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Question 1

The table shows the melting and boiling points of four elements.

Which element is a gas at room temperature and pressure?

 melting point/°Cboiling point/°C
A−101−35
B−759
C10100
D113445

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — State the distinguishing properties of solids, liquids and gases; Describe changes of state in terms of melting, boiling, evaporating, freezing and condensing.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Room temperature is generally considered to be around 25°C. For a substance to exist as a gas at room temperature, its boiling point must be lower than 25°C, meaning it has already fully vaporized. Looking at the provided table, only element A has a boiling point (−35°C) that is below room temperature. Elements B, C, and D all have boiling points above 25°C, so they would still remain in either a liquid or solid state at room temperature.
Answer: (A)

Question 2

Four statements about the arrangement or movement of particles are given.

  1. Particles are packed in a regular arrangement.
  2. Particles are randomly arranged.
  3. Particles move over each other.
  4. Particles vibrate about fixed points.

Which statements describe the particles in a pure solid?

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — Describe the structures of solids, liquids and gases in terms of particle separation, arrangement and motion
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a pure solid, the constituent particles are tightly packed together in a highly ordered, regular three-dimensional lattice structure, which corresponds to statement 1. Because of strong intermolecular forces holding them in place, these particles cannot move freely over one another like they do in a liquid; instead, they simply vibrate about their fixed positions, which aligns with statement 4. Statements 2 and 3 describe the random arrangement and translational movement characteristic of liquids and gases. Thus, only statements 1 and 4 accurately describe the solid state.
Answer: (B)

Question 3

One atom of an element contains 12 electrons, 12 protons and 13 neutrons.

How many nucleons does this atom contain?

A. 12
B. 13
C. 24
D. 25

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Define mass number/nucleon number as the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The nucleon number, also known as the mass number, represents the total number of protons and neutrons located inside the nucleus of an atom. In this given atom, there are 12 protons and 13 neutrons, which combine to give a total of 25 nucleons (12 + 13 = 25). Electrons orbit outside the central nucleus and are not classified as nucleons, meaning they are excluded from this total.
Answer: (D)

Question 4

A diagram representing a mixture of four particles is shown.

Which statement describes the mixture of particles?

A. It is a mixture of two different compounds.
B. It is a mixture of two different elements.
C. It is a mixture of four different compounds.
D. It is a mixture of four different elements.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — Describe the differences between elements, compounds and mixtures (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The particle diagram depicts two distinct molecular chemical structures distributed among four total components, where each individual particle is a molecule made up of more than one type of atom bonded together. Since a molecule with different bonded elements represents a compound, the system is classified as a heterogeneous collection containing exactly two separate chemical compounds. This eliminates the options containing elements because no pure singular atom groups or molecules of matching atoms are isolated, and it eliminates the option of four distinct compounds since pairs of the structures match each other identically.
Answer: (A)

Question 5

Chlorine reacts with sodium to form sodium chloride.

What happens to the sodium atoms during this reaction?

A. They gain electrons to form anions.
B. They lose electrons to form anions.
C. They gain electrons to form cations.
D. They lose electrons to form cations.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Describe the formation of positive ions, known as cations, and negative ions, known as anions (Core); Describe the formation of ionic bonds between elements from Group I and Group VII, including the use of dot-and-cross diagrams (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During the reaction, each metallic sodium atom transfers its single valence electron to a non-metallic chlorine atom to achieve a stable octet structure. By giving away a negatively charged electron, the neutral sodium atom gets oxidized and transforms into a positively charged ion, which is specifically called a cation ($Na^{+}$). Conversely, the chlorine atom gains that electron to become a negatively charged chloride anion ($Cl^{-}$), setting up an electrostatic attraction that yields sodium chloride.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

Nitrogen monoxide, NO, is a simple molecular compound.

Which row shows the properties of nitrogen monoxide?

 boiling pointelectrical conductivity
Ahighgood
Bhighpoor
Clowgood
Dlowpoor

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — Describe in terms of structure and bonding the properties of simple molecular compounds: low melting points and boiling points and poor electrical conductivity (Core); Explain in terms of structure and bonding the properties of simple molecular compounds: low melting points and boiling points in terms of weak intermolecular forces and poor electrical conductivity (Supplement).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Nitrogen monoxide is a simple molecular compound, meaning its structure consists of discrete molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces. Because these weak forces require very little thermal energy to overcome, the compound has a low boiling point. Additionally, simple molecular substances do not have free-moving electrons or mobile ions available to carry an electric charge. As a result, nitrogen monoxide exhibits poor electrical conductivity, perfectly matching the properties listed in row D.
Answer: (D)

Question 7

Metal X is in Group II of the Periodic Table.

X is reacted separately with dilute sulfuric acid and with oxygen.

Which row identifies the products of each reaction?

 products with dilute sulfuric acidproduct with oxygen
AXSO4 and H2XO
BXSO4 and H2XO2
CX2SO4 and H2XO
DX2SO4 and H2XO2

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.1: Arrangement of elements — Describe the relationship between group number and the charge of the ions formed from elements in that group (Core); Explain how the position of an element in the Periodic Table can be used to predict its properties (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Because element X is located in Group II of the Periodic Table, its atoms contain two valency electrons and form stable cations with a $+2$ charge ($X^{2+}$). When reacting with a sulfate ion ($SO_{4}^{2-}$), they combine in a $1:1$ ratio to create the neutral salt $XSO_{4}$ alongside hydrogen gas ($H_{2}$), ruling out options C and D. Similarly, during combustion, the $X^{2+}$ cation pairs up with a oxide anion ($O^{2-}$) to yield a basic oxide with the empirical chemical formula $XO$, which makes option A the correct row.
Answer: (A)

Question 8

What is the relative molecular mass, Mr, of sulfuric acid, H2SO4?

A. 81
B. 82
C. 97
D. 98

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — Define relative molecular mass, Mr, as the sum of the relative atomic masses.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To find the relative molecular mass (Mr) of sulfuric acid (H2SO4), we must sum the relative atomic masses of all atoms present in its chemical formula. According to the Periodic Table, the relative atomic mass of Hydrogen is 1, Sulfur is 32, and Oxygen is 16. Calculating the total mass gives us (2 × 1) + (1 × 32) + (4 × 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98. Therefore, the relative molecular mass of sulfuric acid is exactly 98, making the last option the correct choice.
Answer: (D)

Question 9

The equation for the production of ammonia, NH3, is shown.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

Which mass of nitrogen is required to make 51 tonnes of ammonia?

A. 21 tonnes
B. 25.5 tonnes
C. 42 tonnes
D. 84 tonnes

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 3.3: The mole and the Avogadro constant — Calculate stoichiometric reacting masses, limiting reactants, volumes of gases at r.t.p., volumes of solutions and concentrations of solutions expressed in g/dm³ and mol/dm³ (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
According to the balanced chemical equation, $1\text{ mol}$ of nitrogen gas ($M_r = 28$) reacts completely to produce $2\text{ mol}$ of ammonia ($M_r = 17$). This stoichiometric relationship means that $28\text{ tonnes}$ of nitrogen will always yield $34\text{ tonnes}$ of ammonia ($2 \times 17$). By setting up a direct mass proportion ($\frac{28}{34} = \frac{x}{51}$), solving for $x$ reveals that exactly $42\text{ tonnes}$ of nitrogen gas are needed to generate $51\text{ tonnes}$ of ammonia.
Answer: (C)

Question 10

The diagram shows the apparatus used to electroplate a nickel shape with silver.

Electroplating diagram

Which row identifies the negative electrode, the positive electrode and the electrolyte?

 negative electrodepositive electrodeelectrolyte
Asilver rodnickel shapeaqueous nickel nitrate
Bnickel shapesilver rodaqueous silver nitrate
Cnickel shapesilver rodaqueous nickel nitrate
Dsilver rodnickel shapeaqueous silver nitrate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.1: Electrolysis — State that metal objects are electroplated to improve their appearance and resistance to corrosion; Describe how metals are electroplated
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In electroplating, the object to be plated must be connected as the negative electrode (cathode) so that positively charged metal ions from the solution can gain electrons and deposit onto its surface. The positive electrode (anode) is made of the pure plating metal (silver), which dissolves into the solution to continuously replace the deposited ions. Therefore, the electrolyte must be a soluble salt of the plating metal, such as aqueous silver nitrate, to maintain a steady concentration of silver ions in the bath.
Answer: (B)

Question 11

Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and dilute sulfuric acid are each electrolysed separately using inert electrodes.

Three statements about the electrolysis of these electrolytes are listed.

  1. A gas is produced at each electrode for both electrolytes.
  2. Oxygen is produced at the cathode for both electrolytes.
  3. Hydrogen is produced at the cathode for both electrolytes.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.1: Electrolysis — Identify the products formed at the electrodes and describe the observations made during the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and dilute sulfuric acid using inert electrodes (Core); State that metals or hydrogen are formed at the cathode and that non-metals (other than hydrogen) are formed at the anode (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride, chlorine gas forms at the positive anode while hydrogen gas is evolved at the negative cathode. When dilute sulfuric acid undergoes electrolysis, oxygen gas is liberated at the anode and hydrogen gas is released at the cathode. Consequently, both solutions generate gaseous products at both electrodes (making Statement 1 correct) and specifically produce hydrogen gas at their respective cathodes (making Statement 3 correct).
Answer: (A)

Question 12

Which reaction pathway diagram represents an endothermic reaction?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — Interpret reaction pathway diagrams showing exothermic and endothermic reactions (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An endothermic reaction takes in thermal energy from the surroundings. Because energy is absorbed, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants. On a reaction pathway diagram, this is shown by a curve that starts lower at the reactants and finishes higher at the products. Diagram B correctly illustrates this upward slope, indicating a positive enthalpy change typical of an endothermic process.
Answer: (B)

Question 13

The diagram shows a match.

By striking the match, a chemical reaction takes place.

Which row describes the chemical reaction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — State that an exothermic reaction transfers thermal energy to the surroundings leading to an increase in the temperature of the surroundings (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When a match is struck, friction provides the initial activation energy required to start the reaction, but once burning, the reaction releases significant amounts of thermal and light energy. Chemical reactions that transfer thermal energy to their surroundings, causing an overall release of heat, are classified as exothermic. Therefore, the chemical reaction of a burning match is exothermic because energy is given out to the surroundings.
Answer: (C)

Question 14

Hydrogen peroxide decomposes to form water and oxygen. The equation is shown.

$$2H_2O_2(l) \rightarrow 2H_2O(l) + O_2(g)$$

Manganese(IV) oxide catalyses this reaction.

Which statements about manganese(IV) oxide are correct?

  1. It increases the rate of the reaction.
  2. It increases the total volume of oxygen gas produced at the end of the reaction.
  3. It will have the same mass at the end of the reaction as it does at the start of the reaction.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — State that a catalyst increases the rate of a reaction and is unchanged at the end of a reaction (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Manganese(IV) oxide operates as a catalyst, meaning it successfully increases the overall rate of chemical decomposition by lowering the necessary activation energy (making Statement 1 correct). Because a catalyst remains chemically unaltered by the process, its chemical composition and total mass are completely preserved from start to finish (making Statement 3 correct). However, a catalyst can never alter the ultimate yield or maximum volume of oxygen produced, as the final amount of product is strictly determined by the initial quantity of hydrogen peroxide reactant available (making Statement 2 incorrect).
Answer: (C)

Question 15

Four students collect the gas produced from the reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid. Each student records the time taken to collect a volume of gas.

Which results show the highest average rate of reaction?

A. 15 cm3 of gas collected in 20 seconds
B. 50 cm3 of gas collected in 40 seconds
C. 75 cm3 of gas collected in 80 seconds
D. 90 cm3 of gas collected in 100 seconds

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe practical methods for investigating the rate of a reaction including change in mass of a reactant or a product and the formation of a gas (Core); Interpret data, including graphs, from rate of reaction experiments (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To determine the highest average rate of reaction, calculate the rate of gas production by dividing the volume of gas collected by the time taken for each student. Option A yields a rate of 0.75 cm3/s, Option B yields 1.25 cm3/s, Option C yields approximately 0.94 cm3/s, and Option D yields 0.90 cm3/s. Comparing these values, Option B demonstrates the highest rate of reaction at 1.25 cm3/s, regardless of the total overall volume of gas collected.
Answer: (B)

Question 16

The equation for the reaction between hydrogen and oxygen is shown.

$$2H_2(g) + O_2(g) \rightarrow 2H_2O(g)$$

Which statement explains why this is a redox reaction?

A. Both oxidation and reduction take place.
B. Heat energy is released to the surroundings.
C. Hydrogen is a reactant.
D. The reaction can be reversed.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.4: Redox — Define redox reactions as involving simultaneous oxidation and reduction (Core); Identify oxidation and reduction in redox reactions (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
By definition, a redox process is characterized as a chemical reaction where both reduction and oxidation take place simultaneously[cite: 446, 447]. In this specific mechanism, hydrogen atoms undergo oxidation by gaining oxygen and losing electrons to shift from an oxidation state of 0 to +1[cite: 448, 452, 454]. Concurrently, oxygen molecules experience reduction by losing their uncombined elemental status and gaining electrons to transition from 0 to a -2 state, confirming that option A is the correct answer[cite: 455, 458, 459].
Answer: (A)

Question 17

Which statements about dilute ethanoic acid are correct?

  1. It has a pH of 8.
  2. It is an organic compound.
  3. It turns universal indicator orange-yellow.
  4. It reacts with magnesium to produce carbon dioxide.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe how to compare hydrogen ion concentration, neutrality, relative acidity and relative alkalinity in terms of colour and pH using universal indicator paper (Core); Define a strong acid as an acid that is completely dissociated in aqueous solution and a weak acid as an acid that is partially dissociated in aqueous solution (Supplement); State that ethanoic acid is a weak acid (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ethanoic acid is a carbon-containing molecule, classifying it as an organic compound (Statement 2). Because it only partially dissociates in aqueous solutions, it is a weak acid that maintains an acidic pH below 7 (ruling out Statement 1) and shifts universal indicator paper to an orange-yellow shade (Statement 3). Finally, when reacting with a reactive metal like magnesium, an acid forms a salt and hydrogen gas rather than carbon dioxide, meaning Statement 4 is incorrect and confirming option C as the correct combination.
Answer: (C)

Question 18

An aqueous solution of Z turns universal indicator paper purple.

Which row identifies the colour of methyl orange and of thymolphthalein when they are added separately to an aqueous solution of Z?

 methyl orangethymolphthalein
Ayellowblue
Byellowcolourless
Credblue
Dredcolourless

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe the characteristic properties of bases and alkalies, including their effects on universal indicator, methyl orange, and thymolphthalein
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Universal indicator paper shifting to purple confirms that solution Z is a strong alkali with an elevated pH ($\text{pH} \approx 12\text{–}14$). Under Cambridge IGCSE guidelines, individual indicators display distinct, fixed color profiles across different chemical mediums: methyl orange turns red in acidic solutions but becomes yellow in neutral or alkaline conditions, while thymolphthalein remains completely colourless in acidic or neutral environments and transitions to a vivid blue in highly alkaline ranges. Consequently, testing an alkaline solution like Z yields yellow with methyl orange and blue with thymolphthalein, selecting row A as the single correct suite of configurations.
Answer: (A)

Question 19

Which row describes the solubility of lead(II) chloride and lead(II) sulfate in water?

 lead(II) chloridelead(II) sulfate
Asolublesoluble
Bsolubleinsoluble
Cinsolublesoluble
Dinsolubleinsoluble

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the general solubility rules for salts: (c) chlorides are soluble, except lead and silver; (d) sulfates are soluble, except barium, calcium and lead (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
According to standard solubility guidelines, most chloride salts dissolve easily in an aqueous medium, but lead(II) chloride stands out as a clear exception that remains insoluble. In a similar manner, while the majority of sulfate salts are highly soluble, lead(II) sulfate is explicitly classified as an exception that forms an insoluble precipitate. Because both of these specific chemical compounds fail to dissolve significantly in water, they are both correctly designated as insoluble.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

Four different groups of oxides are shown.

  1. MgO   FeO   CuO
  2. CaO   SO2   TiO2
  3. PbO   CaO   Cl2O
  4. NO2   Br2O   P2O5

Which statement about these groups of oxides is correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 contain basic oxides only.
B. 2, 3 and 4 contain basic oxides only.
C. 1 contains basic oxides only, and 4 contains acidic oxides only.
D. 1 contains acidic oxides only, and 4 contains basic oxides only.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.2: Oxides — Classify oxides as acidic or basic, related to metallic and non-metallic character (Core).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Oxides are classified as acidic or basic based on their non-metallic or metallic character, respectively. Group 1 consists entirely of metallic oxides (Mg, Fe, Cu), meaning they are all basic oxides. Group 4 consists entirely of non-metallic oxides (N, Br, P), meaning they are all acidic oxides. Groups 2 and 3 contain a mixture of acidic, basic, and amphoteric oxides, which makes option C the only correct statement.
Answer: (C)

Question 21

Four steps in the preparation of a soluble salt from a dilute acid and a solid metal oxide are listed.

  1. Warm the dilute acid.
  2. Evaporate the solution to half of its volume and allow to cool.
  3. Add excess metal oxide.
  4. Filter to remove any unreacted solid.

What is the correct order for these steps?

A. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
B. 1 → 3 → 4 → 2
C. 3 → 1 → 2 → 4
D. 3 → 4 → 1 → 2

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the preparation, separation and purification of soluble salts by reaction of an acid with excess insoluble base (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To safely synthesize a soluble salt from an acid and an insoluble base, you start by warming the dilute acid to increase the rate of reaction[cite: 517, 1068]. Next, adding the solid metal oxide in excess ensures that every molecule of acid is completely neutralized[cite: 520]. The mixture is then filtered to cleanly separate and remove the unreacted solid oxide residue from the soluble salt filtrate[cite: 517, 938, 939]. Finally, heating the filtrate to evaporate the water to the crystallization point and letting it cool allows pure crystals to systematically form[cite: 968].
Answer: (B)

Question 22

Which pair of elements react together most violently?

A. chlorine and lithium
B. chlorine and potassium
C. iodine and lithium
D. iodine and potassium

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.2: Group I properties — Describe the Group I alkali metals, lithium, sodium and potassium, as relatively soft metals with general trends down the group, limited to: increasing reactivity.
Topic 8.3: Group VII properties — Describe the Group VII halogens, chlorine, bromine and iodine, as diatomic non-metals with general trends down the group, limited to: decreasing reactivity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To determine the most violent reaction, we must identify the most reactive elements from both groups involved. In Group I, the reactivity of alkali metals increases as you move down the group, making potassium significantly more reactive than lithium. Conversely, in Group VII, the reactivity of halogens decreases down the group, meaning chlorine is much more reactive than iodine. Therefore, combining the most reactive alkali metal available (potassium) with the most reactive halogen available (chlorine) will produce the most vigorous and violent chemical reaction. The combination of potassium and chlorine perfectly fits these established periodic trends.
Answer: (B)

Question 23

Rubidium is an element in Group I of the Periodic Table.

Which row describes a physical property and a chemical property of rubidium?

 physical propertychemical property
Ahardreacts with water
Bharddoes not react with water
Csoftreacts with water
Dsoftdoes not react with water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.2: Group I properties — Describe the Group I alkali metals, lithium, sodium and potassium, as relatively soft metals with general trends down the group, limited to: decreasing melting point, increasing density, increasing reactivity (Core); Predict the properties of other elements in Group I, given information about the elements (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As an alkali metal located in Group I of the Periodic Table, rubidium shares the characteristic group family features of being a relatively soft metal that can be easily cut with a knife[cite: 549, 550]. Furthermore, because chemical reactivity with water systematically increases moving down Group I [cite: 552], rubidium reacts exceptionally vigorously and explosively with water to release flammable hydrogen gas and produce a highly alkaline hydroxide solution[cite: 496, 601]. This combination of a soft texture and highly reactive nature means that row C perfectly contrasts its properties.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Which row describes the state and colour of bromine at room temperature and pressure?

 statecolour
Aliquidred-brown
Bliquidgrey-black
Csolidred-brown
Dsolidgrey-black

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.3: Group VII properties — State the appearance of the halogens at r.t.p. as: (a) chlorine, a pale yellow-green gas (b) bromine, a red-brown liquid (c) iodine, a grey-black solid (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The halogens are a group of non-metals in Group VII of the Periodic Table that exhibit distinct physical properties and a trend in their states of matter at room temperature. As we move down the group, the melting and boiling points increase, causing the physical state to change from gas to liquid to solid. Chlorine is a pale yellow-green gas, while iodine is a grey-black solid. Bromine, positioned between them, is uniquely a dense liquid at room temperature and pressure. Furthermore, it possesses a very characteristic, strong red-brown colour, making option A the only correct and complete description of its physical state and appearance.
Answer: (A)

Question 25

Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which element is a metal?

Periodic Table diagram

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.1: Arrangement of elements — Describe the change from metallic to non-metallic character across a period (Core); Explain how the position of an element in the Periodic Table can be used to predict its properties (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the grid arrangement of the Periodic Table, elements reveal a distinct transition from metallic to non-metallic character as you move across a period from left to right. This structural organization places highly conductive, malleable metallic elements on the far-left and center positions, while non-metals populate the right side. Consequently, an element marked on the left section of a period belongs to the metal category, perfectly distinguishing it from the non-metallic options on the right.
Answer: (A)

Question 26

Which compound is made from elements that are all in the same period?

A. Al2(SO4)3
B. C2H5OH
C. LiNO3
D. Na3AlF6

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.1: Arrangement of elements — Describe the Periodic Table as an arrangement of elements in periods and groups and in order of increasing proton number/atomic number (Core); State that the number of occupied electron shells is equal to the period number (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To identify the correct compound, we must determine the period (horizontal row) for each constituent element using the Periodic Table[cite: 540, 1229]. Lithium nitrate ($\text{LiNO}_3$) is composed of lithium ($\text{Li}$), nitrogen ($\text{N}$), and oxygen ($\text{O}$), all of which possess exactly two occupied electron shells and reside entirely within Period 2[cite: 221, 1229]. The remaining options contain elements spanning different horizontal rows, such as oxygen ($\text{O}$) in Period 2 mixed with Period 3 elements like aluminum ($\text{Al}$), sulfur ($\text{S}$), or sodium ($\text{Na}$)[cite: 1229].
Answer: (C)

Question 27

Silver metal is separately tested with cold water, with steam and with dilute hydrochloric acid.

Which row identifies the tests that show the chemical reactivity of silver?

 cold watersteamdilute hydrochloric acid
A
B
C
D
key: ✓ = reaction, ✗ = no reaction

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.4: Reactivity series — State the order of the reactivity series as: potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium, aluminium, carbon, zinc, iron, hydrogen, copper, silver, gold (Core); Describe the reactions, if any, of: magnesium, zinc, iron, copper, silver and gold with dilute hydrochloric acid and explain these reactions in terms of the position of the metals in the reactivity series (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Silver is situated near the very bottom of the reactivity series, placing it significantly below hydrogen. Because of this low position, silver is an extremely unreactive metal under standard laboratory conditions. When placed in cold water or exposed to steam, silver lacks the necessary reactivity to displace hydrogen and form a metal oxide or hydroxide, resulting in no observable reaction. Similarly, silver cannot displace hydrogen ions from dilute hydrochloric acid, meaning no hydrogen gas or aqueous salt will be produced. Therefore, all three tests will yield a negative result, as accurately represented by the three crosses in the final row.
Answer: (D)

Question 28

Which statement about the extraction of iron from hematite is correct?

A. Air is blown into the blast furnace to oxidise the molten iron.
B. Carbon dioxide is reduced by coke to carbon monoxide.
C. Hematite is oxidised by carbon to molten iron.
D. The slag produced is denser than molten iron.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.6: Extraction of metals — Describe the extraction of iron from hematite in the blast furnace, limited to: the reduction of carbon dioxide to carbon monoxide (Core); State the symbol equations for the extraction of iron from hematite (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Inside a blast furnace, carbon dioxide gas rises and reacts with fresh incoming hot coke (carbon), causing the carbon dioxide to lose oxygen and undergo reduction into carbon monoxide gas ($C + CO_2 \rightarrow 2CO$). This makes statement B correct, as carbon monoxide serves as the primary reducing agent for the furnace. The remaining options are false because hematite undergoes reduction rather than oxidation, air is injected to combust coke to provide thermal energy rather than oxidize iron, and slag floats safely on top because it is significantly less dense than molten iron.
Answer: (B)

Question 29

What is an alloy?

A. a compound of two metallic elements
B. a compound of metallic and non-metallic elements
C. a mixture of a metal and at least one other element
D. a pure metallic element

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.3: Alloys and their properties — Describe an alloy as a mixture of a metal with other elements, including brass as a mixture of copper and zinc and stainless steel as a mixture of iron and other elements such as chromium, nickel and carbon [cite: 617, 618, 619]
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An alloy is formally defined as a physical mixture containing a primary metal combined with one or more other elements[cite: 617]. Because its components are physically mixed rather than chemically combined, it behaves as a mixture rather than a compound, which rules out options A and B[cite: 617]. These added elements can be other metals, such as zinc combined with copper to yield brass, or non-metals, like carbon blended with iron to manufacture steel[cite: 618, 619], meaning option C is the correct answer.
Answer: (C)

Question 30

The diagram shows an experiment to investigate how paint affects the rusting of iron.

Rusting experiment diagram

What happens to the water level in tubes S and T?

 tube Stube T
Afallsrises
Bno changerises
Crisesfalls
Drisesno change

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.5: Corrosion of metals — State the conditions required for the rusting of iron and steel to form hydrated iron(III) oxide (Core); State some common barrier methods, including painting, greasing and coating with plastic (Core); Describe how barrier methods prevent rusting by excluding oxygen or water (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In tube S, the unpainted iron nail reacts freely with the trapped oxygen gas and water vapor, actively consuming oxygen as it corrodes into hydrated iron(III) oxide[cite: 642]. This active uptake of gaseous oxygen reduces the internal air pressure inside tube S, causing atmospheric pressure to push the water level upward[cite: 1119]. Conversely, in tube T, the protective layer of paint acts as a barrier that blocks oxygen and moisture from contacting the metal [cite: 642], successfully preventing corrosion and leaving the air volume and water level unchanged[cite: 1119].
Answer: (D)

Question 31

Which statement describes clean, dry air?

A. It is a compound containing about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen only.
B. It is a mixture of about 21% nitrogen and 78% oxygen only.
C. It is a mixture of several gases, including nitrogen and oxygen.
D. It is a compound containing nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide and other gases.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.3: Air quality and climate — State the composition of clean, dry air as approximately 78% nitrogen, N₂, 21% oxygen, O₂ and the remainder as a mixture of noble gases and carbon dioxide, CO₂ (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Clean, dry air is a physical mixture of different gases that are not chemically bonded together, meaning options A and D are incorrect because they label it a compound. According to the syllabus, air is composed of approximately 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, meaning the proportions given in option B are reversed. Therefore, option C is the only completely accurate description because it properly identifies air as a mixture containing multiple gaseous components including nitrogen and oxygen.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

Which word equation describes photosynthesis?

A. carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen
B. glucose + water → carbon dioxide + oxygen
C. carbon dioxide + oxygen → glucose + water
D. glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.3: Air quality and climate — Describe photosynthesis as the reaction between carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose and oxygen in the presence of chlorophyll and using energy from light (Core); State the word equation for photosynthesis, carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Photosynthesis is an endothermic chemical process where green plants trap light energy using chlorophyll to fuel a reaction between carbon dioxide and water. This metabolic path converts inorganic raw materials specifically into organic chemical storage as glucose, releasing gaseous oxygen back into the atmosphere as a vital byproduct. Consequently, the literal word representation for this synthesis is written out as carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen, matching row A perfectly.
Answer: (A)

Question 33

Some adverse effects caused by air pollutants are listed.

  • acid rain
  • photochemical smog
  • respiratory problems

Which air pollutant contributes to all three of these adverse effects?

A. carbon monoxide
B. oxides of nitrogen
C. methane
D. particulates

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.3: Air quality and climate — State the adverse effect of these air pollutants, limited to: oxides of nitrogen: acid rain, photochemical smog and respiratory problems (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
According to the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry syllabus, oxides of nitrogen are specifically identified as air pollutants that lead to acid rain, photochemical smog, and respiratory problems. Other listed pollutants only cause a subset of these issues; for example, carbon monoxide is primarily a toxic gas, methane is associated with global warming, and particulates lead to respiratory problems and cancer but not smog or acid rain. Therefore, oxides of nitrogen are the unique pollutant responsible for all three specified environmental and health hazards.
Answer: (B)

Question 34

Petroleum is an important raw material that is separated into useful products.

Which terms describe petroleum and the method used to separate it?

 descriptionseparation method
A)compoundcracking
B)compoundfractional distillation
C)mixturecracking
D)mixturefractional distillation

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.3: Fuels — State that petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons; Describe the separation of petroleum into useful fractions by fractional distillation (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Petroleum is naturally defined as a complex mixture of different hydrocarbons with varying chain lengths. To isolate these chemical groups into distinct, smaller portions called fractions, the physical process of fractional distillation is utilized. Cracking, on the other hand, is a subsequent chemical breakdown process used to convert large alkanes into smaller alkanes and alkenes rather than separating the raw oil. Therefore, option D accurately characterizes petroleum as a mixture and its key industrial separation method as fractional distillation.
Answer: (D)

Question 35

Which statements about homologous series are correct?

  1. All carboxylic acids have similar chemical properties.
  2. All alcohols have the same molecular mass.
  3. Ethane and ethene are members of the same homologous series.
  4. Ethane and propane are members of the same homologous series.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology — State that a homologous series is a family of similar compounds with similar chemical properties due to the presence of the same functional group (Core); Describe the general characteristics of a homologous series as: having the same functional group, having the same general formula, differing from one member to the next by a -CH₂- unit, displaying a trend in physical properties, sharing similar chemical properties (Supplement)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A homologous series is defined as a family of organic compounds that share the same functional group and general formula, which gives them highly similar chemical properties. Successive members of a series differ from one another by a structural $-CH_2-$ unit, meaning that they have progressively increasing relative molecular masses rather than identical ones. Ethane and propane are both saturated hydrocarbons belonging to the alkane family, whereas ethene contains a double bond and belongs to the alkene family. Therefore, statements 1 and 4 are correct, while statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Answer: (B)

Question 36

The formulae of two organic compounds, P and Q, are shown.

Organic structures P and Q

Which type of organic compounds are P and Q?

 PQ
Aalcoholalkane
Balcoholalkene
Ccarboxylic acidalkane
Dcarboxylic acidalkene

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology — Identify a functional group as an atom or group of atoms that determine the chemical properties of a homologous series[cite: 760]; Write and interpret general formulae of compounds in the same homologous series, limited to: alkanes, alkenes, alcohols, carboxylic acids [cite: 754, 755, 756, 757, 758, 759]
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Compound P contains the $-\text{OH}$ functional group bound to an aliphatic carbon chain, which directly defines its chemical family as an alcohol[cite: 758, 760]. Compound Q features a distinct carbon-carbon covalent double bond ($\text{C}=\text{C}$), which establishes its identity as an unsaturated alkene homologous series member[cite: 757, 772]. Consequently, row B is the only selection that accurately identifies the structural classifications for both organic compounds[cite: 757, 758].
Answer: (B)

Question 37

Which fuel is manufactured by fermentation?

A. diesel
B. ethanol
C. hydrogen
D. kerosene

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.6: Alcohols — Describe the manufacture of ethanol by fermentation of aqueous glucose at 25–35°C in the presence of yeast and in the absence of oxygen (Core); State the uses of ethanol as a fuel (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ethanol is widely manufactured through the biological fermentation of aqueous glucose solutions using enzymes in yeast, and it is a key substance utilized as a renewable fuel source. In contrast, diesel and kerosene are fossil fuel fractions isolated directly from petroleum via physical fractional distillation in a fractionating column rather than biological pathways. Hydrogen can be produced via alternative industrial methods, such as the chemical cracking of large alkane molecules alongside alkenes. Therefore, option B is the only substance appropriately matched to its method of preparation.
Answer: (B)

Question 38

Which statement about the disposal of waste plastics is correct?

A. They are put in landfill sites, where they quickly decompose.
B. They are burned to produce non-toxic products.
C. They accumulate in oceans, where they are harmful to aquatic life.
D. They are dissolved in water and pumped into the sea.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.8: Polymers — Describe how the properties of plastics have implications for their disposal (Core); Describe the environmental challenges caused by plastics, limited to: disposal in landfill sites, accumulation in oceans, formation of toxic gases from burning (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Plastics are non-biodegradable synthetic polymers that persist in the environment for hundreds of years instead of decomposing quickly. When plastics find their way into water systems, they accumulate heavily in marine environments where they pose severe entanglement and ingestion hazards to aquatic organisms. Incineration of plastic waste is also an environmental challenge because it releases highly toxic and hazardous gases rather than safe products. Finally, because plastics are completely insoluble in water, they cannot be disposed of by being dissolved and pumped away.
Answer: (C)

Question 39

Dyes are coloured substances.

The chromatogram of substance X and four different dyes, 1, 2, 3 and 4, is shown.

Substance X contains only two of the dyes 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Which two dyes are present in substance X?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.3: Chromatography — Interpret simple chromatograms to identify unknown substances by comparison with known substances; pure and impure substances (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In paper chromatography, components within a mixture are separated based on their solubility as they travel up the paper. To identify which specific substances are present in an unknown sample, the height of its separated spots is compared horizontally with the spots of pure reference materials. In this chromatogram, the two spots produced by substance X align perfectly at the exact same heights as the individual spots for dye 2 and dye 3. This horizontal match confirms that substance X is composed exclusively of those two components, making option C the correct answer.
Answer: (C)

Question 40

The results of two tests on substance G are listed.

  • A flame test produces a yellow flame.
  • Substance G is added to aqueous sodium hydroxide and powdered aluminium and warmed carefully. A gas is given off which turns damp red litmus paper blue.

What is G?

A. potassium chloride
B. potassium nitrate
C. sodium chloride
D. sodium nitrate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.5: Identification of ions and gases — Describe tests to identify the anions: nitrate, $\text{NO}_3^-$, reduction with aluminium foil and aqueous sodium hydroxide and then testing for ammonia gas (Core); Describe the use of a flame test to identify the cations: sodium, $\text{Na}^+$, potassium, $\text{K}^+$ (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The yellow flame test confirms the presence of sodium ions ($\text{Na}^+$), as potassium ions produce a characteristic lilac flame. When substance G is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide and aluminium foil, the generation of an alkaline gas (ammonia) that turns damp red litmus blue specifically identifies the presence of the nitrate anion ($\text{NO}_3^-$). Combining these qualitative results concludes that substance G must be sodium nitrate. Therefore, chloride options (A and C) and potassium options (A and B) are completely ruled out.
Answer: (D)
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