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Question 1

The diagram shows the result of dropping a purple crystal into water.

Which processes take place in this experiment?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.2: Diffusion — Describe and explain diffusion in terms of kinetic particle theory (Core); Describe and explain the effect of relative molecular mass on the rate of diffusion of gases (Supplement)
Topic 12.1: Experimental design — Describe a solvent as a substance that dissolves a solute, a solute as a substance that is dissolved in a solvent, and a solution as a mixture of one or more solutes dissolved in a solvent (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When a purple crystal (such as potassium manganate(VII)) is dropped into water, two processes occur simultaneously: first, the crystal dissolves in the water as the water molecules interact with and break apart the ionic lattice, releasing coloured ions into solution — this is dissolution. Second, once the ions are free in solution, they spread out from the region of high concentration (near the crystal) to regions of lower concentration throughout the water — this is diffusion, explained by kinetic particle theory as the random movement of particles. Both dissolution and diffusion are therefore taking place, and no chemical reaction occurs since the process is entirely physical. This combination of dissolving followed by diffusion of the coloured ions accounts for the spreading purple colour observed in the diagram.
Answer: D

Question 2

Which row about elements, mixtures and compounds is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — Describe the differences between elements, compounds and mixtures (Core)
Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Describe the structure of the atom as a central nucleus containing neutrons and protons surrounded by electrons in shells; define proton number/atomic number as the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An element consists of only one type of atom (identified by its proton number), and it cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means. A compound contains two or more different elements chemically bonded together in fixed proportions, and its properties differ from those of its constituent elements; it can only be separated by chemical reactions. A mixture, by contrast, contains two or more substances that are not chemically combined — the components retain their individual properties and can be separated by physical means such as filtration, distillation or chromatography. Row C correctly reflects all three of these definitions without contradiction, making it the only fully accurate row in the table.
Answer: C

Question 3

What are the relative charge and relative mass of an electron?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — State the relative charges and relative masses of a proton, a neutron and an electron (Core)
Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Describe the structure of the atom as a central nucleus containing neutrons and protons surrounded by electrons in shells (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An electron carries a relative charge of –1, equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to that of a proton (+1), which is why atoms are electrically neutral when the number of protons equals the number of electrons. The relative mass of an electron is approximately 1/1840 of that of a proton or neutron, which is so negligibly small that it is considered to be effectively zero (or 1/2000) for most calculations at this level. Protons and neutrons each have a relative mass of 1 and are located in the nucleus, while electrons occupy shells surrounding the nucleus and contribute virtually nothing to the overall mass of the atom. Therefore, the correct answer assigns a relative charge of –1 and a relative mass of 0 (or negligible) to the electron.
Answer: D

Question 4

The atomic structures of four particles, W, X, Y and Z, are shown.

Which particles are isotopes of the same element?
A. W and X
B. W and Y
C. X and Y
D. X and Z

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.3: Isotopes — Define isotopes as different atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons (Core)
Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Define proton number/atomic number as the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom; define mass number/nucleon number as the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes are defined as atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons (same atomic number) but different numbers of neutrons (different mass numbers); the number of protons determines which element an atom belongs to. To identify isotopes, you must look for two particles with identical proton numbers but differing neutron counts — any difference in proton number means the particles belong to entirely different elements and cannot be isotopes. From the diagram, particles W and Y have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, satisfying the definition of isotopes exactly, while the other pairs either differ in proton number or have identical nucleon compositions. Therefore, W and Y are isotopes of the same element.
Answer: B

Question 5

Which row shows the properties of an ionic compound?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Describe the properties of ionic compounds: high melting points and boiling points; good electrical conductivity when aqueous or molten and poor when solid (Core)
Topic 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Explain in terms of structure and bonding the properties of ionic compounds: high melting points and boiling points due to strong electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions; good electrical conductivity when aqueous or molten because ions are free to move, and poor when solid because ions are held in fixed positions in the giant lattice (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ionic compounds are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions arranged in a giant ionic lattice, which requires a large amount of energy to overcome — this gives them characteristically high melting points. When solid, the ions are fixed in their lattice positions and cannot move freely, so ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in the solid state; however, when melted or dissolved in water, the ions become free to move and carry charge, making them good electrical conductors in the molten or aqueous state. Any row suggesting low melting points or conductivity in the solid state would be incorrect. Row D correctly combines a high melting point with poor electrical conductivity when solid and good conductivity when molten or in solution.
Answer: D

Question 6

Which row describes the formation of single covalent bonds in methane?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — State that a covalent bond is formed when a pair of electrons is shared between two atoms leading to noble gas electronic configurations; describe the formation of covalent bonds in simple molecules including CH4, using dot-and-cross diagrams (Core)
Topic 2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — Describe in terms of structure and bonding the properties of simple molecular compounds: low melting points and boiling points; poor electrical conductivity (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Methane (CH4) is formed when one carbon atom shares electrons with four hydrogen atoms through single covalent bonds. Carbon has 4 electrons in its outer shell and needs 4 more to achieve a full outer shell of 8 (noble gas configuration), while each hydrogen atom has 1 electron and needs 1 more to achieve a full outer shell of 2; by sharing one pair of electrons in each of the four C–H bonds, both carbon and all four hydrogen atoms simultaneously achieve stable noble gas electronic configurations. Each single covalent bond therefore consists of exactly one shared pair of electrons — giving carbon 4 bonds and each hydrogen 1 bond. Row A correctly identifies that 4 single covalent bonds are formed, each consisting of one shared pair of electrons, with the carbon atom achieving a full outer shell of 8 electrons.
Answer: A

Question 7

Which equation represents the neutralisation of nitric acid using sodium hydroxide?

A. NaOH(aq) + HNO3(aq) → NaNO3(aq) + H2O(l)

B. NaOH(aq) + HNO3(aq) → NaNO3(l) + H2O(l)

C. NaOH(l) + HNO3(l) → NaNO3(l) + H2O(aq)

D. NaOH(l) + HNO3(l) → NaNO3(l) + H2O(l)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe the neutralisation reaction between an acid and an alkali to produce water, H+(aq) + OH(aq) → H2O(l) (Core)
Topic 3.1: Formulae — Construct word equations and symbol equations to show how reactants form products, including state symbols (Core)
Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the preparation, separation and purification of soluble salts by reaction of an acid with an alkali by titration (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a neutralisation reaction between sodium hydroxide and nitric acid, both reactants are used as aqueous solutions in the laboratory, so their state symbols must be (aq) — options C and D are immediately eliminated because they incorrectly show both reactants as liquids (l), which would imply pure molten substances rather than aqueous solutions. The product sodium nitrate (NaNO3) is a soluble salt that remains dissolved in the aqueous solution at room temperature, so its correct state symbol is (aq), not (l) — this eliminates option B which incorrectly assigns (l) to NaNO3. Water produced in the reaction is in the liquid state (l), and option A correctly assigns all state symbols, making it the only fully accurate equation.
Answer: A

Question 8

What is the relative formula mass of ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3?

A. 80
B. 108
C. 122
D. 150

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — Define relative molecular mass, Mr, as the sum of the relative atomic masses; relative formula mass, Mr, will be used for ionic compounds (Core)
Topic 3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — Describe relative atomic mass, Ar, as the average mass of the isotopes of an element compared to 1/12th of the mass of an atom of 12C (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The relative formula mass is calculated by summing the relative atomic masses of all atoms present in the formula NH4NO3. Using standard relative atomic masses — N = 14, H = 1, O = 16 — the calculation is as follows: there are 2 nitrogen atoms (2 × 14 = 28), 4 hydrogen atoms (4 × 1 = 4), and 3 oxygen atoms (3 × 16 = 48), giving a total of 28 + 4 + 48 = 80. Options B, C and D are all incorrect as they result from either using wrong atomic masses or miscounting the number of atoms of each element in the formula. Therefore, the relative formula mass of ammonium nitrate is 80.
Answer: A

Question 9

Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes.
Gases X and Y are produced at the electrodes shown.

What are X and Y?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.1: Electrolysis — Identify the products formed at the electrodes and describe the observations made during the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride using inert electrodes; state that metals or hydrogen are formed at the cathode and that non-metals (other than hydrogen) are formed at the anode (Core)
Topic 4.1: Electrolysis — Identify in simple electrolytic cells the anode as the positive electrode and the cathode as the negative electrode (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride, the solution contains Na+, Cl, H+ and OH ions. At the cathode (negative electrode), hydrogen gas is preferentially discharged as H+ ions are attracted to the negative electrode and gain electrons (2H+ + 2e → H2); sodium ions are not discharged because sodium is too reactive. At the anode (positive electrode), chloride ions are preferentially discharged in concentrated solution to produce chlorine gas (2Cl → Cl2 + 2e), rather than OH ions which would be preferentially discharged in dilute solution. Therefore, gas X produced at the anode is chlorine and gas Y produced at the cathode is hydrogen.
Answer: B

Question 10

Which statement about hydrogen fuel cells is correct?

A. Hydrogen fuel cells do not produce carbon dioxide.
B. Hydrogen fuel cells do not need oxygen.
C. The waste from a hydrogen fuel cell is an acidic gas.
D. The reaction in a fuel cell is endothermic.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.2: Hydrogen–oxygen fuel cells — State that a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell uses hydrogen and oxygen to produce electricity with water as the only chemical product (Core)
Topic 4.2: Hydrogen–oxygen fuel cells — Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using hydrogen–oxygen fuel cells in comparison with gasoline/petrol engines in vehicles (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell operates by combining hydrogen and oxygen to generate electricity, with water (H2O) as the only chemical product — since no carbon-containing fuel is burned, no carbon dioxide is produced at all, making option A correct and one of the key environmental advantages of fuel cells over petrol engines. Option B is incorrect because oxygen is an essential reactant in the fuel cell; without it, the electrochemical reaction cannot take place. Option C is incorrect because the only waste product is water, which is neither acidic nor a gas under normal operating conditions. Option D is incorrect because the overall reaction (hydrogen + oxygen → water) is exothermic, releasing energy that is converted into electrical energy.
Answer: A

Question 11

A reaction pathway diagram is shown.

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A. The reaction rate increases during the reaction.
B. The reaction is endothermic.
C. The reaction transfers thermal energy to the surroundings.
D. The temperature of the surroundings increases.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — State that an endothermic reaction takes in thermal energy from the surroundings leading to a decrease in the temperature of the surroundings; interpret reaction pathway diagrams showing exothermic and endothermic reactions (Core)
Topic 5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — State that the transfer of thermal energy during a reaction is called the enthalpy change, ΔH; ΔH is negative for exothermic reactions and positive for endothermic reactions; draw and label reaction pathway diagrams for exothermic and endothermic reactions (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a reaction pathway diagram, the relative energy levels of the reactants and products determine whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. When the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants, the reaction requires a net input of thermal energy from the surroundings — this is the definition of an endothermic reaction, and the enthalpy change ΔH is positive. Options C and D describe exothermic behaviour (energy released to surroundings, temperature of surroundings increases), which would only apply if the products were at a lower energy level than the reactants. Option A is unrelated to the reaction pathway diagram, as reaction rate is not shown or implied by energy level diagrams. Since the diagram shows products higher in energy than reactants, the reaction is endothermic, making option B correct.
Answer: B

Question 12

Lumps of calcium carbonate react with dilute hydrochloric acid as shown.

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

Which change in conditions decreases the rate of the reaction?

A. increasing the concentration of the acid
B. increasing the volume of the acid
C. increasing the size of the lumps of calcium carbonate
D. increasing the temperature

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe the effect on the rate of reaction of changing the concentration of solutions, changing the surface area of solids, changing the temperature, and adding or removing a catalyst (Core)
Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe and explain the effect on the rate of reaction of changing the surface area of solids using collision theory: a smaller surface area means fewer collisions per unit time between reactant particles, leading to a decreased rate of reaction (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The rate of a reaction depends on the frequency of successful collisions between reactant particles. Increasing the size of lumps of calcium carbonate reduces the total surface area exposed to the acid — with less surface area available, fewer acid particles can collide with the solid at any given time, resulting in a lower frequency of collisions and therefore a decreased rate of reaction. Options A and D would both increase the rate: higher acid concentration means more acid particles per unit volume (more frequent collisions), and higher temperature gives particles more kinetic energy (more frequent and more energetic collisions). Option B, increasing the volume of acid at the same concentration, does not affect the rate as it does not change the concentration or surface area. Therefore, only increasing the lump size decreases the rate.
Answer: C

Question 13

Solid copper(II) sulfate exists in two different forms, anhydrous and hydrated.
One of these forms is blue and the other is white.
The change between these two forms is reversible.

blue form ⇌ white form

What is the blue form and how is the change from the blue form to the white form brought about?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.3: Reversible reactions and equilibrium — Describe how changing the conditions can change the direction of a reversible reaction for the effect of heat on hydrated compounds and the addition of water to anhydrous compounds, limited to copper(II) sulfate and cobalt(II) chloride (Core)
Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Define a hydrated substance as a substance that is chemically combined with water and an anhydrous substance as a substance containing no water; define the term water of crystallisation as the water molecules present in hydrated crystals, including CuSO4•5H2O (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Hydrated copper(II) sulfate (CuSO4•5H2O) is the blue form, as the water of crystallisation chemically combined within its crystal lattice gives it the characteristic blue colour. When hydrated copper(II) sulfate is heated, the water of crystallisation is driven off, converting it to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate (CuSO4), which is white — this is the forward reaction in the reversible equation shown. The reverse reaction (white → blue) is brought about simply by adding water to the anhydrous form, which rehydrates the crystals and restores the blue colour. Therefore, the blue form is hydrated copper(II) sulfate and the change to the white anhydrous form is brought about by heating.
Answer: D

Question 14

Four redox equations and statements about the equations are shown.

Which statements about the equations are correct?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.4: Redox — Define oxidation as gain of oxygen and reduction as loss of oxygen; define redox reactions as involving simultaneous oxidation and reduction; identify oxidation and reduction in redox reactions (Core)
Topic 6.4: Redox — Define oxidation in terms of loss of electrons and an increase in oxidation number; define reduction in terms of gain of electrons and a decrease in oxidation number; define an oxidising agent as a substance that oxidises another substance and is itself reduced; define a reducing agent as a substance that reduces another substance and is itself oxidised (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In redox reactions, oxidation and reduction always occur simultaneously — a substance that loses oxygen or electrons is oxidised (and acts as a reducing agent), while a substance that gains oxygen or electrons is reduced (and acts as an oxidising agent). To evaluate each statement, the changes in oxygen content or oxidation numbers of each species in the equations must be carefully tracked: a species gaining oxygen is being oxidised, and a species losing oxygen is being reduced. Statements 1 and 3 correctly identify which species is oxidised and which is reduced in their respective equations, correctly applying the definitions of oxidation (gain of oxygen/loss of electrons) and reduction (loss of oxygen/gain of electrons). Statements 2 and 4 incorrectly assign the roles of oxidation and reduction, either by misidentifying the oxidising or reducing agent or by reversing the direction of electron/oxygen transfer.
Answer: B

Question 15

Sodium hydroxide forms an alkaline solution with a pH of 14.
Which indicator turns yellow when added to this solution?

A. litmus
B. methyl orange
C. thymolphthalein
D. universal indicator

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe alkalis in terms of their effect on litmus, thymolphthalein and methyl orange (Core)
Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe how to compare hydrogen ion concentration, neutrality, relative acidity and relative alkalinity in terms of colour and pH using universal indicator paper (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Each indicator has a specific and well-defined colour change depending on whether the solution is acidic or alkaline. Litmus turns blue in alkaline solution (not yellow), and thymolphthalein turns pink/violet in alkaline solution (it is colourless in acid and pink in alkali). Universal indicator turns purple/violet at pH 14, not yellow. Methyl orange, however, turns yellow in alkaline conditions — it is red in strongly acidic solutions, orange near neutral, and yellow in alkaline solutions — making it the only indicator from the list that produces a yellow colour at pH 14. Therefore, methyl orange is the correct answer.
Answer: B

Question 16

Which row identifies an acidic oxide and a basic oxide?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.2: Oxides — Classify oxides as acidic, including SO2 and CO2, or basic, including CuO and CaO, related to metallic and non-metallic character (Core)
Topic 7.2: Oxides — Describe amphoteric oxides as oxides that react with acids and with bases to produce a salt and water; classify Al2O3 and ZnO as amphoteric oxides (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Acidic oxides are formed from non-metals and dissolve in water to produce acidic solutions or react with bases to form a salt and water — examples include SO2, SO3, CO2 and NO2. Basic oxides are formed from metals and react with acids to form a salt and water — examples include CuO, CaO, MgO and Fe2O3. Any row containing a metallic oxide in the acidic column or a non-metallic oxide in the basic column would be incorrect. Row C correctly pairs a non-metal oxide (acidic) with a metal oxide (basic), satisfying both definitions simultaneously without confusion with amphoteric oxides such as Al2O3 or ZnO, which can react with both acids and bases.
Answer: C

Question 17

A student makes aqueous copper(II) chloride by adding excess copper(II) carbonate to dilute hydrochloric acid.

What is the next step in the method in the formation of solid copper(II) chloride?

A. crystallisation
B. evaporation
C. filtration
D. titration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the preparation, separation and purification of soluble salts by reaction of an acid with excess insoluble carbonate (Core)
Topic 12.4: Separation and purification — Describe and explain methods of separation and purification using filtration and crystallisation; suggest suitable separation and purification techniques given information about the substances involved (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When excess copper(II) carbonate is added to hydrochloric acid, the reaction produces aqueous copper(II) chloride, water and carbon dioxide; the key word here is excess — this means not all the copper(II) carbonate has reacted, so there is unreacted solid copper(II) carbonate remaining in the mixture alongside the copper(II) chloride solution. The immediate next step must therefore be filtration to remove this excess unreacted solid carbonate from the solution, leaving behind a pure aqueous copper(II) chloride filtrate. Only after filtration can crystallisation be carried out to obtain solid copper(II) chloride crystals from the solution. Titration is irrelevant here as it is used for acid-alkali reactions, and simply evaporating without filtering first would leave impurities in the product.
Answer: C

Question 18

Which statements about the trends across a period of the Periodic Table are correct?
1 Aluminium is more metallic than sodium.
2 Beryllium is more metallic than carbon.
3 Boron is more metallic than lithium.
4 Magnesium is more metallic than silicon.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.1: Arrangement of elements — Describe the change from metallic to non-metallic character across a period (Core); Explain how the position of an element in the Periodic Table can be used to predict its properties (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Across any period of the Periodic Table, metallic character decreases from left to right as the nuclear charge increases, pulling electrons more strongly and making it harder for atoms to lose electrons. Therefore, an element further to the left in the same period is always more metallic than one to its right. Statement 2 is correct because beryllium (Group II) is to the left of carbon (Group IV) in Period 2, making beryllium more metallic. Statement 4 is correct because magnesium (Group II) is to the left of silicon (Group IV) in Period 3, making magnesium more metallic. Statements 1 and 3 are both incorrect — sodium (Group I) is more metallic than aluminium (Group III), and lithium (Group I) is more metallic than boron (Group III), not the other way around.
Answer: (C)

Question 19

Which row shows the trend in melting point, density and reactivity as Group I is descended?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.2: Group I properties — Describe the Group I alkali metals, lithium, sodium and potassium, as relatively soft metals with general trends down the group, limited to: decreasing melting point, increasing density, increasing reactivity (Core); Predict the properties of other elements in Group I, given information about the elements (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As Group I is descended from lithium to caesium, three key trends are observed. The melting point decreases because the metallic bonds become weaker as the atomic radius increases and the delocalised electrons are further from the nucleus. The density increases because each successive element has a significantly heavier nucleus even though the atomic size also grows, resulting in a net increase in mass per unit volume. The reactivity increases because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded by inner electron shells, making it increasingly easy to lose that electron and form a positive ion. This gives a combination of decreasing melting point, increasing density, and increasing reactivity.
Answer: (B)

Question 20

Which row describes a similarity and a difference between chlorine and bromine?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.3: Group VII properties — Describe the Group VII halogens, chlorine, bromine and iodine, as diatomic non-metals with general trends down the group, limited to: increasing density, decreasing reactivity (Core); State the appearance of the halogens at r.t.p. (Core); Predict the properties of other elements in Group VII, given information about the elements (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chlorine and bromine are both members of Group VII (halogens) and share the similarity of existing as diatomic molecules (Cl₂ and Br₂), meaning both are composed of pairs of atoms bonded covalently. However, they differ in their physical state at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.): chlorine is a pale yellow-green gas while bromine is a red-brown liquid, reflecting the increase in intermolecular forces down the group as the molecules become larger and have more electrons. Additionally, chlorine is more reactive than bromine, as the ability to gain an electron decreases down the group due to the increased atomic radius and greater electron shielding. Row D correctly identifies that both are diatomic (similarity) while differing in their states at r.t.p.
Answer: (D)

Question 21

Which statement describes transition elements?

A. They have high densities and high melting points.
B. They have high densities and low melting points.
C. They have low densities and high melting points.
D. They have low densities and low melting points.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.4: Transition elements — Describe the transition elements as metals that have high densities, have high melting points, form coloured compounds, and often act as catalysts as elements and in compounds (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Transition elements are a block of metals found in the centre of the Periodic Table between Groups II and III, and they share a distinct set of physical and chemical properties. They are characterised by having high densities due to their tightly packed atomic structures and relatively large atomic masses, which makes them significantly denser than Group I and Group II metals. They also have high melting points because the metallic bonding in transition metals is very strong, involving multiple delocalised electrons per atom, resulting in metals such as iron, chromium and nickel requiring very high temperatures to melt. Other key properties include forming coloured compounds and commonly acting as catalysts, but the physical properties of high density and high melting point are the defining characteristics tested here.
Answer: (A)

Question 22

Which diagram shows the electronic structure of a noble gas?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.5: Noble gases — Describe the Group VIII noble gases as unreactive, monatomic gases and explain this in terms of electronic configuration (Core)
Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Determine the electronic configuration of elements with proton number 1 to 20; State that Group VIII noble gases have a full outer electron shell (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Noble gases belong to Group VIII of the Periodic Table and are characterised by having a completely full outer electron shell, which makes them exceptionally stable and chemically unreactive. For a noble gas to be identified from an electronic structure diagram, its outermost shell must be completely filled — the first shell holds a maximum of 2 electrons, and subsequent shells hold a maximum of 8 electrons. Diagram A shows the electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, which corresponds to argon (proton number 18), a noble gas with a full outer shell of 8 electrons. The other diagrams show configurations with incomplete outer shells, meaning those atoms would need to gain, lose, or share electrons to become stable, which is characteristic of non-noble gas elements.
Answer: (A)

Question 23

Which gas is made when powdered zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid?

A. carbon dioxide
B. chlorine
C. hydrogen
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.1: Properties of metals — Describe the general chemical properties of metals, limited to their reactions with dilute acids (Core)
Topic 9.4: Reactivity series — Describe the reactions of magnesium, zinc, iron, copper, silver and gold with dilute hydrochloric acid and explain these reactions in terms of the position of the metals in the reactivity series (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When a metal that is above hydrogen in the reactivity series is added to a dilute acid, the metal displaces hydrogen from the acid, producing a salt and hydrogen gas. Zinc is positioned above hydrogen in the reactivity series, so it reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid according to the equation: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂. The hydrogen gas produced can be confirmed using the lighted splint test, which produces a characteristic squeaky pop. Carbon dioxide would only be produced if a carbonate reacted with an acid, chlorine is not released as it remains bonded in the zinc chloride salt, and oxygen is not a product of metal-acid reactions.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Which metal is used in aircraft manufacture because it has a low density?

A. aluminium
B. copper
C. iron
D. potassium

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.2: Uses of metals — Describe the uses of metals in terms of their physical properties, including aluminium in the manufacture of aircraft because of its low density (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aluminium is the metal of choice in aircraft manufacture primarily because of its remarkably low density of approximately 2.7 g/cm³, which is roughly one-third the density of iron or steel, allowing aircraft to be built with a much lighter structure and thereby improving fuel efficiency. In addition to its low density, aluminium also offers good resistance to corrosion due to the formation of a protective oxide layer on its surface, making it well suited to the demanding conditions of flight. Copper is too dense and is mainly used in electrical wiring due to its excellent conductivity; iron is far too heavy and prone to rusting; and potassium is far too reactive with moisture and air to be used as a structural metal in any application.
Answer: (A)

Question 25

The diagram represents the structure of a solid.

Which solids does the diagram represent?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Describe the giant lattice structure of ionic compounds as a regular arrangement of alternating positive and negative ions (Supplement)
Topic 2.6: Giant covalent structures — Describe the giant covalent structures of graphite and diamond; Describe the giant covalent structure of silicon(IV) oxide, SiO₂ (Core & Supplement)
Topic 2.7: Metallic bonding — Describe metallic bonding as the electrostatic attraction between positive ions in a giant metallic lattice and a ‘sea’ of delocalised electrons (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The diagram shows a giant lattice structure where particles are arranged in a regular, repeating three-dimensional pattern — this is characteristic of giant structures, which include ionic lattices, giant covalent structures, and metallic lattices. Diamond is a giant covalent structure where each carbon atom is covalently bonded to four others in a tetrahedral arrangement forming an extensive lattice, and silicon(IV) oxide (SiO₂) similarly forms a giant covalent lattice structure with a comparable appearance. Simple molecular solids such as iodine do not form giant lattices — they consist of discrete molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces — and sodium chloride, while also a giant lattice, is ionic rather than covalent. Row B correctly identifies diamond and silicon(IV) oxide as the two solids represented by this type of giant covalent lattice diagram.
Answer: (B)

Question 26

Three students, X, Y and Z, are told that solid P reacts with dilute acids and also conducts electricity.

The table shows the students’ suggestions about the identity of P.

Which students are correct?

A. X, Y and Z
B. X only
C. Y only
D. Z only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.1: Properties of metals — Compare the general physical properties of metals and non-metals, including electrical conductivity; Describe the general chemical properties of metals, limited to their reactions with dilute acids (Core)
Topic 2.6: Giant covalent structures — Describe the giant covalent structures of graphite and diamond; Relate the structures and bonding of graphite to its use as an electrode (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Solid P must satisfy two conditions simultaneously: it reacts with dilute acids and it conducts electricity in the solid state. Metals fulfil both criteria — they react with dilute acids (provided they are above hydrogen in the reactivity series) and they conduct electricity in the solid state due to the presence of delocalised electrons in their giant metallic lattice. Student Y correctly identifies P as a metal, which is the only category of solid that satisfies both properties. Student X suggesting an ionic compound is incorrect because ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in the solid state (ions are fixed in the lattice) and generally do not react with dilute acids in the same way. Student Z suggesting graphite is incorrect because although graphite does conduct electricity, it does not react with dilute acids. Therefore, only Student Y is correct.
Answer: (C)

Question 27

Which substances in the air are needed for iron to rust?

A. oxygen and water
B. oxygen only
C. water and carbon dioxide
D. water only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.5: Corrosion of metals — State the conditions required for the rusting of iron and steel to form hydrated iron(III) oxide (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Rusting is the specific corrosion of iron and steel, producing hydrated iron(III) oxide (Fe₂O₃·xH₂O), and it requires both oxygen and water to be present simultaneously — neither substance alone is sufficient to cause rusting. This has been demonstrated experimentally: iron nails placed in dry oxygen do not rust, and iron nails placed in boiled (oxygen-free) water sealed with oil also do not rust, but nails exposed to both oxygen and water rust readily. Carbon dioxide is not a required condition for rusting, although it can accelerate the process slightly by making water slightly acidic; it is not one of the two essential substances. Therefore, the correct answer identifies oxygen and water as the two necessary conditions for rusting to occur.
Answer: (A)

Question 28

Part of the reactivity series of metals is shown.

Which row shows how each metal is extracted from its ore?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.6: Extraction of metals — Describe the ease in obtaining metals from their ores, related to the position of the metal in the reactivity series; Describe the extraction of iron from hematite in the blast furnace (Core); State that the main ore of aluminium is bauxite and that aluminium is extracted by electrolysis (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The method used to extract a metal from its ore is directly linked to its position in the reactivity series. Highly reactive metals such as aluminium (above carbon in the reactivity series) cannot be reduced by carbon or carbon monoxide, so they must be extracted by the more energy-intensive process of electrolysis of their molten ores. Metals of moderate reactivity such as iron (below carbon but above hydrogen) can be extracted by reduction with carbon or carbon monoxide in a blast furnace. Metals of low reactivity such as copper (below hydrogen in the reactivity series) can be extracted by reduction with carbon, or in some cases found native; copper is also increasingly obtained by electrolytic refining. Row D correctly matches aluminium with electrolysis, iron with reduction by carbon/carbon monoxide, and copper with reduction or electrolysis, consistent with their positions in the reactivity series.
Answer: (D)

Question 29

Several processes are used to treat domestic water. Which row identifies a reason for the given process?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.1: Water — Describe the treatment of the domestic water supply in terms of: sedimentation and filtration to remove solids; use of carbon to remove tastes and odours; chlorination to kill microbes (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Domestic water treatment involves several distinct processes, each with a specific purpose. Sedimentation and filtration are used to remove suspended solid particles from the water, making it clear. Activated carbon (charcoal) is used to remove unpleasant tastes and odours from the water by adsorbing the organic compounds responsible for them — it does not kill microbes or remove solids effectively. Chlorination involves adding small amounts of chlorine to the water specifically to kill harmful microbes and bacteria, making the water safe to drink. Row B correctly pairs chlorination with the reason of killing microbes, which is the sole purpose of this treatment step and matches precisely with the syllabus requirement.
Answer: (B)

Question 30

Which pair of compounds make an NPK fertiliser?

A. ammonium sulfate and potassium phosphate
B. calcium hydroxide and ammonium nitrate
C. calcium phosphate and potassium chloride
D. potassium nitrate and ammonium sulfate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.2: Fertilisers — State that ammonium salts and nitrates are used as fertilisers; Describe the use of NPK fertilisers to provide the elements nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium for improved plant growth (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An NPK fertiliser must supply all three essential elements for plant growth: nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K). Ammonium sulfate provides nitrogen (from the ammonium ion, NH₄⁺), and potassium phosphate provides both phosphorus (from the phosphate ion, PO₄³⁻) and potassium (K⁺) — together these two compounds supply all three required elements N, P, and K. Option B is incorrect because calcium hydroxide is not a fertiliser and contains no N, P, or K in useful form. Option C lacks nitrogen entirely. Option D provides nitrogen and potassium but no phosphorus, so it cannot be classified as a complete NPK fertiliser. Therefore, only option A supplies all three elements N, P, and K when the two compounds are combined.
Answer: (A)

Question 31

Some information about gas X is listed.

  • It is not present in clean, dry air.
  • It is not a cause of respiratory problems.
  • It is responsible for global warming.

What is X?

A. carbon dioxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. methane
D. nitrogen dioxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.3: Air quality and climate — State the composition of clean, dry air; State the source of each air pollutant including methane from the decomposition of vegetation and waste gases from digestion in animals; State the adverse effects of air pollutants including methane leading to increased global warming and climate change (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Each clue must be matched carefully against all four options. Clean, dry air is composed of approximately 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and the remainder being noble gases and carbon dioxide — this immediately eliminates carbon dioxide (option A) as gas X, since CO₂ is present in clean air. Carbon monoxide (option B) and nitrogen dioxide (option D) are both eliminated because they are well-known causes of respiratory problems. Methane (CH₄) satisfies all three criteria: it is not a component of clean, dry air (it is produced by decomposition of vegetation and animal digestion), it does not cause respiratory problems, and it is a potent greenhouse gas responsible for contributing to global warming and climate change by absorbing and re-emitting thermal energy in the atmosphere.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

Part of the structure of a molecule of vitamin A is shown.

Which statements about this part of the structure are correct?

  1. It is saturated.
  2. There are two alkene groups.
  3. The structure shows a carboxylic acid.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology — State that a saturated compound has molecules in which all carbon–carbon bonds are single bonds; State that an unsaturated compound has molecules in which one or more carbon–carbon bonds are not single bonds; Identify a functional group as an atom or group of atoms that determine the chemical properties of a homologous series (Core)
Topic 11.5: Alkenes — State that the bonding in alkenes includes a double carbon–carbon covalent bond and that alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Examining each statement against the displayed structure of the vitamin A fragment: Statement 1 is incorrect because the structure clearly contains carbon–carbon double bonds (C=C), which means it is unsaturated, not saturated — a saturated compound would have only single C–C bonds throughout. Statement 2 is correct because the structure shows two C=C double bonds, which are the defining functional group of alkenes, making this part of the molecule contain two alkene groups. Statement 3 is incorrect because a carboxylic acid requires the –COOH functional group (a carbonyl and hydroxyl on the same carbon), which is not present in this portion of the vitamin A structure. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.
Answer: (D)

Question 33

The fractional distillation of petroleum is shown. Which fraction contains hydrocarbons with the longest chain length?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.3: Fuels — Describe the separation of petroleum into useful fractions by fractional distillation; Describe how the properties of fractions obtained from petroleum change from the bottom to the top of the fractionating column, limited to: decreasing chain length, higher volatility, lower boiling points, lower viscosity (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the fractional distillation of petroleum, the fractionating column operates on the principle that hydrocarbons with longer carbon chains have stronger intermolecular forces, higher boiling points, and therefore condense at higher temperatures lower down the column. As a result, fractions collected at the bottom of the column contain hydrocarbons with the longest chain lengths and highest boiling points, such as bitumen and fuel oil, while fractions collected at the top have the shortest chains, lowest boiling points, and highest volatility, such as refinery gases. Fraction D, being collected at the bottom of the fractionating column shown in the diagram, therefore contains the hydrocarbons with the longest carbon chain lengths.
Answer: (D)

Question 34

Which equation represents the cracking of an alkane?

A. 3C₂H₄ → C₆H₁₂
B. C₆H₁₂ + H₂ → C₆H₁₄
C. C₆H₁₄ → 6C + 7H₂
D. C₆H₁₄ → C₂H₄ + C₄H₁₀

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.5: Alkenes — Describe the manufacture of alkenes and hydrogen by the cracking of larger alkane molecules using a high temperature and a catalyst; Describe the reasons for the cracking of larger alkane molecules (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cracking is the thermal decomposition of larger, less useful alkane molecules into smaller, more useful molecules using high temperature and a catalyst; it always starts with a larger alkane as the reactant and produces at least one alkene among the products. Option A shows polymerisation (small alkenes joining to form a larger molecule), which is the reverse process. Option B shows hydrogenation, where an alkene reacts with hydrogen to form an alkane. Option C shows complete decomposition into carbon and hydrogen, which is not cracking. Option D correctly shows the cracking of hexane (C₆H₁₄, a larger alkane) breaking down into ethene (C₂H₄, an alkene) and butane (C₄H₁₀, a smaller alkane), which is precisely what cracking produces — a smaller alkane and an alkene.
Answer: (D)

Question 35

Which statements about ethanol are correct?

  1. Ethanol is made by reacting steam with ethene at 300°C.
  2. Ethanol is made by fermentation at 55°C.
  3. Ethanol burns to produce carbon dioxide and water.
  4. Ethanol contains a carbon-carbon double bond.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.6: Alcohols — Describe the manufacture of ethanol by fermentation of aqueous glucose at 25–35°C in the presence of yeast and in the absence of oxygen; Describe the manufacture of ethanol by catalytic addition of steam to ethene at 300°C and 6000 kPa/60 atm in the presence of an acid catalyst; Describe the combustion of ethanol (Core)
Topic 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology — State that a saturated compound has molecules in which all carbon–carbon bonds are single bonds (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Evaluating each statement carefully: Statement 1 is correct — ethanol is manufactured industrially by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene at 300°C and 6000 kPa in the presence of an acid catalyst. Statement 2 is incorrect — fermentation occurs at a much lower temperature of 25–35°C using yeast in the absence of oxygen; 55°C would denature the yeast enzymes and prevent fermentation. Statement 3 is correct — ethanol is a fuel that undergoes complete combustion to produce carbon dioxide and water, represented by C₂H₅OH + 3O₂ → 2CO₂ + 3H₂O. Statement 4 is incorrect — ethanol (C₂H₅OH) is a saturated alcohol containing only single carbon–carbon bonds; it is ethene that contains the carbon–carbon double bond. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Answer: (B)

Question 36

Which substances react with aqueous ethanoic acid to form a gas?

  1. magnesium
  2. magnesium carbonate
  3. magnesium oxide

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.7: Carboxylic acids — Describe the reaction of ethanoic acid with metals, bases and carbonates, including names and formulae of the salts produced (Core)
Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe the characteristic properties of acids in terms of their reactions with metals, bases and carbonates (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH) behaves as a typical acid in its reactions, and the key here is identifying which reactions produce a gas. Magnesium (substance 1) reacts with ethanoic acid to produce magnesium ethanoate and hydrogen gas (Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂), so a gas is produced. Magnesium carbonate (substance 2) reacts with ethanoic acid to produce magnesium ethanoate, water, and carbon dioxide gas (MgCO₃ + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂O + CO₂), so a gas is also produced. Magnesium oxide (substance 3) is a base that reacts with ethanoic acid in a neutralisation reaction to produce magnesium ethanoate and water only (MgO + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂O) — no gas is evolved. Therefore, only substances 1 and 2 produce a gas.
Answer: (B)

Question 37

In reaction R, 2000 molecules of CH₂=CH₂ react to form a single molecule X only.

2000 CH₂=CH₂ → X

Which terms describe reaction R, CH₂=CH₂ and X?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.8: Polymers — Define polymers as large molecules built up from many smaller molecules called monomers; Describe the formation of poly(ethene) as an example of addition polymerisation using ethene monomers; Identify the repeat units and/or linkages in addition polymers and in condensation polymers (Core & Supplement)
Topic 11.5: Alkenes — State that the bonding in alkenes includes a double carbon–carbon covalent bond and that alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Reaction R involves 2000 small molecules of ethene (CH₂=CH₂) joining together to form a single large molecule X with no other products — this is the definition of addition polymerisation, where the C=C double bonds open up and the molecules link together in a chain. CH₂=CH₂ is ethene, which is the starting small molecule used to build the polymer, making it the monomer. Since only one product (X) is formed and no other substance is released, this confirms it is addition polymerisation rather than condensation polymerisation. The product X is poly(ethene), which is a large molecule made of many repeating ethene units joined together, making it a polymer. Row A correctly identifies reaction R as addition polymerisation, CH₂=CH₂ as the monomer, and X as the polymer.
Answer: (A)

Question 38

The concentration of acids and alkalis can be determined by titration. Which pieces of equipment are needed to perform a titration?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.2: Acid–base titrations — Describe an acid–base titration to include the use of a burette, volumetric pipette and suitable indicator; Describe how to identify the end-point of a titration using an indicator (Core)
Topic 12.1: Experimental design — Name appropriate apparatus for the measurement of volume, including burettes and volumetric pipettes (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A titration requires two key pieces of volumetric glassware that allow precise measurement of liquid volumes. A burette (piece 2) is essential as it allows the controlled, measured addition of one solution (the titrant) drop by drop into the other solution, with readings taken before and after to determine the exact volume added. A volumetric pipette (piece 4) is used to deliver a precise, fixed volume of the other solution into the conical flask before the titration begins, ensuring accuracy and reproducibility. A measuring cylinder (piece 1) is not precise enough for titration work, and a beaker (piece 3) cannot deliver or measure accurate volumes of solution. Together, the burette and volumetric pipette are the two essential pieces of equipment for performing an accurate acid-base titration.
Answer: (D)

Question 39

Which process is used to produce drinking water from sea water?

A. crystallisation
B. distillation
C. filtration
D. chlorination

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.4: Separation and purification — Describe and explain methods of separation and purification using simple distillation and fractional distillation; Suggest suitable separation and purification techniques, given information about the substances involved (Core)
Topic 10.1: Water — Explain that distilled water is used in practical chemistry rather than tap water because it contains fewer chemical impurities (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sea water is essentially a solution of dissolved salts (mainly sodium chloride) in water, and to obtain pure drinking water from it, the water must be separated from the dissolved salts. Distillation is the correct process — the sea water is heated until the water evaporates, the steam is then collected and condensed back into liquid pure water, leaving the dissolved salts behind in the original container. Crystallisation would be used to recover the dissolved salt, not the water. Filtration only removes insoluble solid particles and cannot separate dissolved salts from water. Chlorination is a water treatment step used to kill microbes but does not remove dissolved salts or purify sea water into drinking water. Therefore, distillation is the only process capable of separating water from dissolved salts in sea water.
Answer: (B)

Question 40

The results of two separate tests on a white solid X are shown.

What is X?

A. aluminium carbonate
B. aluminium nitrate
C. ammonium carbonate
D. ammonium nitrate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.5: Identification of ions and gases — Describe tests to identify the anions including carbonate (CO₃²⁻) by reaction with dilute acid and then testing for carbon dioxide gas; Describe tests using aqueous sodium hydroxide to identify the aqueous cations including ammonium (NH₄⁺) producing ammonia on warming; Describe tests to identify the gases ammonia and carbon dioxide (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The two test results must be used together to identify X. The first test shows that adding dilute acid to X produces a gas that turns limewater milky, which is the confirmatory test for carbon dioxide — this means X contains the carbonate ion (CO₃²⁻), eliminating options B (aluminium nitrate) and D (ammonium nitrate) which contain no carbonate. The second test shows that adding aqueous sodium hydroxide to X and warming produces a gas that turns damp red litmus paper blue, which is the confirmatory test for ammonia — this means X contains the ammonium ion (NH₄⁺), eliminating option A (aluminium carbonate). Ammonium carbonate ((NH₄)₂CO₃) contains both the ammonium ion and the carbonate ion, satisfying both test results perfectly, and it is indeed a white solid.
Answer: (C)
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