 mol Mg produces 2 mol MgO, so the molar ratio is 1:1, meaning 0.25 mol Mg produces 0.25 mol MgO. The molar mass of MgO = 24 + 16 = 40 g/mol. Therefore, mass of MgO = 0.25 mol × 40 g/mol = 10 g. The correct answer is A.

Question 12

Which products are formed when dilute sulfuric acid undergoes electrolysis?
 product formed at the anodeproduct formed at the cathode
Aoxygenhydrogen
Bhydrogenoxygen
Csulfur dioxidehydrogen
Doxygensulfur dioxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.1: Electrolysis — Identify the products formed at the electrodes and describe the observations made during the electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid using inert electrodes; State that metals or hydrogen are formed at the cathode and non-metals (other than hydrogen) are formed at the anode.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

In the electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid using inert electrodes, two types of ions are present in solution: H⁺ ions, SO₄²⁻ ions, and water molecules. At the cathode (negative electrode), H⁺ ions are reduced: 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂, producing hydrogen gas. At the anode (positive electrode), water molecules are preferentially oxidized over SO₄²⁻ ions: 2H₂O → O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻, producing oxygen gas. Sulfate ions remain in solution as they require more energy to discharge. Therefore oxygen forms at the anode and hydrogen at the cathode — option A.

Question 13

The diagram shows an experiment to electroplate a nickel spoon with silver.
Which row correctly describes the positive electrode, the negative electrode, and the electrolyte?
 positive electrodenegative electrodeelectrolyte
Anickel spoonpure nickelsilver nitrate solution
Bnickel spoonpure silvernickel nitrate solution
Cpure nickelnickel spoonsilver nitrate solution
Dpure silvernickel spoonsilver nitrate solution

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.1: Electrolysis — State that metal objects are electroplated to improve their appearance and resistance to corrosion; Describe how metals are electroplated.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

For electroplating, three key rules apply: (1) The object to be plated (the nickel spoon) must always be the negative electrode (cathode), so that positive silver ions from solution are attracted to it and deposited as a silver coating. (2) The positive electrode (anode) must be made of the plating metal (pure silver), which dissolves to replenish Ag⁺ ions in solution. (3) The electrolyte must contain ions of the plating metal — silver nitrate solution provides Ag⁺ ions. Only option D correctly follows all three rules: anode = pure silver, cathode = nickel spoon, electrolyte = silver nitrate solution.

Question 14

When dilute sulfuric acid reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide, the temperature of the solution increases. Which words describe this reaction?
A. endothermic and neutralisation
B. endothermic and redox
C. exothermic and neutralisation
D. exothermic and redox

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — State that an exothermic reaction transfers thermal energy to the surroundings leading to an increase in temperature.
Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe the neutralisation reaction between an acid and an alkali: H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) → H₂O(l).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The reaction between sulfuric acid and sodium hydroxide is a classic neutralisation reaction: H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O. The net ionic equation is H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) → H₂O(l). Since the temperature of the solution increases, thermal energy is being released to the surroundings — this defines an exothermic reaction. It is not a redox reaction because no oxidation numbers change: Na stays +1, S stays +6, H stays +1, and O stays −2 throughout. Therefore the reaction is correctly described as exothermic and neutralisation — option C.

Question 15

Which statement is correct for both physical and chemical changes?
A. Covalent bonds are broken and formed during the changes.
B. The total mass of substance is the same before and after the changes.
C. The changes are usually reversible.
D. The temperature always rises or falls during the changes.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.1: Physical and chemical changes — Identify physical and chemical changes, and describe the differences between them.
Topic 3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — Conservation of mass applies to all chemical and physical changes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Option A is false: breaking and forming covalent bonds is characteristic of chemical changes only; physical changes (such as melting or dissolving) do not involve breaking chemical bonds. Option C is false: physical changes are often reversible, but many chemical changes (e.g. combustion) are not, so this cannot apply to both. Option D is false: temperature changes are not guaranteed in either type of change. Option B is true for both: the Law of Conservation of Mass states that the total mass of reactants always equals the total mass of products, and this holds for both physical and chemical changes alike.

Question 16

A sample of calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a final volume of 60 cm³ of gas. The reaction finishes after 120 seconds. The experiment is repeated at a lower temperature. All other conditions stay the same. Which row shows the results of the second experiment?
 final volume of gas produced / cm³time for reaction to finish / s
A40120
B40160
C60120
D60160

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe the effect on the rate of reaction of changing the temperature; Interpret data from rate of reaction experiments.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Lowering the temperature decreases the rate of reaction because particles have less kinetic energy, so collisions are less frequent and fewer have sufficient energy to overcome the activation energy barrier. However, the amounts of reactants used are identical to the first experiment, so the same total amount of CO₂ will eventually be produced — the final volume remains 60 cm³. The reaction simply takes longer to complete at the lower temperature, giving a time greater than 120 seconds (here, 160 seconds). The final volume stays the same (60 cm³) but the time increases — option D.

Question 17

In which equation is the iron oxidised?
A. $\text{C} + \text{FeO} \rightarrow \text{CO} + \text{Fe}$
B. $3\text{CO} + \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 \rightarrow 3\text{CO}_2 + 2\text{Fe}$
C. $\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{H}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{FeO} + \text{H}_2\text{O}$
D. $\text{PbO} + \text{Fe} \rightarrow \text{Pb} + \text{FeO}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.4: Redox — Define oxidation as gain of oxygen and reduction as loss of oxygen; Identify oxidation and reduction in redox reactions; Use oxidation numbers to identify changes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Oxidation means gaining oxygen (or losing electrons / increasing oxidation number). In option A, iron goes from +2 (in FeO) to 0 (Fe) — this is reduction. In option B, iron goes from +3 (in Fe₂O₃) to 0 (Fe) — again reduction. In option C, iron goes from +3 (in Fe₂O₃) to +2 (in FeO) — partial reduction. In option D, iron starts as elemental Fe (oxidation number 0) and ends as FeO (oxidation number +2) — iron has gained oxygen and its oxidation number has increased, so iron is oxidised. The answer is D.

Question 18

HOCl is an acid. NH₄OH is an alkali. Which row shows the ions present in aqueous solutions that identify the acid and the alkali?
 HOCl(aq)NH₄OH(aq)
AH⁺H⁺
BH⁺OH⁻
COH⁻H⁺
DOH⁻OH⁻

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — State that aqueous solutions of acids contain H⁺ ions and aqueous solutions of alkalis contain OH⁻ ions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

By definition, an acid produces H⁺ ions in aqueous solution, and an alkali produces OH⁻ ions. HOCl (hypochlorous acid) is an acid, so it dissociates in water to release H⁺ ions. NH₄OH (ammonium hydroxide) is an alkali — it ionises in water to produce OH⁻ ions. Therefore the characteristic ion from the acid HOCl is H⁺, and the characteristic ion from the alkali NH₄OH is OH⁻, which corresponds directly to row B.

Question 19

Which elements form an oxide that reacts with water to produce a solution that turns thymolphthalein blue?
1. calcium    2. carbon    3. sulfur
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.2: Oxides — Classify oxides as acidic (CO₂, SO₂) or basic (CuO, CaO) related to metallic and non-metallic character.
Topic 7.1: Characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe alkalis in terms of their effect on thymolphthalein (turns blue in alkaline conditions).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Thymolphthalein turns blue only in alkaline solutions (pH above approximately 9.3). Calcium oxide (CaO) is a basic oxide; it reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide: CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂, which is a strong alkali — this solution turns thymolphthalein blue. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves in water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which is acidic, so thymolphthalein remains colourless. Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) dissolves in water to form sulfurous acid (H₂SO₃), also acidic — again no colour change. Therefore only calcium (element 1) satisfies the condition, making option B correct.

Question 20

A sample of fertiliser is tested by warming it with aqueous sodium hydroxide. A colourless gas is produced which turns damp red litmus paper blue. Which element, essential for plant growth, must be present?
A. nitrogen
B. phosphorus
C. potassium
D. sulfur

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.5: Identification of ions and gases — Describe tests to identify the gas ammonia (turns damp red litmus paper blue); Describe tests using aqueous sodium hydroxide to identify the ammonium ion NH₄⁺.
Topic 10.2: Fertilisers — State that ammonium salts and nitrates are used as fertilisers; Describe the use of NPK fertilisers to provide nitrogen for improved plant growth.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The test described — warming with NaOH and observing a colourless gas that turns damp red litmus paper blue — is the standard test for ammonium ions (NH₄⁺). The reaction is: NH₄⁺ + OH⁻ → NH₃(g) + H₂O. Ammonia gas (NH₃) is the alkaline gas responsible for turning damp red litmus paper blue. Ammonium-containing fertilisers (such as ammonium nitrate or ammonium sulfate) are nitrogen-based compounds used to supply nitrogen to plants. Phosphorus, potassium, and sulfur do not produce ammonia gas under this test. Therefore nitrogen must be present — option A.

Question 21

Insoluble solid magnesium carbonate reacts with dilute sulfuric acid. The equation is shown:
magnesium carbonate + sulfuric acid → magnesium sulfate + water + carbon dioxide
The steps used to make crystals of magnesium sulfate are listed.
Step 1 — Add excess magnesium carbonate to dilute sulfuric acid and stir the mixture.
Step 2 — Filter the mixture.
Step 3 — Heat the filtrate to the point of crystallisation.
Step 4 — Leave the filtrate to cool.
What is the residue removed from the mixture in step 2?
A. magnesium carbonate
B. sulfuric acid
C. magnesium sulfate
D. water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the preparation, separation and purification of soluble salts by reaction of an acid with excess insoluble base.
Topic 12.4: Separation and purification — Describe and explain methods of separation using filtration.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Excess magnesium carbonate is added in step 1 to ensure all the sulfuric acid reacts completely — this guarantees no acid remains in the final product. Since MgCO₃ is insoluble and is added in excess, some unreacted solid remains after the reaction. When the mixture is filtered in step 2, the insoluble excess magnesium carbonate is collected as the residue on the filter paper. The magnesium sulfate product is soluble and passes through the filter paper into the filtrate, along with water. Options B, C, and D are all soluble or liquid and would pass through the filter — only unreacted MgCO₃ forms the solid residue.

Question 22

Which trend occurs across the period from sodium to argon?
A. a change from metal to non-metal
B. an increase in melting point
C. a more violent reaction with water
D. an increase in electrical conductivity

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.1: Arrangement of elements — Describe the change from metallic to non-metallic character across a period; Explain how the position of an element in the Periodic Table can be used to predict its properties.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Across Period 3 from sodium (Na) to argon (Ar), there is a clear and consistent change in character from metals (Na, Mg, Al) through silicon (a metalloid/semi-metal) to non-metals (P, S, Cl) and finally to the noble gas argon. Option B is incorrect because melting points initially increase then decrease across the period (Si has the highest). Option C is wrong because sodium reacts most violently with water — reactivity with water decreases moving right across the period (most elements from Al onwards do not react with water at all). Option D is incorrect because electrical conductivity decreases across the period from metals to non-metals. The only consistently correct trend is A.

Question 23

Which statement about the element bromine is correct?
A. It displaces chlorine from aqueous potassium chloride.
B. It has a higher density than chlorine.
C. It is a diatomic metal.
D. It is a green gas at room temperature.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.3: Group VII properties — Describe Group VII halogens with general trends down the group including increasing density and decreasing reactivity; State the appearance of the halogens at r.t.p. (bromine is a red-brown liquid); Describe and explain the displacement reactions of halogens with other halide ions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

As you go down Group VII, density increases — bromine (below chlorine in the group) is therefore denser than chlorine, making option B correct. Option A is false: displacement reactions require a more reactive halogen to displace a less reactive one; since chlorine is more reactive than bromine, bromine cannot displace chlorine from potassium chloride solution. Option C is false: bromine is indeed diatomic (Br₂), but it is a non-metal, not a metal. Option D is false: at room temperature bromine is a red-brown liquid, not a green gas (chlorine is the pale yellow-green gas). Therefore only B is correct.

Question 24

Metallic element X has a high density. Which part of the Periodic Table is X in?
A. Group I
B. halogens
C. transition elements
D. Group VIII

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.4: Transition elements — Describe the transition elements as metals that have high densities and high melting points.
Topic 9.1: Properties of metals — Compare the general physical properties of metals including density.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The question states element X is metallic and has a high density. Group I metals (Li, Na, K) are actually among the least dense metals — sodium and potassium are less dense than water. Halogens (Group VII) are non-metals. Group VIII (noble gases) are non-metals with very low densities as gases. The transition elements (e.g. iron, copper, nickel, gold, platinum), however, are well known for being hard, dense metals with high melting points — these properties are characteristic of the d-block metals. Element X must therefore be a transition element, making C the correct answer.

Question 25

Which statement about the uses of metals is correct?
A. Aluminium has a low density and good electrical conductivity which make it suitable for overhead electrical cables.
B. Aluminium food containers can only be used for a short time because chemicals in the food react with the aluminium.
C. Electrical wiring made from copper is covered with plastic because copper corrodes easily.
D. Copper is used in the manufacture of aircraft because it has a low density and is not malleable.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.2: Uses of metals — Describe the uses of metals in terms of their physical properties, including aluminium in overhead electrical cables (low density and good electrical conductivity) and copper in electrical wiring (good electrical conductivity and ductility); aluminium in food containers (resistance to corrosion).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Option A is correct: aluminium’s low density (making cables lightweight) combined with its good electrical conductivity make it ideal for overhead power cables where minimising weight is critical. Option B is wrong: aluminium naturally forms a thin, protective oxide layer (Al₂O₃) on its surface that prevents further reaction — this is why aluminium is widely used for food packaging and can last indefinitely. Option C is wrong: copper wiring is insulated with plastic for electrical safety (to prevent electrocution and short circuits), not because copper corrodes easily — copper is actually very resistant to corrosion. Option D is wrong: it is aluminium, not copper, that is used in aircraft manufacture because of its low density; also copper is very malleable.

Question 26

Steel bridges are painted to help stop rust from forming on their surfaces. What causes steel to rust?
A. water, oxygen and sunlight
B. water and oxygen only
C. water and sunlight only
D. oxygen and sunlight only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.5: Corrosion of metals — State the conditions required for the rusting of iron and steel to form hydrated iron(III) oxide (water and oxygen are both required); Describe how barrier methods prevent rusting by excluding oxygen or water.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Rusting is an electrochemical oxidation process in which iron reacts with oxygen dissolved in water to form hydrated iron(III) oxide (rust), which has the approximate formula Fe₂O₃·nH₂O. Classic experiments (using boiled water with oil on top to exclude O₂, and dry air with a desiccant to exclude water) have confirmed that both water and oxygen must be present simultaneously for rusting to occur — neither alone is sufficient. Sunlight provides no chemical role in the rusting process itself. Painting the bridge acts as a barrier that excludes both water and oxygen from reaching the iron surface. The correct answer is B.

Question 27

Which two metals are mixed together to make brass?
1. tin    2. zinc    3. nickel    4. copper
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.3: Alloys and their properties — Describe an alloy as a mixture of a metal with other elements, including brass as a mixture of copper and zinc.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Brass is an alloy composed of copper (element 4) and zinc (element 2). This combination gives brass its characteristic gold-like yellow appearance, good malleability, low friction properties, and resistance to corrosion. The other alloy commonly confused with brass is bronze, which consists of copper and tin (elements 4 and 1). Stainless steel contains iron with chromium, nickel (element 3), and carbon — not copper or zinc. Knowing the specific compositions of named alloys is a syllabus requirement. The correct pair is copper and zinc — option D (2 and 4).

Question 28

Metal M is between zinc and iron in the reactivity series. Which statements about metal M are correct?
1. It reacts with cold water to produce hydrogen gas.
2. It does not react with cold water but will react with dilute hydrochloric acid.
3. The metal can be obtained from its oxide by heating it strongly with carbon.
4. The metal oxide cannot be reduced using carbon.
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.4: Reactivity series — State the order of the reactivity series; Describe the reactions of metals with dilute acids; Describe the ease of obtaining metals from their ores related to the position of the metal in the reactivity series.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The reactivity series order includes: …zinc, iron, hydrogen, copper… Metal M sits between zinc and iron, so it is less reactive than zinc but more reactive than iron. Metals in this region of the series do not react with cold water (statement 1 is false — only metals above magnesium react with cold water), but do react with dilute acids to produce hydrogen (statement 2 is correct). Carbon appears above zinc in the reactivity series, meaning carbon can reduce the oxides of metals below it (zinc, iron, and M) — so statement 3 is correct and statement 4 is false. The correct statements are 2 and 3 — option C.

Question 29

What is the colour change when water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate?
A. blue to white
B. blue to pink
C. pink to blue
D. white to blue

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.1: Water — Describe chemical tests for the presence of water using anhydrous copper(II) sulfate.
Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Define a hydrated substance; Define water of crystallisation (including CuSO₄·5H₂O).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate (CuSO₄) is a white powder because it contains no water of crystallisation. When water is added, it reacts with the anhydrous salt to form the hydrated form, copper(II) sulfate pentahydrate (CuSO₄·5H₂O), which is characteristically blue: CuSO₄(white) + 5H₂O → CuSO₄·5H₂O(blue). This colour change from white to blue is the standard chemical test for the presence of water. The reverse reaction (heating the blue hydrated salt) removes the water of crystallisation and returns the white anhydrous form. Option D (white to blue) is correct.

Question 30

Which statement about the composition of clean, dry air is correct?
A. It contains 78% oxygen.
B. It contains 21% nitrogen.
C. It contains less than 1% argon.
D. It contains 4% carbon dioxide.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.3: State the composition of clean, dry air as approximately 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and the remainder as a mixture of noble gases and carbon dioxide.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Clean, dry air is approximately 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen by volume — so options A and B have the percentages swapped and are therefore incorrect. Carbon dioxide makes up only about 0.04% of the atmosphere (not 4%), ruling out option D. Argon, the most abundant noble gas in air, accounts for roughly 0.93%, which is indeed less than 1%, making option C the only correct statement.

Question 31

Which row identifies a source and an adverse effect of methane?
 sourceadverse effect
A.car enginesacid rain
B.car enginesclimate change
C.decomposition of vegetationacid rain
D.decomposition of vegetationclimate change

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.3: State that methane comes from the decomposition of vegetation and waste gases from digestion in animals; its adverse effect is increased global warming leading to climate change.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Methane is produced naturally from the decomposition of vegetation in waterlogged conditions and from digestive processes in animals, not from car engines (those produce oxides of nitrogen). As a potent greenhouse gas, methane traps heat in the atmosphere, contributing to global warming and climate change — it does not cause acid rain (that is caused by sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen). Option D correctly pairs both the source and the adverse effect.

Question 32

Which statements about alkenes are correct?
  1. Propene is a saturated hydrocarbon.
  2. Ethene is made by heating long-chain alkanes to a high temperature in the presence of a catalyst.
  3. Hexene reacts with aqueous bromine, changing its colour from colourless to orange.
  4. Ethene, propene and butene have the same general formula.
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.5: State that alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons; describe their manufacture by cracking; describe the test to distinguish saturated from unsaturated hydrocarbons using bromine water.
Topic 11.1: Write and interpret general formulae of alkenes, C$_n$H$_{2n}$.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Statement 1 is false — propene contains a C=C double bond, making it unsaturated, not saturated. Statement 2 is correct: ethene is produced by cracking larger alkane molecules using high temperature and a catalyst. Statement 3 is false: aqueous bromine is initially orange/brown and decolorises (turns colourless) when it reacts with alkenes — the colour change is from orange to colourless, not the reverse. Statement 4 is correct: ethene, propene, and butene all belong to the alkene homologous series sharing the general formula C$_n$H$_{2n}$. Therefore, only statements 2 and 4 are correct.

Question 33

The table shows the formulae and names of some organic compounds.
 formulaname
1CH₃Clchloroethane
2CH₃COOHethanoic acid
3BrCH₂CH₂Br1,2-dibromoethane
4(CH₃COO)₂Cacalcium methanoate
Which rows give the correct name for the formula shown?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.2: State the type of compound present, given a chemical name or displayed formula.
Topic 11.7: Describe the reaction of ethanoic acid (and know its formula CH₃COOH).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Row 1: CH₃Cl has only one carbon atom, so it is chloromethane, not chloroethane — this is incorrect. Row 2: CH₃COOH is correctly named ethanoic acid — correct. Row 3: BrCH₂CH₂Br has two carbon atoms each bearing one bromine, making it 1,2-dibromoethane — correct. Row 4: The CH₃COO⁻ ion is the ethanoate ion (not methanoate), so (CH₃COO)₂Ca is calcium ethanoate, not calcium methanoate — this is incorrect. Therefore only rows 2 and 3 are correctly named.

Question 34

Which gas is the main constituent of natural gas?
A. hydrogen
B. nitrogen
C. methane
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.3: Name methane as the main constituent of natural gas.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Natural gas is a fossil fuel found underground, and it consists predominantly of methane (CH₄), typically around 70–90% by volume. Hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen are not significant components of natural gas. Methane is a simple hydrocarbon with one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms, and it burns cleanly to produce carbon dioxide and water, making it a widely used fuel for heating and cooking.

Question 35

A sample of petroleum is separated into three fractions, X, Y and Z, using fractional distillation. Some properties of X, Y and Z are listed.
  • X is more viscous than Z.
  • Y has a higher boiling point than X.
Which fraction has the longest carbon chain and which fraction is the most volatile?
 longest carbon chainmost volatile
A.YX
B.YZ
C.ZX
D.ZY

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.3: Describe the separation of petroleum by fractional distillation and how properties change from the bottom to the top of the column (decreasing chain length, higher volatility, lower boiling points, lower viscosity).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Longer carbon chains produce higher viscosity and higher boiling points. Since X is more viscous than Z, X has a longer carbon chain than Z. Since Y has a higher boiling point than X, Y has an even longer carbon chain than X. This gives the order Y > X > Z by chain length. Therefore Y has the longest carbon chain. Volatility decreases as chain length increases, so the shortest chains (Z) are the most volatile. Option B correctly identifies Y as having the longest chain and Z as the most volatile.

Question 36

Two salt solutions, P and Q, are tested. The table shows the results.
testPQ
a few drops of aqueous sodium hydroxide are addedgreen precipitate formsred-brown precipitate forms
a few drops of dilute nitric acid and a few drops of barium nitrate are addedno change seenwhite precipitate forms
a few drops of dilute nitric acid and a few drops of silver nitrate are addedwhite precipitate formsno change seen
What are P and Q?
 PQ
A.iron(II) chlorideiron(III) sulfate
B.iron(III) chlorideiron(III) sulfate
C.iron(II) sulfateiron(III) chloride
D.iron(III) sulfateiron(III) chloride

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.5: Describe tests to identify anions (chloride — white ppt with AgNO₃; sulfate — white ppt with Ba(NO₃)₂) and cations (Fe²⁺ — green ppt with NaOH; Fe³⁺ — red-brown ppt with NaOH).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

For solution P: the green precipitate with NaOH identifies Fe²⁺ ions, and the white precipitate with acidified silver nitrate identifies Cl⁻ ions — so P is iron(II) chloride, FeCl₂. For solution Q: the red-brown precipitate with NaOH identifies Fe³⁺ ions, and the white precipitate with acidified barium nitrate identifies SO₄²⁻ ions — so Q is iron(III) sulfate, Fe₂(SO₄)₃. Option A correctly identifies both salts.

Question 37

A small quantity of a solid, E, is added to a large excess of aqueous ethanoic acid.
No bubbles of gas are seen and the solid dissolves to give a colourless solution.
What is solid E?
A. calcium hydroxide
B. copper(II) oxide
C. magnesium
D. sodium carbonate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.7: Describe the reaction of ethanoic acid with metals, bases, and carbonates, including names of the salts produced.
Topic 7.1: Describe the characteristic properties of bases in terms of their reactions with acids.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

We need a solid that dissolves in ethanoic acid with no gas produced and gives a colourless solution. Magnesium (C) would produce hydrogen gas, and sodium carbonate (D) would produce carbon dioxide gas — both ruled out by “no bubbles.” Copper(II) oxide (B) would give a blue solution of copper(II) ethanoate, not colourless — ruled out. Calcium hydroxide (A) reacts with ethanoic acid in a neutralisation reaction: Ca(OH)₂ + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Ca + 2H₂O, producing calcium ethanoate (a soluble, colourless salt) and water, with no gas. This matches all observations perfectly.

Question 38

Ethanol is manufactured by two different processes.
Which raw materials are used by the two processes to make ethanol?
  1. glucose
  2. ethane
  3. ethene
  4. steam
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.6: Describe the manufacture of ethanol by (a) fermentation of aqueous glucose at 25–35 °C in the presence of yeast, and (b) catalytic addition of steam to ethene at 300 °C and 6000 kPa in the presence of an acid catalyst.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Ethanol is made by two industrial processes. The first is fermentation: glucose [1] is converted to ethanol and carbon dioxide by yeast. The second is catalytic hydration: ethene [3] reacts with steam [4] in the presence of an acid catalyst at high temperature and pressure to produce ethanol directly. Ethane [2] is not a raw material for either process. Therefore, the raw materials across both processes are glucose, ethene, and steam — option B.

Question 39

What is used to test for chlorine?
A. a glowing splint
B. damp litmus paper
C. limewater
D. aqueous potassium manganate(VII)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.5: Describe the test for chlorine, Cl₂, using damp litmus paper (bleaches it).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Chlorine is identified using damp litmus paper, which it bleaches (turns white) due to the formation of chloric(I) acid when chlorine reacts with water. A glowing splint is used to test for oxygen (relights the splint). Limewater is used to test for carbon dioxide (turns milky). Acidified aqueous potassium manganate(VII) is used to test for sulfur dioxide (decolorises from purple to colourless). Therefore, damp litmus paper is the correct reagent for testing chlorine.

Question 40

Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?
A. It can show if a substance is pure.
B. It can separate a mixture of insoluble substances.
C. It can separate a compound into its elements.
D. It provides a way of combining substances to make new coloured compounds.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.3: Describe how paper chromatography is used to separate mixtures of soluble coloured substances; interpret chromatograms to identify pure and impure substances.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Paper chromatography works by separating soluble substances based on how strongly they are attracted to the stationary phase (paper) versus the mobile phase (solvent), so it cannot separate insoluble substances (ruling out B). It is a physical separation technique and cannot break chemical bonds to separate a compound into its elements (ruling out C). It separates rather than combines substances (ruling out D). A pure substance produces only a single spot on a chromatogram, while a mixture produces multiple spots — so chromatography can indeed be used to determine whether a substance is pure, making A correct.

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