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Question 1

The table shows some information about the three states of matter.

 particle separationparticle arrangementtype of motion
1touching with some particles having spaces between themrandomslide past each other at low speed
2particles are far apartrandomrapid motion in straight lines
3touching with very little space between the particlesregularvibration only

Which row is correct?

 123
Agasliquidsolid
Bliquidsolidgas
Cliquidgassolid
Dsolidgasliquid

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — Describe the structures of solids, liquids and gases in terms of particle separation, arrangement and motion
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Evaluating the structural criteria confirms that Description 1 matches a liquid, where particles touch but remain randomly ordered and slide over one another. Description 2 identifies a gas, characterized by well-separated particles moving rapidly and randomly in straight paths. Description 3 corresponds to a solid, where particles are packed in a fixed, regular lattice structure and can only vibrate about their fixed positions. Therefore, row C presents the correct sequence for these three physical phases.
Answer: (C)

Question 2

Which arrow represents evaporation?

Changes of state diagram

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — Describe changes of state in terms of melting, boiling, evaporating, freezing and condensing
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Evaporation is defined as the transitional physical process in which a substance changes its state from a liquid into a gas. In standard phase change diagrams, this transformation is explicitly represented by a directional arrow leading away from the liquid domain and pointing directly toward the gaseous phase. Consequently, identifying the specific arrow that maps this exact liquid-to-gas transition yields the correct choice.
Answer: (B)

Question 3

In which states of matter does diffusion occur readily?

A. gases and liquids
B. gases only
C. liquids and solids
D. solids only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.2: Diffusion — Describe and explain diffusion in terms of kinetic particle theory
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Diffusion relies entirely on the freedom of movement and kinetic energy of constituent particles to allow different substances to mix dynamically. In gases, particles are highly energetic, widely separated, and move rapidly in random paths, allowing quick intermingling, while liquid particles are also free to slide past one another and diffuse at a moderate pace. Because particles in a solid are bound in fixed, rigid lattice arrays and can only vibrate, they lack the translation motion required for effective diffusion, making option A the correct choice.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

Which statement about the boxes P, Q and R is correct?

Particle diagrams of P, Q, and R

A. Box P contains two compounds, and box R contains two elements.
B. Box P contains two elements, and box Q contains a mixture.
C. Box P contains two elements, and box Q contains one compound.
D. Box Q contains two compounds, and box R contains a mixture.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — Describe the differences between elements, compounds and mixtures
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In standard Cambridge particle diagrams, single uncombined spheres or diatomic pairs of the exact same color identify unique pure elements, while different spheres chemically bonded together signify a single compound. Box P displays separate single atoms or diatomic elements belonging to two distinct elements side-by-side, while Box Q contains identical multi-colored molecules that constitute a single, chemically unified compound. Because Box R combines different types of independent molecules or atoms that are not chemically bonded together, it represents a physical mixture.
Answer: (C)

Question 5

Which information about an element is given by its atomic number?

A. the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of an element
B. the number of particles in the nucleus of an atom of an element
C. the relative mass of one atom of an element
D. the total number of particles in one atom of an element

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Define proton number/atomic number as the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom
▶️ Answer/Explanation
By fundamental definition, the atomic number (also known as the proton number) specifies the exact number of protons located inside the central nucleus of an atom. Counting the total particles in the nucleus yields the mass number (protons plus neutrons) rather than the atomic number, ruling out option B. Because the number of protons uniquely dictates the identity and position of an element on the Periodic Table, option A stands as the only correct statement.
Answer: (A)

Question 6

The symbols represent four atoms. The letters used are not the usual atomic symbols.

$$_{20}^{40}\text{W} \quad _{19}^{40}\text{X} \quad _{20}^{46}\text{Y} \quad _{22}^{46}\text{Z}$$

Which atoms are isotopes of the same element?

A. W and X
B. W and Y
C. X and Y
D. Y and Z

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.3: Isotopes — Define isotopes as different atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons; Interpret and use symbols for atoms, e.g. $^{12}\text{C}$, and ions, e.g. $^{35}\text{Cl}^-$
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes are formally defined as different atoms belonging to the same chemical element that share an identical proton/atomic number (subscript) but possess different nucleon/mass numbers (superscript) due to a variation in their neutron count. Examining the provided notation reveals that atom $\text{W}$ and atom $\text{Y}$ both share an identical atomic number of 20, confirming they are variants of the same base element. Because their nucleon numbers differ explicitly between 40 and 46, they fit the criteria for isotopes perfectly, which establishes option B as the correct answer.
Answer: (B)

Question 7

Covalent bonds are formed when electrons are ……1…… .

Most covalent compounds have ……2…… electrical conductivity.

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

 12
Asharedhigh
Bsharedlow
Ctransferredhigh
Dtransferredlow

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — State that a covalent bond is formed when a pair of electrons is shared between two atoms leading to noble gas electronic configurations; Describe in terms of structure and bonding the properties of simple molecular compounds: poor electrical conductivity
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A covalent bond is defined by the syllabus as a bond formed when pairs of electrons are shared between non-metal atoms to acquire a stable noble gas configuration. Furthermore, simple molecular covalent substances exhibit poor or low electrical conductivity because they exist as neutral molecules without localized free electrons or mobile ions available to transport electrical charge. Combining a shared mechanism for gap 1 with low conductivity for gap 2 makes row B the correct solution.
Answer: (B)

Question 8

Which row describes the structure and a use of diamond?

 structureuse
Aionicin cutting tools
Bionicas a lubricant
Cgiant covalentin cutting tools
Dgiant covalentas a lubricant

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.6: Giant covalent structures — Giant covalent structures of graphite and diamond; Relate the structures and bonding of graphite and diamond to their uses, limited to: graphite as a lubricant and as an electrode, diamond in cutting tools
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Diamond is an allotrope of carbon featuring an extensive network where each carbon atom forms four strong localized bonds in a tetrahedral giant covalent structure. This interlocking, fully bonded framework prevents individual layers from sliding, making diamond exceptionally rigid and ideal for cutting tools rather than acting as a slippery lubricant. Because it lacks regular repeating positive and negative ions, its arrangement is entirely non-ionic, confirming row C as the only correct structural and functional match.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

Which symbol equation represents the reaction between aqueous sodium hydroxide and dilute sulfuric acid?

A. Na₂OH + H₂SO₄ → 2NaSO₄ + H₂O
B. Na(OH)₂ + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O
C. 2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → 2NaSO₄ + 2H₂O
D. 2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe the neutralisation reaction between an acid and an alkali to produce water (Core)
• Topic 3.1: Formulae — Construct word equations and symbol equations to show how reactants form products, including state symbols (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To determine the correct chemical equation, we must first establish the correct chemical chemical formulas based on the ionic charges of the components ($Na^{+}$, $OH^{-}$, $H^{+}$, and $SO_{4}^{2-}$). Sodium hydroxide is written as $NaOH$ and sodium sulfate must be balanced as $Na_{2}SO_{4}$ to account for the $-2$ charge on the sulfate ion, which instantly eliminates options A and C. Balancing the atoms on both sides requires two moles of alkali to neutralize one mole of sulfuric acid, which leaves option D as the only stoichiometrically valid formula choice.
Answer: (D)

Question 10

What is the relative formula mass of magnesium bromide?

A. 47
B. 82
C. 104
D. 184

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — Define relative molecular mass, $M_r$, as the sum of the relative atomic masses. Relative formula mass, $M_r$, will be used for ionic compounds
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Because magnesium is a Group II metal ($Mg^{2+}$) and bromine is a Group VII halogen ($Br^-$), they cross charges to form an ionic compound with the chemical formula $MgBr_2$. Referencing the provided Periodic Table, the relative atomic mass of magnesium is 24 and bromine is 80. Summing these values up based on the stoichiometric ratio gives $24 + (2 \times 80)$, which computes precisely to a relative formula mass of 184, validating choice D.
Answer: (D)

Question 11

Three substances are listed.

  1. solid copper
  2. aqueous sodium bromide
  3. solid lead(II) bromide

Which substances conduct electricity?

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 2.7: Metallic bonding — Explain in terms of structure and bonding the properties of metals: good electrical conductivity
• Topic 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Describe the properties of ionic compounds: good electrical conductivity when aqueous or molten and poor when solid
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Solid copper is a metal that conducts electricity efficiently due to its regular lattice structure surrounded by a highly mobile ‘sea’ of delocalised electrons. Aqueous sodium bromide is an ionic compound dissolved in water, meaning its ionic crystal network has broken down to let individual ions move freely and carry charge under an electric potential. Conversely, solid lead(II) bromide cannot conduct electricity because its constituent ions are securely locked in a rigid, fixed giant lattice structure, rendering them unable to move freely to transport current. This rules out options A, C, and D, making option B correct.
Answer: (B)

Question 12

Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells can be used to power cars.

Which processes produce the fuel of a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?

  1. the cracking of hydrocarbons
  2. the electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid
  3. photosynthesis
  4. the electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.2: Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells — State that a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell uses hydrogen and oxygen to produce electricity with water as the only chemical product
• Topic 11.5: Alkenes — Describe the manufacture of alkenes and hydrogen by the cracking of larger alkane molecules using a high temperature and a catalyst
• Topic 4.1: Electrolysis — Identify the products formed at the electrodes and describe the observations made during the electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The primary fuel required to power a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is hydrogen gas. Catalytic industrial cracking of larger, heavy alkane fractions breaks carbon bonds to generate both smaller, highly demanded alkenes and hydrogen gas as a valuable chemical byproduct (Process 1). Furthermore, during the laboratory-scale electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid, positive hydronium ions readily migrate to the negative cathode where they gain electrons to liberate pure hydrogen gas (Process 2). Because photosynthesis only yields glucose and oxygen , and industrial aluminum smelting yields pure aluminum metal along with oxygen, option A stands as the only correct sequence choice.
Answer: (A)

Question 13

Molten sodium sulfide, Na2S, is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

Which row identifies the product at each electrode?

 cathodeanode
Asodiumsulfur
Bsulfursodium
Chydrogensulfur
Dsodiumhydrogen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 4.1: Electrolysis — Predict the identity of the products at each electrode for the electrolysis of a binary compound in the molten state; State that metals or hydrogen are formed at the cathode and that non-metals (other than hydrogen) are formed at the anode
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Because the electrolyte is in a binary molten state, it contains only sodium cations ($\text{Na}^{+}$) and sulfide anions ($\text{S}^{2-}$) without any competing hydrogen or hydroxide ions from water. During the electrolytic process, the positive sodium ions migrate to the negative cathode where they gain electrons to yield pure sodium metal. Simultaneously, the negative sulfide ions travel to the positive anode where they lose electrons to undergo oxidation into non-metallic elemental sulfur, matching row A perfectly.
Answer: (A)

Question 14

The temperature of the water in two beakers, X and Y, is measured as 21.5°C.

5 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in the water in beaker X. The temperature changes to 18.0°C.

5 g of calcium oxide is dissolved in the water in beaker Y. The temperature changes to 29.4°C.

Which types of process are occurring in beakers X and Y?

 XY
Aendothermicendothermic
Bendothermicexothermic
Cexothermicendothermic
Dexothermicexothermic

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — State that an exothermic reaction transfers thermal energy to the surroundings leading to an increase in the temperature of the surroundings; State that an endothermic reaction takes in thermal energy from the surroundings leading to a decrease in the temperature of the surroundings
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In beaker X, dissolving sodium chloride causes the temperature to decrease from 21.5°C to 18.0°C, meaning the process absorbs thermal energy from its local water surroundings and is categorized as endothermic. In contrast, dissolving calcium oxide in beaker Y drives the temperature up to 29.4°C, meaning it actively transfers thermal energy out to the surroundings via an exothermic path. Consequently, row B is the only option that correctly classifies the thermodynamic behavior observed within each beaker.
Answer: (B)

Question 15

Which process involves a chemical change?

A. adding sodium chloride to water
B. adding magnesium to hydrochloric acid
C. heating solid iodine until it turns into a gas
D. melting lead

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.1: Physical and chemical changes — Identify physical and chemical changes, and describe the differences between them
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A chemical change is fundamentally distinguished by the rearrangement of atoms to synthesize entirely new chemical substances, whereas physical changes simply alter state or appearance without breaking bonds. Adding magnesium to hydrochloric acid triggers a vigorous single-displacement reaction that yields magnesium chloride salt and effervescent hydrogen gas ($\text{Mg} + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{MgCl}_2 + \text{H}_2$), confirming a chemical transformation. Dissolving table salt, subliming solid iodine crystal, and melting lead metal are all reversible phase transformations or physical states where the original chemical formula remains intact, validating option B.
Answer: (B)

Question 16

Which two pieces of apparatus are most useful to measure the rate of a reaction in which a gas is given off?

A. accurate balance and gas syringe
B. accurate balance and thermometer
C. gas syringe and stop-watch
D. stop-watch and thermometer

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe practical methods for investigating the rate of a reaction, including the formation of a gas and a change in mass
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To determine the rate of a chemical reaction where a gaseous product is evolved, you must evaluate a changing physical quantity against a monitored interval of time ($\text{Rate} = \Delta\text{Volume} / \Delta\text{time}$). A gas syringe is uniquely designed to collect and measure the exact volume of gas evolved during the experiment, while a stop-watch tracks the precise time parameters needed for the rate calculation. Although an accurate balance can measure mass loss from escaping gas, pairing a gas syringe and a stop-watch provides the most direct, complete, and reliable experimental setup, validating option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 17

Reaction 1 and reaction 2 both produce a gas. The total volume of gas produced in each reaction is measured every minute for 10 minutes.

A graph of the results is shown.

Reaction rate volume-time graph

Which row describes how the rate of reaction changes, if at all, during each reaction?

 reaction 1reaction 2
Athe rate is constantthe rate decreases after 2 minutes
Bthe rate increasesthe rate increases
Cthe rate increasesthe rate decreases after 2 minutes
Dthe rate is constantthe rate increases

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.2: Rate of reaction — Interpret plots of volume of gas against time; Describe the effects of changes in concentration, temperature, and surface area on the rate of reaction using collision theory
▶️ Answer/Explanation
On a volume-time graph, the gradient or steepness of the curve represents the instantaneous rate of reaction. The plot for Reaction 1 displays a perfectly straight line extending from the origin, meaning its gradient does not vary and the rate remains entirely constant. Conversely, the plot for Reaction 2 shows a curve that becomes progressively less steep after the 2-minute mark before flattening out completely as reactants are consumed, confirming that its rate decreases over time. Therefore, row A provides the correct description for both systems.
Answer: (A)

Question 18

When a few drops of water are added to a solid, E, the colour changes from blue to pink. What is E?

A. anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride
B. anhydrous copper(II) sulfate
C. hydrated cobalt(II) chloride
D. hydrated copper(II) sulfate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.1: Water — Describe a chemical test for water using anhydrous copper(II) sulfate or anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride; State the distinct color changes associated with these reversible hydration tests
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The chemical test for the presence of water relies on the reversible hydration of transition metal salts that display distinct colors depending on their degree of hydration. Dehydrated or anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride is inherently deep blue; when it binds with water molecules, it forms a coordinated hexahydrate complex ($\text{CoCl}_2 \cdot 6\text{H}_2\text{O}$) which appears pink, verifying choice A. Conversely, anhydrous copper(II) sulfate undergoes a transition from white to blue upon hydration, which completely rules out choices B and D.
Answer: (A)

Question 19

The equation for the reaction of magnesium with copper(II) oxide is shown.

$$\text{Mg} + \text{CuO} \rightarrow \text{MgO} + \text{Cu}$$

Which word describes this reaction?

A. combustion
B. decomposition
C. neutralisation
D. redox

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.4: Redox — Define redox reactions as reactions involving simultaneous oxidation and reduction; Define oxidation as the gain of oxygen and reduction as the loss of oxygen (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
This chemical process is a classic example of a redox reaction because oxidation and reduction happen simultaneously. In terms of oxygen transfer, magnesium ($\text{Mg}$) gains oxygen to form magnesium oxide ($\text{MgO}$) and is therefore oxidised, while copper(II) oxide ($\text{CuO}$) loses its oxygen to form copper metal ($\text{Cu}$) and undergoes reduction. Because it is a single-displacement reaction driven by oxygen transfer between two metal species, the term redox describes the process perfectly.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

Compound M contains calcium. Two reactions of M are listed.

  • M reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form a salt and water only.
  • M reacts with aqueous ammonium chloride to form a gas that turns damp red litmus paper blue.

What is M?

A. CaOH
B. Ca(OH)₂
C. CaCO₃
D. Ca(CO₃)₂

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe the reactions of bases with ammonium salts to produce ammonia gas (Core); State that a neutralisation reaction between an acid and a base forms a salt and water only (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The first clue outlines a classic neutralisation forming a salt and water only, which confirms that compound M behaves as a base (metal hydroxide or metal oxide) rather than a carbonate ($\text{CO}_3^{2-}$), as carbonates would release carbon dioxide gas. The second clue describes the thermal displacement of basic ammonia gas ($\text{NH}_3$) from an ammonium salt, a reaction diagnostic of metal hydroxides ($\text{Ca(OH)}_2 + 2\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} \rightarrow \text{CaCl}_2 + 2\text{NH}_3 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$). Since calcium is a Group II metal forming a $\text{Ca}^{2+}$ cation, it balances with two hydroxide anions to yield option B.
Answer: (B)

Question 21

The diagram shows one period of the Periodic Table.

LiBeBCNOFNe

Which two elements form acidic oxides?

A. beryllium and lithium
B. carbon and neon
C. carbon and nitrogen
D. nitrogen and neon

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.2: Classification of oxides — Classify oxides as either acidic or basic, related to metallic and non-metallic character; State that carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide are acidic oxides and that calcium oxide and copper(II) oxide are basic oxides
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The acid-base character of element oxides follows a periodic trend related directly to metallic character: metals located on the left side of a period form basic oxides, while non-metals on the right side form acidic oxides. In Period 2, lithium ($\text{Li}$) and beryllium ($\text{Be}$) are metals that yield basic or amphoteric oxides, whereas carbon ($\text{C}$) and nitrogen ($\text{N}$) are non-metals that form covalent acidic oxides like $\text{CO}_2$ and $\text{NO}_2$. Neon ($\text{Ne}$) is an unreactive Group VIII noble gas that does not readily bond with oxygen to form any oxides, making option C the correct choice.
Answer: (C)

Question 22

A student tests four solutions with universal indicator.

Which colour identifies the solution containing the greatest concentration of OH ions?

A. red
B. yellow
C. green
D. blue

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — State that a higher concentration of hydroxyl ions means a higher pH and a more alkaline solution; Describe the use of universal indicator paper to determine the pH of a solution using a colour chart
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A high concentration of hydroxide ions ($\text{OH}^{-}$) corresponds directly to a highly basic or alkaline solution with an elevated $\text{pH}$ value. Universal indicator displays a spectrum of distinct colors that change based on proton or hydroxide content: red indicates strong acidity, yellow represents weak acidity, green signifies neutrality, and shades of blue or violet represent high alkalinity. Consequently, the blue region of the indicator chart marks the maximum presence of basic $\text{OH}^{-}$ ions among the choices given, establishing option D as the correct answer.
Answer: (D)

Question 23

The following steps are done to prepare solid magnesium sulfate.

  1. filtration
  2. measurement of 20 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid using a measuring cylinder
  3. evaporation
  4. addition of an excess of solid magnesium carbonate to dilute sulfuric acid

What is the correct order for these steps?

A. 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
B. 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
C. 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
D. 4 → 2 → 3 → 1

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the preparation, isolation and purification of soluble salts by reaction of an acid with an insoluble base or carbonate (Core); Explain the experimental steps involved, including the reason for using an excess of the insoluble reactant (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To prepare a pure sample of a soluble salt from an insoluble carbonate and an acid, the experimental methodology follows a precise logical sequence. First, you must measure out the limiting reagent using a measuring cylinder (Step 2). Next, add an excess of solid magnesium carbonate to the acid to ensure every molecule of acid is completely neutralized (Step 4). Since this leaves unreacted, insoluble carbonate suspended in the solution, filtration must be performed next to isolate the clear aqueous salt filtrate (Step 1). Finally, heating the filtrate via evaporation concentrates the solution to allow crystals of solid magnesium sulfate to form upon cooling (Step 3), yielding the path 2 → 4 → 1 → 3.
Answer: (B)

Question 24

Which statement about the Periodic Table is correct?

A. All the metals in the Periodic Table are transition elements.
B. The halogens are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table.
C. The elements become more metallic across a period from Group I to Group VII.
D. The Periodic Table can be used to predict the properties of the elements.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.1: Arrangement of elements — Describe the Periodic Table as an arrangement of elements in periods and groups and in order of proton number/atomic number; Describe the relationship between group number and the charge on ions formed from elements in that group
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The modern Periodic Table is structured specifically around repeating physical and chemical trends based on increasing atomic number. This systemic organization allows chemists to accurately predict unknown properties of elements, such as their state of matter, reactivity, or ionic formulas, based entirely on their group and period placements, validating choice D. The remaining statements are scientifically incorrect because Group I contains alkali metals (not halogens), elements become increasingly non-metallic moving left-to-right across a period, and main-group metals like magnesium or aluminum exist outside the transition metal block.
Answer: (D)

Question 25

Zinc is formed when zinc oxide is heated with carbon.

$$\text{zinc oxide} + \text{carbon} \rightarrow \text{zinc} + \text{carbon monoxide}$$

Which substance is oxidised in this reaction?

A. carbon
B. carbon monoxide
C. zinc
D. zinc oxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 6.4: Redox — Define oxidation as the gain of oxygen and reduction as the loss of oxygen (Core); Identify redox reactions by the changes in use of oxygen (Core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In core syllabus redox chemistry, oxidation is straightforwardly defined as the gain of oxygen atoms by a reactant chemical species. Looking closely at the provided word equation, elemental carbon reacts to combine with oxygen, transforming into carbon monoxide ($\text{CO}$), meaning it has gained oxygen and has been successfully oxidised. Meanwhile, zinc oxide loses its oxygen atom to form neutral zinc metal, meaning it undergoes reduction. Therefore, carbon is the specific reactant that is oxidised, establishing option A as the correct answer.
Answer: (A)

Question 26

Which word equation represents the rusting of iron?

A. iron + oxygen + water → anhydrous iron(II) hydroxide
B. iron + oxygen → hydrated iron(II) oxide
C. iron + oxygen + water → anhydrous iron(III) hydroxide
D. iron + oxygen + water → hydrated iron(III) oxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.5: Rusting of iron — State the conditions required for the rusting of iron, limited to: oxygen and water; State that rust is hydrated iron(III) oxide
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Rusting is an electrochemical process that explicitly requires both oxygen gas and moisture/water to occur simultaneously, which rules out option B. During this corrosion process, elemental iron is oxidised up to its $+3$ oxidation state, yielding a chemically bonded hydrated transition metal structure rather than an anhydrous salt or a hydroxide. The final chemical compound known as rust is defined by the syllabus as hydrated iron(III) oxide ($\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 \cdot x\text{H}_2\text{O}$), confirming that row D represents the correct chemical word equation.
Answer: (D)

Question 27

Which option describes the electronic configurations of three different elements from the same group of the Periodic Table?

A. 2   2,2   2,8,8,2
B. 2   2,8   2,8,2
C. 2,1   2,8,1   2,8,8,1
D. 2,1   2,2   2,3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.1: Arrangement of elements — Describe the relationship between group number and the number of outer-shell electrons
• Topic 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — State that the group number equals the number of outer-shell electrons for Groups I to VII
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Under the Cambridge syllabus guidelines, the vertical group number assigned to main-group elements correlates exactly with the number of valence electrons present in their outermost electron shell. Evaluating row C shows three distinct configurations ($2,1$; $2,8,1$; and $2,8,8,1$) that each possess exactly one outer-shell electron, identifying them uniquely as consecutive alkali metals belonging to Group I. Row A contains a common trap: while all three numbers terminate in a 2, an absolute electronic count of 2 represents Helium, which belongs exclusively to the Group VIII/18 noble gases due to its completely filled single shell, confirming choice C as the correct option.
Answer: (C)

Question 28

Which metal forms compounds that can be used to colour glass?

A. aluminium
B. calcium
C. chromium
D. sodium

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.4: Transition elements — State that transition elements are metals that form coloured compounds
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A defining characteristic feature of transition elements outlined in the syllabus is their unique capacity to form brightly coloured chemical compounds, which stems from variable oxidation states and partially filled d-orbitals. Among the choices listed, aluminium, calcium, and sodium are main-group metals that exclusively yield white or completely colourless compound lattices. Chromium ($\text{Cr}$) is a transition metal whose compounds, such as chromium(III) oxide, are widely utilized in industry to impart distinctive green or yellow tints to glass and industrial ceramics, making option C the correct answer.
Answer: (C)

Question 29

Two properties of element R are listed.

  • It is a dark solid at room temperature.
  • It is a diatomic molecule.

Where on the Periodic Table is R placed?

A. Group I
B. Group VII
C. Group VIII
D. transition elements

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.3: Group VII elements — Describe the Group VII elements, the halogens, as diatomic non-metals with a trends in color and physical state down the group, limited to: fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The physical properties and molecular structures given describe a specific trend observed down Group VII (the halogens). Halogens naturally exist as stable covalent diatomic molecules ($\text{F}_2$, $\text{Cl}_2$, $\text{Br}_2$, $\text{I}_2$) and exhibit a clear transition in physical states and depth of color going down the group: fluorine and chlorine are light gases, bromine is a dark reddish-brown liquid, and iodine is a dark grey/purple crystalline solid at room temperature. Group I elements and transition metals exist as metallic lattices rather than diatomic molecules, while Group VIII contains monatomic noble gases, confirming option B as the correct choice.
Answer: (B)

Question 30

Four metals, W, X, Y and Z, are tested with either cold water, steam or both.

The observations are shown.

metalobservations
Wreacts slowly with cold water
Xreacts rapidly with cold water
Ydoes not react with cold water but reacts with steam
Zdoes not react with cold water or steam

What is the order of reactivity of the metals from the least reactive to the most reactive?

Reactivity order options diagram

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 9.4: Reactivity series — Place elements in order of reactivity by reference to the reactions of metals with water or steam; Describe the relative reactivity of metals based on experimental trends
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The relative position of a metal on the reactivity series directly determines the severity of the conditions required to break its chemical stability and form a bond. Highly active metals like sodium or potassium react violently or rapidly with cold water ($\text{X}$). Moderately active metals like calcium react steadily but slowly with cold water ($\text{W}$). Metals lower in the series, such as magnesium, zinc, or iron, require the high thermal energy of gas-phase steam to undergo a displacement reaction ($\text{Y}$). Completely unreactive or noble metals like copper or gold remain entirely inert under both conditions ($\text{Z}$). Ordering these trends sequentially from the least reactive to the most reactive establishes the logical progression: $\text{Z} \rightarrow \text{Y} \rightarrow \text{W} \rightarrow \text{X}$.
Answer: (D)

Question 31

Which statement about the displacement reactions of the halogens is correct?

A. Iodine displaces bromine from aqueous sodium bromide.
B. Bromine displaces chlorine from aqueous potassium chloride.
C. Iodine displaces chlorine from aqueous potassium chloride.
D. Chlorine displaces bromine from aqueous sodium bromide.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 8.3: Group VII elements — Describe the relative reactivity of the halogens: fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, as shown by their displacement reactions with halide ions
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In halogen chemistry, the chemical reactivity decreases progressively moving down Group VII ($\text{Cl}_2 > \text{Br}_2 > \text{I}_2$) because smaller atoms attract incoming valence electrons more strongly. A more reactive halogen acting as a stronger oxidising agent will successfully displace a less reactive halide ion from its aqueous solution. Since chlorine sits above bromine in the group, it is more reactive and readily forces bromide ions out of solution ($\text{Cl}_2 + 2\text{NaBr} \rightarrow 2\text{NaCl} + \text{Br}_2$), making statement D correct. Less reactive halogens like bromine or iodine cannot displace more reactive elements from their salts, ruling out options A, B, and C.
Answer: (D)

Question 32

Which substances in water from natural sources are beneficial to aquatic animals?

  1. metal compounds
  2. plastics
  3. phosphates
  4. dissolved oxygen

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 10.1: Water — State the substances present in water from natural sources, including: dissolved oxygen and metal compounds; State that some of these substances are beneficial, e.g. dissolved oxygen for aquatic life and some metal compounds for providing essential minerals
▶️ Answer/Explanation
According to the Cambridge syllabus, natural water sources contain various dissolved chemical species, some of which directly support aquatic ecosystems. Dissolved oxygen (Substance 4) is completely essential for cellular respiration in aquatic organisms like fish and invertebrates. Furthermore, specific dissolved metal compounds (Substance 1), such as calcium and magnesium ions, provide vital mineral nutrients necessary for biochemical processes and shell or bone development. Conversely, plastics act as severe physical pollutants, and elevated phosphates trigger harmful ecological eutrophication, isolating row B as the correct response.
Answer: (B)

Question 33

What are the products formed when glucose is fermented?

A. ethanol and carbon dioxide
B. ethanol and oxygen
C. ethene and carbon dioxide
D. ethene and oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.6: Alcohols — Describe the manufacture of ethanol by the fermentation of glucose, including the conditions: yeast, anaerobic conditions and temperatures between 25°C and 35°C
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The industrial manufacture of ethanol via fermentation uses yeast enzymes to catalyze the biochemical breakdown of aqueous glucose ($\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 \rightarrow 2\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH} + 2\text{CO}_2$). This chemical pathway operates under strict anaerobic conditions, meaning it is inherently oxygen-free, which instantly eliminates options B and D. Furthermore, because ethene ($\text{C}_2\text{H}_4$) is an unsaturated hydrocarbon produced via catalytic petroleum cracking rather than biological processes, option A stands as the only correct product pairing.
Answer: (A)

Question 34

Which structure represents a molecule of ethanol?

A. Chemical structure A

B. Chemical structure B

C. Chemical structure C

D. Chemical structure D

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.6: Alcohols — Describe the functional group of alcohols as the –OH group; Draw and name the displayed structures of ethanol
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ethanol belongs to the homologous alcohol series, which is chemically defined by the presence of a hydroxyl functional group ($-\text{OH}$) attached to a saturated carbon backbone. The prefix “eth-” indicates a backbone comprising exactly two carbon atoms linked together by a single covalent bond. Evaluating the options shows that structure C perfectly displays this structural arrangement ($\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}$). Structures A and B are unsaturated hydrocarbons (ethyne and ethene respectively) containing no oxygen atoms, while structure D represents an isomer called methoxymethane (an ether), verifying option C as correct.
Answer: (C)

Question 35

Which statement describes a homologous series?

A. a family of elements in the same group of the Periodic Table
B. a family of elements with similar chemical properties
C. a family of compounds with the same functional group
D. a family of compounds with similar physical properties

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology — Describe a homologous series as a family of compounds with the same functional group, same general formula and similar chemical properties
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A homologous series is defined in organic chemistry as a family of fully formed compounds rather than elemental substances, which immediately invalidates options A and B. Members within a specific homologous series possess identical functional groups (such as $-\text{OH}$ for alcohols or $-\text{COOH}$ for carboxylic acids), which gives them highly similar chemical properties and a shared general formula. Their physical properties, such as boiling point and density, undergo a gradual trend or variation as the carbon chain lengths increase rather than remaining strictly similar, making option C the most accurate definition.
Answer: (C)

Question 36

What are the properties of aqueous ethanoic acid?

 decolourises aqueous brominereacts with calcium carbonate to make carbon dioxideturns damp red litmus paper blue
A
B
C
D

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 11.7: Carboxylic acids — Describe the properties of aqueous ethanoic acid, limited to: effect on litmus paper, and reaction with carbonates
• Topic 11.5: Alkenes — Describe the use of aqueous bromine to distinguish between alkanes and alkenes
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aqueous ethanoic acid ($\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}$) is a weak organic acid that exhibits characteristic acidic properties. It reacts typically with metal carbonates like calcium carbonate ($\text{CaCO}_3$) to produce calcium ethanoate, water, and effervescent carbon dioxide gas ($\text{CO}_2$), satisfying the second criteria (✓). Because it is an acid, it turns blue litmus paper red, meaning it has no effect on damp red litmus paper (✗). Lastly, since it contains no carbon-carbon double bonds ($\text{C}=\text{C}$), it does not undergo addition reactions and will not decolourise orange-brown bromine water (✗). This isolates row C as the only scientifically correct suite of behaviors.
Answer: (C)

Question 37

Four different organic compounds are separated by a fractionating column.

The table shows the boiling points of the compounds.

The diagram shows the position in the fractionating column where they are separated.

compoundboiling point/°C
Q69
R196
S90
T125
Fractionating column diagram showing fractions 1 to 4
 

Which row identifies the compound in each fraction?

 fraction 1fraction 2fraction 3fraction 4
AQSTR
BQTSR
CRTSQ
DRSTQ

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 12.4: Fractional distillation of petroleum — Describe how the properties of fractions obtained from petroleum change from the top to the bottom of the column, limited to: decreasing volatility and increasing boiling points
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During fractional distillation, an established temperature gradient exists within the column: the top is the coolest region and the bottom is the hottest. Vapors of organic compounds ascend the column and condense when the local temperature drops just below their specific boiling points. Consequently, the most volatile compounds with the lowest boiling points condense at the very top (fraction 1), while less volatile compounds with higher boiling points condense progressively lower down (fraction 4). Arranging the given values sequentially from lowest to highest boiling point yields: $\text{Q}\ (69^\circ\text{C}) \rightarrow \text{S}\ (90^\circ\text{C}) \rightarrow \text{T}\ (125^\circ\text{C}) \rightarrow \text{R}\ (196^\circ\text{C})$, matching the top-to-bottom fractions in row A.
Answer: (A)

Question 38

Which piece of apparatus is used to measure exactly 21.50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid?

A. beaker
B. burette
C. measuring cylinder
D. volumetric pipette

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.1: Solids, Liquids, and Gases — Name and suggest appropriate apparatus for the measurement of time, temperature, mass and volume, including burettes, pipettes and measuring cylinders; Describe the varying degrees of precision among volumetric apparatus
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To determine the appropriate laboratory apparatus, look closely at the level of precision required: the value 21.50 cm³ is specified to two decimal places. A volumetric pipette (D) is highly accurate but is limited to a single, fixed volume (typically exactly 10.00 cm³ or 25.00 cm³). Measuring cylinders (C) and beakers (A) lack the fine calibration required for two-decimal-place precision. A burette (B) is designed with fine graduations allowing users to measure and dispense variable, precise fractions of liquid to the nearest 0.05 cm³, making it the only option capable of delivering exactly 21.50 cm³.
Answer: (B)

Question 39

Which row shows an advantage and a disadvantage for the stated apparatus used in a titration?

 apparatusadvantagedisadvantage
A25 cm3 volumetric pipettemeasures volume accuratelycan only be used to measure 25 cm3 of solution
B50 cm3 burettemeasures volume accuratelycan only be used to measure 50 cm3 of solution
C100 cm3 beakersuitable for filling burettecan only be used to fill a 100 cm3 burette
D250 cm3 conical flaskallows solutions to be mixed without spillingnot suitable for holding volumes less than 250 cm3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.1: Solids, Liquids, and Gases — Name and suggest appropriate apparatus for the measurement of volume; Describe the limitations and specific applications of volumetric pipettes and burettes in titrations
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Evaluating the distinct attributes of volumetric laboratory ware helps isolate the correct statement. A volumetric pipette is explicitly engineered to deliver a single, fixed volume (such as exactly 25.00 cm³) with extremely high accuracy, meaning it cannot be adjusted to measure intermediate values—making row A entirely correct. Conversely, a 50 cm³ burette can deliver variable volumes up to its maximum capacity, a conical flask is perfectly capable of holding volumes under 250 cm³, and a beaker is inappropriate for precise measurements but acts as an all-purpose vessel rather than one limited to filling 100 cm³ burettes.
Answer: (A)

Question 40

Sample M contains calcium carbonate and sodium nitrate.

The result of adding water to M, stirring and filtering is shown.

No chemical reaction occurs.

Filtration experimental setup

Which terms describe M, calcium carbonate and aqueous sodium nitrate?

 sample Mcalcium carbonateaqueous sodium nitrate
Acompoundfiltrateresidue
Bcompoundresiduefiltrate
Cmixturefiltrateresidue
Dmixtureresiduefiltrate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

Topic 1.2: Methods of purification — Describe the separation of an insoluble solid from a liquid/solution using filtration, identifying the residue and filtrate; Topic 2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — Define and differentiate between mixtures and pure substances
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Because sample M contains distinct substances physically intermingled without any chemical reaction or permanent bonding occurring, it is classified as a mixture. When water is added, sodium nitrate ($\text{NaNO}_3$) dissolves completely because all nitrate salts are highly soluble, passing directly through the pores of the filter paper to form the liquid filtrate. Conversely, calcium carbonate ($\text{CaCO}_3$) is an insoluble compound that cannot pass through the mesh, leaving it trapped on top as a solid residue. This step-by-step separation behavior perfectly matches row D.
Answer: (D)
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