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Question 1

The three rectangles show the arrangements of the particles in each of the three states of matter. X, Y and Z represent the processes needed to change from one state to another.

What are the processes X, Y and Z?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — Describe changes of state in terms of melting, boiling, evaporating, freezing and condensing (Core); Explain changes of state in terms of kinetic particle theory, including the interpretation of heating and cooling curves (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The diagram shows particles moving from a closely packed, ordered solid arrangement → a less ordered liquid arrangement → a widely spaced, random gas arrangement. Process X converts solid to liquid, which is melting. Process Y converts liquid to gas, which is boiling (or evaporating). Process Z converts solid directly to gas, bypassing the liquid state entirely, which is sublimation. Therefore, X = melting, Y = boiling, Z = sublimation, which corresponds to option D.
Answer: (D)

Question 2

Which substance is a pure compound?

A. air
B. brass
C. ethanol
D. petroleum

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — Describe the differences between elements, compounds and mixtures (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A pure compound is a substance made of two or more elements chemically combined in fixed proportions throughout. Air is a mixture of gases (mainly nitrogen and oxygen), brass is an alloy (a mixture of copper and zinc), and petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons. Ethanol (C₂H₅OH) is a single chemical substance made of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms bonded together in a definite ratio, making it a pure compound with a fixed boiling point and composition.
Answer: (C)

Question 3

The Group I element potassium forms an ionic bond with the Group VII element fluorine. Which two ions are produced?

A. K⁺ and F⁺
B. K⁺ and F⁻
C. K⁻ and F⁻
D. K⁻ and F⁺

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Describe the formation of positive ions (cations) and negative ions (anions); Describe the formation of ionic bonds between elements from Group I and Group VII (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In ionic bond formation, the Group I metal (potassium) loses its single outer-shell electron to achieve a stable noble gas configuration, forming a positively charged cation K⁺. The Group VII non-metal (fluorine) gains that one electron to complete its outer shell, forming a negatively charged anion F⁻. Metals always form positive ions by losing electrons, while non-metals form negative ions by gaining electrons — so options involving K⁻ or F⁺ are impossible under normal ionic bonding.
Answer: (B)

Question 4

An isotope of lithium has the symbol \({ }_3^7 \mathrm{Li}\). What is the arrangement of electrons in one atom of this isotope of lithium?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Determine the electronic configuration of elements and their ions with proton number 1 to 20 (Core)
Topic 2.3: Isotopes — Define isotopes as different atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons; Interpret and use symbols for atoms (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The symbol \({ }_3^7\mathrm{Li}\) tells us the atomic (proton) number is 3 and the mass number is 7. Since the atom is neutral, the number of electrons equals the number of protons, which is 3. Electrons fill shells in order: the first shell holds a maximum of 2 electrons, and the remaining 1 electron occupies the second shell. Therefore the electronic configuration of lithium is 2, 1 — two electrons in the first shell and one electron in the second shell. The mass number of 7 is irrelevant to electron arrangement; it only tells us the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
Answer: (A)

Question 5

Fluorine, F₂, is in the same group of the Periodic Table as chlorine, Cl₂. Which diagram represents the arrangement of the outer-shell electrons in a molecule of fluorine?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — State that a covalent bond is formed when a pair of electrons is shared between two atoms leading to noble gas electronic configurations; Describe the formation of covalent bonds in simple molecules including Cl₂, using dot-and-cross diagrams (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fluorine is in Group VII, meaning each fluorine atom has 7 outer-shell electrons. When two fluorine atoms bond, each contributes 1 electron to form a single shared covalent bond (one bonding pair), leaving 3 lone pairs on each fluorine atom. The correct dot-and-cross diagram must therefore show one shared pair of electrons between the two F atoms and exactly 3 lone pairs around each atom, giving each fluorine a complete outer shell of 8 electrons — the same configuration as the noble gas neon. Any diagram showing more than one shared pair or an incorrect number of lone pairs is wrong.
Answer: (B)

Question 6

Which use of graphite depends on the layers of carbon atoms being able to slide over each other?

A. cutting tools
B. electrodes
C. jewellery
D. lubricant

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.6: Giant covalent structures — Describe the giant covalent structures of graphite and diamond; Relate the structures and bonding of graphite and diamond to their uses, limited to graphite as a lubricant and as an electrode (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Graphite has a layered structure in which each carbon atom is covalently bonded to three others in flat hexagonal sheets. The layers are held together only by weak intermolecular forces, which allows them to slide over one another easily. This slippery, low-friction property is precisely what makes graphite an effective lubricant. Its use as an electrode relies instead on its ability to conduct electricity (due to delocalised electrons), not on its sliding layers; cutting tools and jewellery are properties associated with diamond, not graphite.
Answer: (D)

Question 7

Which equations are balanced?

1. Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂
2. ZnCO₃ + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + CO₂ + 2H₂O
3. Mg(NO₃)₂ + NaOH → Mg(OH)₂ + 2NaNO₃
4. CaCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + H₂O + CO₂

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 3.1: Formulae — Construct word equations and symbol equations to show how reactants form products, including state symbols (Core); Construct symbol equations with state symbols, including ionic equations (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Checking each equation by counting atoms on both sides: Equation 1 (Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂) — Fe: 2=2, O: 3+3=6 and 6 ✓, C: 3=3 ✓ — balanced. Equation 2 (ZnCO₃ + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + CO₂ + 2H₂O) — H: 2 left, 4 right ✗ — not balanced (should be H₂O not 2H₂O, i.e., only 1 H₂O). Equation 3 (Mg(NO₃)₂ + NaOH → Mg(OH)₂ + 2NaNO₃) — Na: 1 left, 2 right ✗ — not balanced. Equation 4 (CaCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + H₂O + CO₂) — Ca:1=1, C:1=1, O:7=7, H:2=2, S:1=1 ✓ — balanced. Therefore equations 1 and 4 are correctly balanced.
Answer: (B)

Question 8

The equation for the combustion of methane is shown.

$$\mathrm{CH_4 + 2O_2 \rightarrow CO_2 + 2H_2O}$$

Which mass of methane produces 36 g of water?

A. 16 g
B. 18 g
C. 32 g
D. 64 g

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — Calculate reacting masses in simple proportions (Core)
Topic 3.3: The mole and the Avogadro constant — Calculate stoichiometric reacting masses (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
From the balanced equation, 1 mole of CH₄ produces 2 moles of H₂O. The molar mass of CH₄ is 12 + 4 = 16 g/mol, and the molar mass of H₂O is 2 + 16 = 18 g/mol. So 1 mole (16 g) of methane produces 2 moles (2 × 18 = 36 g) of water. Since 36 g of water is exactly 2 moles, only 1 mole (16 g) of methane is required. The ratio of masses is therefore CH₄ : H₂O = 16 g : 36 g, confirming that 36 g of water is produced from 16 g of methane.
Answer: (A)

Question 9

What is produced at each electrode during the electrolysis of aqueous solutions using inert electrodes?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.1: Electrolysis — Identify the products formed at the electrodes and describe the observations made during the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and dilute sulfuric acid using inert electrodes (Core); Predict the identity of the products at each electrode for the electrolysis of a halide compound in dilute or concentrated aqueous solution (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride (brine), chloride ions (Cl⁻) are preferentially discharged at the anode producing chlorine gas, while hydrogen ions from water are discharged at the cathode producing hydrogen gas. During the electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid, water molecules are effectively electrolysed: hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode (reduction of H⁺ ions) and oxygen gas is produced at the anode (oxidation of OH⁻/water). Therefore, for concentrated NaCl the products are chlorine at the anode and hydrogen at the cathode, and for dilute H₂SO₄ the products are oxygen at the anode and hydrogen at the cathode.
Answer: (C)

Question 10

Which statement about a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell in a car is correct?

A. The fuel cell produces heat, which powers the car.
B. The fuel cell is supplied with hydrogen directly from the air.
C. The only emission from the fuel cell is nitrogen gas, which is non-polluting.
D. The fuel cell produces electricity, which powers an electric motor.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.2: Hydrogen–oxygen fuel cells — State that a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell uses hydrogen and oxygen to produce electricity with water as the only chemical product (Core); Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using hydrogen–oxygen fuel cells in comparison with gasoline/petrol engines in vehicles (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell converts chemical energy directly into electrical energy through the reaction of hydrogen and oxygen, with water as the only chemical product — making it a clean energy source. This electricity then powers an electric motor to drive the car. Option A is incorrect because it is electricity, not heat, that powers the car. Option B is incorrect because hydrogen is not present in air in usable quantities and must be stored separately. Option C is incorrect because the only emission is water vapour, not nitrogen gas.
Answer: (D)

Question 11

The reaction pathway diagram for a reaction is shown.

Which statements are correct?

  1. The reaction is exothermic.
  2. The reaction is endothermic.
  3. The temperature of the surroundings increases.
  4. The temperature of the surroundings decreases.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — State that an endothermic reaction takes in thermal energy from the surroundings leading to a decrease in the temperature of the surroundings; Interpret reaction pathway diagrams showing exothermic and endothermic reactions (Core); Draw and label reaction pathway diagrams for exothermic and endothermic reactions (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a reaction pathway diagram, the relative energy levels of reactants and products determine whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. When the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants, the reaction requires a net input of energy from the surroundings — this is an endothermic reaction. Because the reaction absorbs thermal energy from the surroundings, the temperature of the surroundings decreases. This rules out statements 1 and 3, which describe an exothermic reaction where products are at a lower energy level than reactants and heat is released to the surroundings.
Answer: (D)

Question 12

Which process involves a chemical change?

A. adding sodium to water
B. boiling water
C. dissolving sodium chloride in water
D. producing water from aqueous sodium chloride

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.1: Physical and chemical changes — Identify physical and chemical changes, and describe the differences between them (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A chemical change involves the formation of new substances with different chemical properties and is generally irreversible. When sodium is added to water, a vigorous reaction occurs producing sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas (2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂), with observable evidence such as fizzing, heat production and the sodium moving rapidly — clearly a chemical change. Boiling water and dissolving sodium chloride are physical changes because no new substances are formed and the processes are reversible. Option D describes distillation, which is also a physical separation process, not a chemical change.
Answer: (A)

Question 13

An experiment is carried out to find the rate of reaction between hydrochloric acid and zinc.

$$\mathrm{Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) \rightarrow ZnCl_2(aq) + H_2(g)}$$

The results of the experiment are shown.

What is the label on the y-axis?

A. amount of ZnCl₂ produced
B. concentration of HCl
C. mass of Zn reacted
D. volume of H₂ produced

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe practical methods for investigating the rate of a reaction; Interpret data, including graphs, from rate of reaction experiments (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The graph shows a curve that starts high and decreases over time, eventually levelling off — this shape is characteristic of a reactant being consumed as the reaction proceeds. Products such as ZnCl₂ and H₂ would show an increasing curve, while the concentration of HCl (a reactant) decreases as it is used up, matching the shape shown. The mass of Zn reacted would also increase over time, so it does not fit a decreasing curve. Therefore, the y-axis must represent the concentration of HCl, which starts at its initial value and falls to near zero as the acid is consumed.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

Solid S changes colour from white to blue when water is added. What is S?

A. anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride
B. anhydrous copper(II) sulfate
C. hydrated cobalt(II) chloride
D. hydrated copper(II) sulfate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.3: Reversible reactions and equilibrium — Describe how changing the conditions can change the direction of a reversible reaction for the addition of water to anhydrous compounds, limited to copper(II) sulfate and cobalt(II) chloride (Core)
Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Define a hydrated substance as a substance that is chemically combined with water and an anhydrous substance as a substance containing no water (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is a white powder that turns blue when water is added, as it absorbs water molecules to form hydrated copper(II) sulfate (CuSO₄·5H₂O) — this is a reversible reaction used as a chemical test for the presence of water. Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride is blue and turns pink upon hydration, so it does not match the description. The hydrated forms of both compounds already contain water and would not undergo the same colour change upon addition of more water. Therefore, the substance that is white and turns blue with water is exclusively anhydrous copper(II) sulfate.
Answer: (B)

Question 15

Which equation shows the reduction of copper?

A. CuO + C → Cu + CO
B. 2CuS + 3O₂ → 2CuO + 2SO₂
C. Cu(g) → Cu(l)
D. Cu(l) → Cu(s)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.4: Redox — Define oxidation as gain of oxygen and reduction as loss of oxygen; Identify oxidation and reduction in redox reactions (Core); Define reduction in terms of gain of electrons and a decrease in oxidation number (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Reduction is defined as the loss of oxygen (or gain of electrons, or decrease in oxidation number). In option A, copper(II) oxide (CuO) loses its oxygen to carbon, forming copper metal (Cu) — the copper compound is reduced from Cu²⁺ to Cu⁰, losing oxygen in the process. Option B shows copper being oxidised (CuS gains oxygen to form CuO). Options C and D are purely physical state changes involving no chemical reaction at all, so no oxidation or reduction takes place. Therefore, only equation A represents the reduction of copper.
Answer: (A)

Question 16

Which solids react with dilute sulfuric acid to form aqueous magnesium sulfate?

  1. magnesium
  2. magnesium hydroxide
  3. magnesium nitrate
  4. magnesium oxide

A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe the characteristic properties of acids in terms of their reactions with metals, bases and carbonates (Core)
Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the preparation, separation and purification of soluble salts by reaction of an acid with excess metal, excess insoluble base (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To form magnesium sulfate with dilute sulfuric acid, the magnesium-containing solid must react with H₂SO₄ and supply Mg²⁺ ions. Magnesium metal (1) reacts with dilute H₂SO₄ to give MgSO₄ + H₂ ✓. Magnesium hydroxide (2) is a base that reacts with the acid in a neutralisation reaction to give MgSO₄ + H₂O ✓. Magnesium nitrate (3) is already a salt and does not react with dilute sulfuric acid to produce a different salt — it would simply dissolve or form an insoluble precipitate, not MgSO₄ ✗. Magnesium oxide (4) is a base that reacts with H₂SO₄ to give MgSO₄ + H₂O ✓. Therefore solids 1, 2 and 4 all produce magnesium sulfate.
Answer: (A)

Question 17

Which statements about an aqueous acid are correct?

  1. Ammonia is formed when solid ammonium nitrate is added to an aqueous acid.
  2. Effervescence is seen when sodium carbonate is added to an aqueous acid.
  3. Methyl orange becomes yellow when added to an aqueous acid.
  4. Red litmus remains red when added to an aqueous acid.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe the characteristic properties of acids in terms of their reactions with metals, bases and carbonates; Describe acids in terms of their effect on litmus, thymolphthalein and methyl orange; Describe the characteristic properties of bases in terms of their reactions with ammonium salts (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect — ammonia is produced when ammonium salts react with a base (such as NaOH), not with an acid; adding ammonium nitrate to an acid would simply dissolve it. Statement 2 is correct — carbonates react with acids to produce CO₂ gas, causing visible effervescence (sodium carbonate + acid → salt + water + CO₂). Statement 3 is incorrect — methyl orange turns red/pink in acidic conditions, not yellow; yellow is the colour methyl orange shows in alkaline or neutral conditions. Statement 4 is correct — red litmus is already red and acids keep it red, as acids do not change red litmus. Therefore statements 2 and 4 are both correct.
Answer: (D)

Question 18

Copper(II) sulfate is formed by reacting excess solid copper(II) carbonate with dilute sulfuric acid.

Which processes are part of the preparation of solid copper(II) sulfate?

  1. crystallisation
  2. distillation
  3. filtration
  4. titration

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the preparation, separation and purification of soluble salts by reaction of an acid with excess insoluble base (Core)
Topic 12.4: Separation and purification — Describe and explain methods of separation and purification using filtration and crystallisation (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When excess solid copper(II) carbonate is added to dilute sulfuric acid, the reaction produces copper(II) sulfate solution, water and carbon dioxide gas. Because excess insoluble copper(II) carbonate is used (to ensure all the acid is consumed), filtration is needed to remove the unreacted solid from the copper(II) sulfate solution. The filtrate is then evaporated and allowed to cool slowly so that copper(II) sulfate crystals form — this is crystallisation. Distillation is not needed as we are not separating liquids, and titration is used only when both reactants are in solution (acid–alkali reactions), not when an excess insoluble solid is used.
Answer: (A)

Question 19

Element X forms ions with the formula X²⁻. Which row describes element X?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.1: Arrangement of elements — Describe the relationship between group number and the charge of the ions formed from elements in that group; Describe the change from metallic to non-metallic character across a period (Core)
Topic 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Describe the formation of positive ions (cations) and negative ions (anions) (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An element that forms X²⁻ ions gains 2 electrons to achieve a stable noble gas configuration, which means it has 6 outer-shell electrons in its neutral atom — placing it in Group VI of the Periodic Table. Elements in Group VI are non-metals (such as oxygen and sulfur), since the tendency to gain electrons and form negative ions is a characteristic of non-metallic elements on the right side of the Periodic Table. Metals lose electrons to form positive ions, so any option describing X as a metal or placing it in a group associated with positive ion formation is incorrect. Therefore, element X is a non-metal in Group VI.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

Which compound is likely to be coloured?

A. KMnO₄
B. KNO₃
C. K₂CO₃
D. K₂SO₄

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.4: Transition elements — Describe the transition elements as metals that form coloured compounds and often act as catalysts as elements and in compounds (Core); Describe transition elements as having ions with variable oxidation numbers (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Transition metals and their compounds are characteristically coloured due to the presence of partially filled d-orbitals in the transition metal ion. KMnO₄ (potassium manganate(VII)) contains manganese, which is a transition metal — this compound is well known for its intense purple/violet colour. The other three compounds — KNO₃, K₂CO₃ and K₂SO₄ — all contain potassium, which is a Group I alkali metal (not a transition metal), and their anions contain only non-transition elements; these compounds are all white solids with no colour. Therefore, only KMnO₄ is expected to be coloured.
Answer: (A)

Question 21

Chlorine, bromine and iodine are in the same group of the Periodic Table. Which statements about these three elements are correct?

  1. Iodine is more reactive than chlorine.
  2. They are diatomic covalent molecules.
  3. They are all gases at room temperature.
  4. Their atoms have seven electrons in their outer shell.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.3: Group VII properties — Describe the Group VII halogens as diatomic non-metals with general trends down the group, including decreasing reactivity; State the appearance of the halogens at r.t.p. (Core)
Topic 8.1: Arrangement of elements — Explain similarities in the chemical properties of elements in the same group in terms of their electronic configuration (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect — reactivity decreases down Group VII, so chlorine is the most reactive of the three and iodine is the least reactive. Statement 2 is correct — chlorine (Cl₂), bromine (Br₂) and iodine (I₂) all exist as diatomic covalent molecules. Statement 3 is incorrect — at room temperature, chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid and iodine is a grey-black solid, so they are not all gases. Statement 4 is correct — all Group VII elements have 7 electrons in their outer shell, which is why they share similar chemical properties and all form X⁻ ions by gaining one electron.
Answer: (D)

Question 22

The electronic configurations of four elements, P, Q, R and S, are shown.

Which elements are unreactive monatomic gases?

A. P and Q
B. P and S
C. Q and R
D. S only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.5: Noble gases — Describe the Group VIII noble gases as unreactive, monatomic gases and explain this in terms of electronic configuration (Core)
Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — State that Group VIII noble gases have a full outer electron shell (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Unreactive monatomic gases are the noble gases (Group VIII), which are characterised by having a completely full outer electron shell — this gives them no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons, making them chemically inert and existing as single atoms. From the electronic configurations shown, the elements with full outer shells are P (configuration 2, which is helium — full first shell) and S (configuration 2,8 or 2,8,8 — full outer shell, corresponding to neon or argon). Elements Q and R have incomplete outer shells and would therefore be reactive, forming compounds or molecules rather than existing as monatomic gases.
Answer: (B)

Question 23

The table shows some physical properties of four different substances. Which row describes the properties of a non-metallic element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.1: Properties of metals — Compare the general physical properties of metals and non-metals, including thermal conductivity, electrical conductivity, malleability and ductility, and melting points and boiling points (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Non-metallic elements are generally characterised by poor electrical conductivity (they are insulators, with the exception of graphite), low melting points, brittleness (non-malleable), and low thermal conductivity. Metals, in contrast, are good conductors of electricity and heat, have high melting points, and are malleable and ductile. The correct row must show a combination of poor electrical conductivity and other non-metallic properties. Row B matches a non-metallic element by showing the absence of metallic properties such as good conductivity and malleability, consistent with typical non-metals like sulfur or phosphorus.
Answer: (B)

Question 24

The equation shows the reaction between a halogen and the aqueous ions of another halogen.

$$X_2 + 2Y^- \rightarrow 2X^- + Y_2$$

What is X₂ and the colour of Y⁻?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.3: Group VII properties — Describe and explain the displacement reactions of halogens with other halide ions; Predict the properties of other elements in Group VII, given information about the elements (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In halogen displacement reactions, a more reactive halogen (X₂) displaces a less reactive halide ion (Y⁻) from solution, because reactivity decreases down Group VII. This means X must be higher (more reactive) than Y in the group, so X₂ displaces Y⁻ to form Y₂. Since halide ions in aqueous solution are colourless, the Y⁻ solution appears colourless. For example, if X₂ is chlorine (Cl₂) and Y⁻ is bromide (Br⁻), chlorine displaces bromine — the bromide ion solution is colourless, and this matches option B where X₂ is Cl₂ and Y⁻ (bromide) is colourless in aqueous solution.
Answer: (B)

Question 25

Zinc oxide reacts with carbon to produce zinc. Which equation represents this reaction?

A. 2ZnO + C → 2Zn + CO
B. 2ZnO + 2C → 2Zn + 2CO₂
C. ZnO + C → Zn + CO
D. ZnO + 2C → Zn + 2CO₂

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.4: Reactivity series — Describe the ease in obtaining metals from their ores, related to the position of the metal in the reactivity series (Core)
Topic 3.1: Formulae — Construct word equations and symbol equations to show how reactants form products (Core); Construct symbol equations with state symbols (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In this reaction, carbon reduces zinc oxide by removing its oxygen to form carbon monoxide (CO), while zinc metal is produced. Checking the atom balance for option C: Zn — 1 on each side ✓; O — 1 on each side ✓; C — 1 on each side ✓ — the equation is correctly balanced. Option A is unbalanced (1C cannot produce 1CO from 2ZnO without more oxygen accounted for). Options B and D suggest CO₂ as the product, which would require 2 oxygen atoms per carbon, but ZnO only supplies 1 oxygen per formula unit, making CO the correct carbon-containing product in this 1:1 ratio reaction.
Answer: (C)

Question 26

Iron nails are stored in an airtight container.

The nails begin to rust after a few days. How can the rusting of the nails be prevented?

A. Leave the lid off.
B. Replace the air with argon.
C. Put the container in a warm place.
D. Seal the container in a bag.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.5: Corrosion of metals — State the conditions required for the rusting of iron and steel to form hydrated iron(III) oxide; Describe how barrier methods prevent rusting by excluding oxygen or water (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Rusting of iron requires both oxygen and water to be present simultaneously. Even in an airtight container, if air (containing both oxygen and water vapour) is trapped inside, rusting can still occur over time. Replacing the air with argon — a noble gas — eliminates oxygen from the container entirely, removing one of the two essential conditions for rusting and therefore preventing it completely. Option A would introduce more oxygen and water. Option C would actually speed up rusting since higher temperatures increase reaction rates. Option D (sealing in a bag) does not remove the air already present and would not prevent rusting.
Answer: (B)

Question 27

Four substances present in the blast furnace during iron extraction are listed.

1. calcium carbonate
2. carbon dioxide
3. carbon monoxide
4. iron(III) oxide

Which substances are both a reactant and a product during the reactions occurring in the blast furnace?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.6: Extraction of metals — Describe the extraction of iron from hematite in the blast furnace, including the burning of carbon (coke) to produce carbon dioxide, the reduction of carbon dioxide to carbon monoxide, and the reduction of iron(III) oxide by carbon monoxide (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the blast furnace, the key reactions are: (i) C + O₂ → CO₂ (CO₂ is a product); (ii) C + CO₂ → 2CO (CO₂ is a reactant and CO is a product); (iii) Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂ (CO is a reactant and CO₂ is again a product). Therefore, carbon dioxide (2) is both produced in reactions (i) and (iii) and consumed as a reactant in reaction (ii). Carbon monoxide (3) is produced in reaction (ii) and consumed as a reactant in reaction (iii). Both substances act as reactants in some steps and products in others, making option C correct. Calcium carbonate decomposes but is only a reactant, and iron(III) oxide is only a reactant.
Answer: (C)

Question 28

Which test is used to show that a sample of water is pure?

A. Evaporate the water to see if any solids remain.
B. Heat the water to check its boiling point.
C. Test with anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride.
D. Use universal indicator paper to check its pH.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.1: Water — Describe how to test for the purity of water using melting point and boiling point; Describe chemical tests for the presence of water using anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride and anhydrous copper(II) sulfate (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The purity of water is determined by checking its physical properties against the known values for pure water. Pure water boils at exactly 100°C at standard pressure — any dissolved impurities will raise the boiling point above this value (boiling point elevation). Option A only tests for insoluble or non-volatile impurities and misses dissolved gases or volatile impurities. Option C tests for the presence of water (anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride turns from blue to pink) but does not confirm purity. Option D checks pH, which may be 7 for neutral impure water and would not detect non-ionic impurities. Therefore, checking the boiling point is the correct test for purity.
Answer: (B)

Question 29

Which mixture of salts produces an NPK fertiliser?

A. ammonium phosphate + potassium sulfate
B. calcium phosphate + sodium nitrate
C. potassium nitrate + calcium sulfate
D. sodium phosphate + ammonium nitrate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.2: Fertilisers — Describe the use of NPK fertilisers to provide the elements nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium for improved plant growth (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An NPK fertiliser must supply all three essential plant nutrients: Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P) and Potassium (K). Checking option A — ammonium phosphate provides both nitrogen (from NH₄⁺) and phosphorus (from PO₄³⁻), while potassium sulfate provides potassium (from K⁺) — all three elements N, P and K are present ✓. Option B contains no potassium. Option C contains no phosphorus (calcium sulfate provides neither N, P nor K). Option D contains sodium instead of potassium, so K is absent. Only option A successfully provides all three required nutrients simultaneously.
Answer: (A)

Question 30

What are the main products obtained by the fractional distillation of liquid air?

A. carbon dioxide and oxygen
B. carbon dioxide and water vapour
C. nitrogen and oxygen
D. nitrogen and water vapour

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.3: Air quality and climate — State the composition of clean, dry air as approximately 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and the remainder as a mixture of noble gases and carbon dioxide (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Clean, dry air is composed of approximately 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with only trace amounts of noble gases and carbon dioxide. Before air is liquefied for fractional distillation, it is first dried to remove water vapour and carbon dioxide is also removed (as it would solidify and block equipment), so neither water vapour nor carbon dioxide appear as products. Fractional distillation of liquid air then separates it based on different boiling points — nitrogen (b.p. −196°C) boils off first, followed by oxygen (b.p. −183°C) — making nitrogen and oxygen the two main products obtained.
Answer: (C)

Question 31

In which reaction is the rate of reaction increased by light?

A. carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen
B. ethanoic acid + sodium carbonate → sodium ethanoate + water + carbon dioxide
C. ethene + bromine → dibromoethane
D. methane + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.3: Air quality and climate — Describe photosynthesis as the reaction between carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose and oxygen in the presence of chlorophyll and using energy from light (Core)
Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe the effect on the rate of reaction of adding or removing a catalyst, including enzymes (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Photosynthesis is the reaction in which carbon dioxide and water are converted to glucose and oxygen in the presence of chlorophyll, using light energy — the rate of this reaction directly increases with increasing light intensity, as light provides the energy required to drive the reaction. Option B is an acid-carbonate reaction that proceeds without light. Option C (addition of bromine to ethene) is a reaction that occurs in the dark as an electrophilic addition, not requiring light. Option D is combustion of methane, which is initiated by heat (ignition), not light. Therefore, only option A has its rate increased by light.
Answer: (A)

Question 32

The structures of three organic molecules are shown.

Which description of the three molecules is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology — State that a saturated compound has molecules in which all carbon–carbon bonds are single bonds; State that an unsaturated compound has molecules in which one or more carbon–carbon bonds are not single bonds; Identify a functional group as an atom or group of atoms that determines the chemical properties of a homologous series (Core)
Topic 11.4 & 11.5: Alkanes and Alkenes — State the bonding in alkanes as single covalent and in alkenes as including a double carbon–carbon covalent bond (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To classify the three molecules correctly, each must be assessed for saturation and functional group. A saturated molecule contains only single carbon–carbon bonds (alkanes), while an unsaturated molecule contains at least one carbon–carbon double or triple bond (alkenes). The molecules shown include structures that can be identified by their C–C bond types and functional groups such as –OH (alcohol) or –COOH (carboxylic acid). The correct answer identifies which molecules are saturated or unsaturated and names their functional groups or homologous series accurately, matching the descriptions given in the answer table with the structural features visible in each displayed formula.
Answer: (A)

Question 33

Petroleum is separated into fractions by fractional distillation.
Which row describes a use of the named fraction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.3: Fuels — Describe the separation of petroleum into useful fractions by fractional distillation (Core); Name the uses of the fractions including: gasoline/petrol fraction for fuel used in cars, kerosene/paraffin fraction for jet fuel, diesel oil/gas oil fraction for fuel used in diesel engines, fuel oil fraction for fuel used in ships and home heating systems, bitumen fraction for making roads (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Petroleum is separated by fractional distillation into fractions based on the boiling points of the hydrocarbon chains they contain. Each fraction has a specific, well-established industrial use: the kerosene/paraffin fraction is used as jet fuel for aircraft, the diesel oil/gas oil fraction is used in diesel engines, the fuel oil fraction powers ships and home heating systems, and bitumen is used for surfacing roads. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they each pair a fraction with the wrong use — for example, assigning bitumen to lubrication or gasoline to jet fuel would be incorrect. Option D correctly matches the named fraction with its standard industrial application as outlined in the syllabus.
Answer: (D)

Question 34

Which statement about alkanes is correct?

A. They are saturated.
B. They are very reactive.
C. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only.
D. They contain double bonds.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.4: Alkanes — State that the bonding in alkanes is single covalent and that alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons (Core); Describe the properties of alkanes as being generally unreactive, except in terms of combustion and substitution by chlorine (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Alkanes are hydrocarbons with the general formula CₙH₂ₙ₊₂, meaning they contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms (eliminating option C) joined exclusively by single covalent bonds (eliminating option D). Because all carbon–carbon bonds are single bonds, alkanes are classified as saturated compounds, making option A correct. They are also generally unreactive due to the strength and non-polarity of their C–C and C–H single bonds, only reacting under specific conditions such as combustion or photochemical substitution with chlorine, which rules out option B.
Answer: (A)

Question 35

What is the approximate volume of nitrogen in \(200 \mathrm{~cm}^3\) of air?

A. \(20 \mathrm{~cm}^3\)
B. \(40 \mathrm{~cm}^3\)
C. \(80 \mathrm{~cm}^3\)
D. \(160 \mathrm{~cm}^3\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.3: Air quality and climate — State the composition of clean, dry air as approximately 78% nitrogen, N₂, 21% oxygen, O₂ and the remainder as a mixture of noble gases and carbon dioxide, CO₂ (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Clean, dry air is composed of approximately 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and the remaining ~1% being noble gases and carbon dioxide. To find the volume of nitrogen in 200 cm³ of air, we calculate 78% of 200 cm³, which gives 78/100 × 200 = 156 cm³, approximately 160 cm³. Options A and B correspond roughly to 10% and 20% respectively, which are too low, while option C at 80 cm³ represents only 40% of the total volume. Option D at 160 cm³ is the closest approximation to the actual nitrogen content of 78%.
Answer: (D)

Question 36

The apparatus used to investigate the rate at which hydrogen gas is given off when a piece of magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is shown.

Which additional piece of apparatus is needed to determine the rate of reaction?

A. balance
B. burette
C. stop-watch
D. volumetric pipette

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe practical methods for investigating the rate of a reaction including change in mass of a reactant or a product and the formation of a gas (Core); Interpret data, including graphs, from rate of reaction experiments (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Rate of reaction is defined as the change in quantity of a reactant or product per unit time, so both a measurable quantity and a time measurement are required. The apparatus shown already includes a gas syringe to measure the volume of hydrogen gas produced, but to calculate rate (volume of gas ÷ time), a time-measuring instrument is also needed. A stop-watch provides this time measurement, allowing the student to record the volume of gas collected at regular time intervals and calculate the rate. A balance measures mass, a burette and volumetric pipette measure liquid volumes — none of these are needed when the gas syringe is already measuring the gas volume.
Answer: (C)

Question 37

Which diagram shows the displayed formula of ethanol?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.2: Naming organic compounds — Name and draw the displayed formulae of ethanol (Core)
Topic 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology — Draw and interpret the displayed formula of a molecule to show all the atoms and all the bonds (Core); Write and interpret general formulae of alcohols, CₙH₂ₙ₊₁OH (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ethanol has the molecular formula C₂H₅OH, belonging to the alcohol homologous series (CₙH₂ₙ₊₁OH). Its displayed formula must show all atoms and all bonds explicitly: two carbon atoms connected by a single C–C bond, five hydrogen atoms attached to the carbons (three on one carbon, two on the other), and a hydroxyl (–OH) functional group attached to the second carbon. The correct diagram therefore shows a chain of two carbons with the –OH group at one end and all individual C–H bonds drawn out. Any diagram showing a C=C double bond would represent an alkene, while a –COOH group would indicate a carboxylic acid, and a structure with only one carbon would be methanol.
Answer: (C)

Question 38

Ethane is used as a fuel.
Which equation shows the complete combustion of ethane?

A. \(2\mathrm{C_2H_6} + 7\mathrm{O_2} \rightarrow 4\mathrm{CO_2} + 6\mathrm{H_2O}\)
B. \(2\mathrm{C_2H_6} + 5\mathrm{O_2} \rightarrow 4\mathrm{CO} + 6\mathrm{H_2O}\)
C. \(\mathrm{C_2H_4} + 3\mathrm{O_2} \rightarrow 2\mathrm{CO_2} + 2\mathrm{H_2O}\)
D. \(\mathrm{C_2H_4} + 2\mathrm{O_2} \rightarrow 2\mathrm{CO} + 2\mathrm{H_2O}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.4: Alkanes — Describe the properties of alkanes as being generally unreactive, except in terms of combustion and substitution by chlorine (Core)
Topic 3.1: Formulae — Construct word equations and symbol equations to show how reactants form products, including state symbols (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ethane has the molecular formula C₂H₆ (an alkane, CₙH₂ₙ₊₂ with n = 2), so options C and D are immediately eliminated as they show C₂H₄, which is the formula for ethene (an alkene), not ethane. Complete combustion requires sufficient oxygen to convert all carbon to carbon dioxide (CO₂) and all hydrogen to water (H₂O); incomplete combustion produces carbon monoxide (CO) instead, so option B is incorrect. Balancing option A: 2C₂H₆ gives 4C → 4CO₂ and 12H → 6H₂O, requiring 4×2 + 6 = 14 oxygen atoms = 7O₂, confirming the equation is correctly balanced.
Answer: (A)

Question 39

The equation for the reaction of aqueous calcium nitrate and aqueous sodium hydroxide is shown.

\[\mathrm{Ca(NO_3)_2(aq)} + 2\mathrm{NaOH(aq)} \rightarrow \mathrm{Ca(OH)_2(s)} + 2\mathrm{NaNO_3(aq)}\]

Which process is used to remove calcium hydroxide from the mixture?

A. chromatography
B. crystallisation
C. distillation
D. filtration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.4: Separation and purification — Describe and explain methods of separation and purification using filtration (Core); Suggest suitable separation and purification techniques, given information about the substances involved (Core)
Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the general solubility rules for salts; hydroxides are insoluble, except sodium, potassium, ammonium and calcium (partially) (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The state symbol (s) next to Ca(OH)₂ in the equation shows that calcium hydroxide is produced as an insoluble solid precipitate, while sodium nitrate remains dissolved in the aqueous solution. To separate an insoluble solid from a liquid mixture, filtration is the appropriate technique — the solid is retained in the filter paper while the liquid filtrate passes through. Chromatography separates dissolved substances, crystallisation is used to obtain a dissolved solute from solution, and distillation separates liquids based on different boiling points — none of these are suitable for removing an insoluble solid precipitate.
Answer: (D)

Question 40

The results of two tests on aqueous compound \(X\) are given.

What is \(X\)?

A. iron(III) nitrate
B. iron(II) nitrate
C. iron(III) sulfate
D. iron(II) sulfate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.5: Identification of ions and gases — Describe tests using aqueous sodium hydroxide to identify iron(II) and iron(III) cations: iron(II) gives a green precipitate, iron(III) gives a red-brown precipitate, insoluble in excess (Core); Describe tests to identify the anions: sulfate by acidifying with dilute nitric acid then adding aqueous barium nitrate giving a white precipitate; nitrate by reduction with aluminium foil and aqueous sodium hydroxide producing ammonia (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The two tests identify both the cation and the anion present in compound X. Adding aqueous sodium hydroxide to the solution produces a red-brown precipitate that is insoluble in excess, which is the characteristic result for iron(III) ions (Fe³⁺); iron(II) ions would instead give a green precipitate, ruling out options B and D. The second test for the anion shows no white precipitate with acidified barium nitrate solution, confirming the absence of sulfate ions (SO₄²⁻) and eliminating options C and D; the anion is therefore nitrate (NO₃⁻). Combining Fe³⁺ with NO₃⁻ gives iron(III) nitrate, Fe(NO₃)₃.
Answer: (A)
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