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Question 1

Water exists as solid ice, liquid water and steam.
In which states can water easily be compressed to half its original volume?
A. ice, liquid water and steam
B. liquid water and steam only
C. liquid water only
D. steam only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 1.1: Solids, liquids and gases (Describe the effects of temperature and pressure on the volume of a gas)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Only gases can be easily compressed because their particles are very far apart with large spaces between them. In solids and liquids, the particles are already packed closely together, so there is very little room to move them closer together. Since water exists as a gas only when it is steam, steam is the only state where water can be compressed to half its original volume.

Question 2

The melting point of sulfur is \(113^{\circ}C\).
Which row describes the arrangement and movement of sulfur particles at \(25^{\circ}C\)?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 1.1: Solids, liquids and gases (Describe the structures of solids, liquids and gases in terms of particle separation, arrangement and motion)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

At \(25^{\circ}C\), sulfur is well below its melting point of \(113^{\circ}C\), so it is in the solid state. In solids, the particles are held tightly together in a regular, fixed arrangement. They cannot move around, but they do have some energy and vibrate or shake about these fixed positions, which is exactly what Row A describes.

Question 3

Solid Y is added to an excess of hot water.
A blue solution forms and a brown solid remains.
The brown solid is filtered off and dried.
The brown solid conducts electricity.
What is Y?
A. a compound that contains a metal
B. a mixture that contains a metal
C. a pure substance that is a metal
D. a pure substance that is a non-metal

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures (Describe the differences between elements, compounds and mixtures)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The brown solid conducting electricity is a classic property of a metal. Since a blue solution also forms, it means part of the solid dissolved while the metal part did not. A pure compound or a pure metal would not separate into two distinct parts like this. The only explanation is that Y is a mixture, containing a soluble blue salt and an insoluble brown metal.

Question 4

Which statement about the structure of an atom is correct?
A. Electrons and protons each have a relative mass of 1, and neutrons have no charge.
B. Electrons have a relative mass of 1 and a negative charge.
C. Protons have a relative mass of 1 and a negative charge.
D. Neutrons have a relative mass of 1 and no charge.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table (State the relative charges and relative masses of a proton, a neutron and an electron)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In an atom, protons have a relative mass of 1 and a positive charge, electrons have a very small relative mass (about 1/1836) and a negative charge, while neutrons have a relative mass of 1 and are neutral, meaning they have no charge. Option A is wrong because electrons have a tiny mass. Option B is wrong for the same reason. Option C is wrong because protons have a positive, not negative, charge. This makes D the only correct statement.

Question 5

The diagram shows the electronic configuration of a particle with a nucleon number of 40.
The table shows the suggestions that three students, 1, 2 and 3, made to identify the particle.
Which students are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table (Determine the electronic configuration of elements and their ions with proton number 1 to 20)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The electronic configuration shown is 2,8,8, which is a total of 18 electrons. A neutral atom of Argon (Ar) has 18 protons and 18 electrons, so student 1 is correct. A neutral chlorine (Cl) atom has 17 electrons, so student 2 is wrong. A calcium ion \(Ca^{2+}\) has lost 2 electrons, so it has 20 protons but only 18 electrons, giving it the 2,8,8 configuration. Student 3 is also correct.

Question 6

What is defined as different atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons?
A. homologous series
B. isotopes
C. mass number
D. the group number

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 2.3: Isotopes (Define isotopes as different atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The definition of an isotope is directly stated in the syllabus: they are atoms of the same element, so they have the same number of protons (atomic number), but they have different numbers of neutrons, giving them different mass numbers. A homologous series relates to organic chemistry, mass number is the total of protons and neutrons, and group number relates to the Periodic Table. Therefore, isotopes perfectly match the given description.

Question 7

The electronic configurations of atoms Q and R are shown.
Q and R form an ionic compound.
What is the formula of the compound?
A. \(R_7Q\)
B. \(R_4Q_2\)
C. RQ
D. RQ7

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 2.4: Ions and ionic bonds (Describe the formation of ionic bonds between elements from Group I and Group VII)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Atom Q with an electronic configuration of 2,8,1 is in Group I and will lose one electron to form a cation with a 1+ charge. Atom R with a configuration of 2,7 is in Group VII and will gain one electron to form an anion with a 1- charge. For the compound to be neutral, one Q⁺ ion must bond with one R⁻ ion, giving the simplest formula RQ.

Question 8

Which properties are typical of simple molecules?
  1. high melting point
  2. good electrical conductivity
  3. low boiling point
  4. high malleability
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds (Describe in terms of structure and bonding the properties of simple molecular compounds: low melting points and boiling points, poor electrical conductivity)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Simple molecular compounds consist of small molecules with weak intermolecular forces between them, which means they have low melting and boiling points. They do not conduct electricity because there are no free ions or delocalised electrons. High melting points and malleability are properties of metals or giant covalent structures, not simple molecules. So, from the list, only low boiling point (3) is a typical property of simple molecules.

Question 9

Diamond is extremely hard and does not conduct electricity.
Which statement explains these properties?
A. It has positive carbon ions surrounded by delocalised electrons.
B. It has strong ionic bonds between each carbon atom.
C. It has delocalised electrons, and each carbon atom forms three covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.
D. It has no delocalised electrons, and each carbon atom forms four covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 2.6: Giant covalent structures (Relate the structures and bonding of graphite and diamond to their uses)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In diamond, each carbon atom forms four very strong covalent bonds with other carbon atoms, creating a rigid, tetrahedral network throughout the entire structure. This explains its extreme hardness. Since all the outer shell electrons are locked in these bonds and there are no delocalised electrons or ions, it cannot conduct electricity. Option D perfectly captures both of these structural reasons.

Question 10

Which equation represents the complete combustion of butane, \(C_4H_{10}\)?
A. \(2C_4H_{10} + 5O_2 \rightarrow 8C + 10H_2O\)
B. \(2C_4H_{10} + 9O_2 \rightarrow 8CO + 10H_2O\)
C. \(2C_4H_{10} + 13O_2 \rightarrow 8CO_2 + 10H_2O\)
D. \(C_4H_{10} + 4O_2 \rightarrow 4CO_2 + 5H_2\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 11.4: Alkanes (Describe the properties of alkanes as being generally unreactive, except in terms of combustion)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Complete combustion of a hydrocarbon produces only carbon dioxide and water. By balancing the equation for \(C_4H_{10}\): you need 4 carbon atoms in \(CO_2\) and 10 hydrogen atoms in \(H_2O\). To balance the 2 butane molecules, you have 8 carbons and 20 hydrogens on the left. This requires 8 \(CO_2\) molecules and 10 \(H_2O\) molecules, which means you need 13 \(O_2\) molecules on the left. Equation C is the only one that is correctly balanced and shows complete combustion.

Question 11

What is the relative formula mass of calcium sulfate, \(CaSO_4\)?
A. 88
B. 92
C. 136
D. 232

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules (Define relative molecular mass, \(M_r\) as the sum of the relative atomic masses. Relative formula mass, \(M_r\) will be used for ionic compounds)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To calculate the relative formula mass, we add the relative atomic masses (from the Periodic Table): Ca = 40, S = 32, and O = 16. Since there are four oxygen atoms, their total mass is 4 × 16 = 64. Adding these gives: 40 (for Ca) + 32 (for S) + 64 (for O_4) = 136. So, the \(M_r\) of \(CaSO_4\) is 136.

Question 12

What is the product at each electrode when molten silver iodide is electrolysed using inert electrodes?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 4.1: Electrolysis (Predict the identity of the products at each electrode for the electrolysis of a binary compound in the molten state)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Molten silver iodide contains Ag⁺ and I⁻ ions. During electrolysis, the positive Ag⁺ ions move to the negative cathode and gain electrons to form solid silver metal. The negative I⁻ ions move to the positive anode and lose electrons to form iodine. Since the electrodes are inert and the compound is molten, no other products like hydrogen or oxygen are possible. This gives silver at the cathode and iodine at the anode.

Question 13

Which row describes a product at each electrode when dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 4.1: Electrolysis (Identify the products formed at the electrodes and describe the observations made during the electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid using inert electrodes)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid breaks down water into hydrogen and oxygen gases. Hydrogen gas forms at the cathode and oxygen gas forms at the anode, both of which are colourless. The key is the volume ratio: water (\(H_2O\)) decomposes to give twice the volume of hydrogen as oxygen (2H₂:1O₂). So, for every 10 cm³ of oxygen produced at the anode, 20 cm³ of hydrogen is produced at the cathode.

Question 14

Which experiment is the most exothermic?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions (State that an exothermic reaction transfers thermal energy to the surroundings leading to an increase in the temperature of the surroundings)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

An exothermic reaction gives out heat, causing the temperature of the surroundings to rise. To find the most exothermic reaction, we look for the greatest temperature increase. Experiment A shows a decrease of 15°C, C shows a decrease of 13°C (both are endothermic). Experiment D shows an increase of 9°C. Experiment B shows the largest temperature increase, from 20°C to 32°C, which is a rise of 12°C, making it the most exothermic.

Question 15

In which test-tube is a physical change taking place?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 6.1: Physical and chemical changes (Identify physical and chemical changes, and describe the differences between them)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

A physical change involves a change in state or appearance without forming a new substance. In the diagram, test-tube A shows ice melting into water. This is just a change of state from solid to liquid (still H₂O), so it is a physical change. The other diagrams likely show reactions where gases are produced, a solid dissolving in acid, or burning, which are all examples of chemical changes where new substances are created.

Question 16

Which items of apparatus are essential when measuring the effect of temperature on the rate of any reaction?
  1. balance
  2. gas syringe
  3. stop-watch
  4. thermometer
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 12.1: Experimental design (Name appropriate apparatus for the measurement of time, temperature, mass and volume)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To measure the effect of temperature on reaction rate, you absolutely must measure temperature (to see what temperature you’re testing) and time (to see how fast the reaction happens). So, a stop-watch and a thermometer are essential. A balance is for mass, and a gas syringe is for collecting a gas—neither is needed for *any* reaction, as you could be measuring colour change or mass loss instead. For this specific aim, time and temperature are the only must-haves.

Question 17

When pink cobalt(II) chloride is heated, it forms a blue solid and water. When water is added to the blue solid, it releases heat and a pink solid is formed. Which row describes the type of reaction that occurs and the pink cobalt(II) chloride?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 6.3: Reversible reactions and equilibrium (Describe how changing the conditions can change the direction of a reversible reaction for: the effect of heat on hydrated compounds, the addition of water to anhydrous compounds limited to copper(II) sulfate and cobalt(II) chloride)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The reaction can go forwards (pink to blue) when heated and backwards (blue to pink) when water is added, which is the definition of a reversible reaction. The pink starting material contains water, making it the hydrated form. When it turns blue, it becomes anhydrous. Since adding water brings the pink colour back, the pink cobalt(II) chloride must be the hydrated version.

Question 18

What is the oxidation number of iron in iron(III) oxide, \(Fe_2O_3\)?
A. +2
B. +3
C. -2
D. -3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 6.4: Redox (Use a Roman numeral to indicate the oxidation number of an element in a compound)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The name iron(III) oxide tells us directly that iron has an oxidation number of +3. We can also calculate it: oxygen always has an oxidation number of -2 in compounds. In \(Fe_2O_3\), the three oxygen atoms give a total negative charge of -6. For the compound to be neutral, the two iron atoms must balance this with a total of +6, meaning each iron atom has a charge of +3.

Question 19

Which substances react with dilute hydrochloric acid to form aqueous copper(II) chloride?
  1. copper
  2. copper(II) oxide
  3. copper(II) carbonate
  4. copper(II) hydroxide
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases (Describe the characteristic properties of acids in terms of their reactions with: metals, bases, carbonates)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Acids react with bases (like copper(II) oxide and copper(II) hydroxide) and with carbonates (like copper(II) carbonate) to form a salt and water (plus carbon dioxide for carbonates). All three of these reactions will produce aqueous copper(II) chloride. However, copper metal itself does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid because copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series and is not reactive enough to displace hydrogen from the acid.

Question 20

A few drops of thymolphthalein and methyl orange are added separately to two test-tubes containing solution X.
Solution Y is then added to both test-tubes until present in excess.
The colours of the indicators before and after addition of solution Y are shown.
What is solution Y?
A. \(HCl(aq)\)
B. \(NaOH(aq)\)
C. \(H_2O(l)\)
D. \(NaCl(aq)\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases (Describe alkalis in terms of their effect on: litmus, thymolphthalein, methyl orange)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

In solution X, thymolphthalein is colourless (acidic/neutral) and methyl orange is red (acidic). So, solution X must be an acid. When excess Y is added, thymolphthalein turns blue and methyl orange turns yellow, which are their colours in alkaline conditions. This means Y must be an alkali. Only sodium hydroxide, \(NaOH(aq)\), is an alkali. Hydrochloric acid would keep the solution acidic, and water or salt solution would be neutral, not turning thymolphthalein blue.

Question 21

Which mixture of solids is separated by adding water, stirring, and then using filtration?
A. ammonium chloride and silver chloride
B. barium sulfate and calcium sulfate
C. copper(II) hydroxide and iron(III) hydroxide
D. potassium nitrate and sodium nitrate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 12.4: Separation and purification (Suggest suitable separation and purification techniques, given information about the substances involved)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Adding water and filtering separates a soluble solid from an insoluble one. Silver chloride is an insoluble salt, so it will not dissolve in water and will be caught by the filter paper. Ammonium chloride, like most ammonium salts, is soluble in water and will dissolve, passing through the filter paper as the filtrate. In the other options, the mixtures consist of two soluble or two insoluble substances, so simple filtration wouldn’t separate them.

Question 22

The character of the elements and charges on the ions of the elements change across the Periodic Table.
Which row describes the elements on the left and the elements on the right of the Periodic Table?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 8.1: Arrangement of elements (Describe the change from metallic to non-metallic character across a period; Describe the relationship between group number and the charge of the ions formed from elements in that group)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The Periodic Table has metals on the left side and non-metals on the right. Metals tend to lose electrons to form positive ions (cations), while non-metals tend to gain electrons to form negative ions (anions). So, the left side has metallic elements that form positive ions, and the right side has non-metallic elements that form negative ions. This makes Row A the correct description of this trend.

Question 23

Which statement describes a general trend down Group I?
A. The melting point increases.
B. The reactivity decreases.
C. The density increases.
D. The total number of electrons decreases.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 8.2: Group I properties (Describe the Group I alkali metals, lithium, sodium and potassium, as relatively soft metals with general trends down the group, limited to: decreasing melting point, increasing density, increasing reactivity)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

As you go down Group I from lithium to sodium to potassium, the atoms get larger and heavier. This causes the density to generally increase. The melting points actually decrease down the group, and the reactivity increases down the group. The total number of electrons increases down a group because the atoms get larger. Therefore, the only correct trend listed is that the density increases.

Question 24

Which statement describes the appearance of the named halogen at room temperature and pressure?
A. Chlorine is a colourless gas.
B. Chlorine is a red-brown liquid.
C. Iodine is a purple gas.
D. Iodine is a grey-black solid.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 8.3: Group VII properties (State the appearance of the halogens at r.t.p. as: chlorine, a pale yellow-green gas; bromine, a red-brown liquid; iodine, a grey-black solid)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

At room temperature, chlorine is actually a pale yellow-green gas, not colourless. Bromine is a red-brown liquid, not chlorine. Iodine does exist as a purple gas when it sublimes upon heating, but at room temperature and pressure, it is a grey-black solid. This makes the statement that iodine is a grey-black solid the only accurate description of a halogen’s appearance at r.t.p.

Question 25

Osmium is a transition element.
Which row gives the expected properties of osmium?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 8.4: Transition elements (Describe the transition elements as metals that: have high densities, have high melting points, form coloured compounds)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Transition elements like osmium have typical metallic properties but are distinct from Group I metals. They are known for being very dense, having very high melting points, and critically, they often form coloured compounds. For example, copper(II) sulfate is blue and iron(III) oxide is red-brown. While Group I compounds are typically white, transition element compounds are frequently coloured, making Row A the correct choice.

Question 26

Which statement about the element neon, Ne, is correct?
A. It is in Group VII of the Periodic Table.
B. It reacts rapidly with oxygen.
C. It exists as diatomic molecules.
D. Its atoms have a full outer shell of electrons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 8.5: Noble gases (Describe the Group VIII noble gases as unreactive, monatomic gases and explain this in terms of electronic configuration)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Neon is a noble gas found in Group VIII (Group 0/18), not Group VII. Because it has a full outer shell of electrons, it is extremely unreactive and does not react readily with oxygen. Noble gases are also monatomic, meaning they exist as single atoms, unlike diatomic molecules such as \(O_2\) or \(N_2\). The reason for this unreactivity is its stable, full outer electron shell, making D the correct statement.

Question 27

Substance G reacts with:
  • dilute acids to produce hydrogen
  • steam to produce a basic oxide
  • oxygen to produce a basic oxide.
What is substance G?
A. magnesium
B. phosphorus
C. silicon
D. silver

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 9.1: Properties of metals (Describe the general chemical properties of metals, limited to their reactions with: dilute acids, cold water and steam, oxygen)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

A substance that reacts with dilute acids to produce hydrogen gas is a metal. The fact that it forms a basic oxide with both steam and oxygen confirms it’s a metal. Silver is too unreactive to react with dilute acids, so it cannot be the answer. Phosphorus and silicon are non-metals and would form acidic oxides. Magnesium fits all the criteria: it reacts with acids, and its oxide (MgO) is a basic oxide.

Question 28

Which row describes two properties and a use of the named metal?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 9.2: Uses of metals (Describe the uses of metals in terms of their physical properties)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Aluminium is used for overhead power cables precisely because it has a low density (making the cables lighter and easier to support) and because it is a good conductor of electricity. Option A is wrong because aluminium has a low density, not high. Copper is used for wiring because it has excellent ductility, so C is wrong. Copper also has a high density, not low, so D’s description for aircraft manufacture is also incorrect.

Question 29

Four methods to prevent the rusting of iron are listed.
  1. alloying
  2. coating with plastic
  3. greasing
  4. painting
Which methods are barrier methods?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 3 and 4 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 9.5: Corrosion of metals (State some common barrier methods, including painting, greasing and coating with plastic; Describe how barrier methods prevent rusting by excluding oxygen or water)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Barrier methods prevent rusting by physically stopping oxygen and water from reaching the iron surface. Coating with plastic (2), greasing (3), and painting (4) all create a physical barrier. Alloying (1), such as making stainless steel, is different—it changes the chemical composition of the iron itself so it doesn’t rust, rather than just providing a physical barrier. Therefore, 2, 3, and 4 are the true barrier methods.

Question 30

Iron is extracted from hematite in a blast furnace.
Which reaction involves thermal decomposition?
A. Calcium carbonate reacts to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
B. Carbon (coke) reacts with oxygen to form carbon dioxide.
C. Carbon dioxide reacts with carbon to form carbon monoxide.
D. Iron(III) oxide reacts with carbon monoxide to form iron and carbon dioxide.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 9.6: Extraction of metals (Describe the extraction of iron from hematite in the blast furnace, limited to: the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate/limestone to produce calcium oxide)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Thermal decomposition is the breakdown of a compound into simpler substances using heat. In the blast furnace, calcium carbonate (limestone) breaks down when heated to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide: \(CaCO_3 \rightarrow CaO + CO_2\). Reaction B is combustion, C is a reduction, and D is a redox/reduction reaction. Only reaction A involves a single compound breaking down into two simpler substances upon heating.

Question 31

Clean, dry air contains nitrogen, oxygen and small amounts of other gases.
The noble gases have been left out of the table.
Which row shows the composition of clean, dry air?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 10.3: Air quality and climate (State the composition of clean, dry air as approximately 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and the remainder as a mixture of noble gases and carbon dioxide)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The primary gases in clean, dry air are approximately 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen. The remaining 1% is mostly noble gases like argon, with a very small amount of carbon dioxide. Carbon monoxide is a toxic pollutant and is not a natural component of clean air. So, the correct row must list 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and then carbon dioxide (not carbon monoxide) as part of the remaining gases.

Question 32

Some substances found in water from natural sources are potentially harmful.
Which substance contains microbes that cause disease?
A. metal compounds
B. nitrates
C. phosphates
D. sewage

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 10.1: Water (State that some of these substances are potentially harmful, including: sewage contains harmful microbes which cause disease)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Microbes, such as bacteria and viruses that cause diseases like cholera and typhoid, are typically introduced to natural water sources through sewage. Metal compounds can be toxic, and nitrates and phosphates cause environmental problems like deoxygenation of water. However, these are chemical pollutants, not biological ones. Sewage is the specific pollutant that is rich in disease-causing microbes.

Question 33

Gas X is a waste gas from digestion in animals.
Gas Y is formed when gas X is burned with an insufficient amount of oxygen.
Gas Z is formed when gas X is burned with an excess of oxygen.
What are X, Y and Z?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 10.3: Air quality and climate (State the source of each of these air pollutants, limited to: methane from the decomposition of vegetation and waste gases from digestion in animals; carbon monoxide and particulates from the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels; carbon dioxide from the complete combustion of carbon-containing fuels)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Gas X, a waste gas from animal digestion, is methane (\(CH_4\)). When a hydrocarbon like methane burns, complete combustion with excess oxygen produces carbon dioxide (\(Z\)). Incomplete combustion, which happens when there is insufficient oxygen, produces the toxic gas carbon monoxide (\(Y\)). The correct sequence is therefore Methane \(\rightarrow\) Carbon monoxide \(\rightarrow\) Carbon dioxide, matching row D perfectly.

Question 34

Which statement about photosynthesis is correct?
A. It decreases the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
B. It is a reaction between carbon dioxide and water.
C. It produces a gas that contributes to increased global warming.
D. It requires a temperature greater than \(50^{\circ}C\).

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 10.3: Air quality and climate (Describe photosynthesis as the reaction between carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose and oxygen)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Photosynthesis uses light energy and chlorophyll to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. It actually increases oxygen levels, so A is wrong. It produces oxygen, not a greenhouse gas, so C is wrong. Photosynthesis happens best at moderate temperatures, usually well below \(50^{\circ}C\), so D is wrong. The central reaction is indeed between carbon dioxide and water, making B the only correct description.

Question 35

L and M are different homologous series.
The first three members of homologous series L all decolourise aqueous bromine.
The first three members of homologous series M all dissolve in water to give solutions with a pH below 7.
What are the general formulae for homologous series L and M?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology (Write and interpret general formulae of compounds in the same homologous series)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Homologous series L decolourises aqueous bromine, which is the classic test for alkenes (unsaturated compounds). Alkenes have the general formula \(C_nH_{2n}\). Series M dissolves in water to form acidic solutions (pH below 7), which means they are carboxylic acids. The general formula for a carboxylic acid is \(C_nH_{2n+1}COOH\). This pairing of alkene and carboxylic acid general formulas matches Row A exactly.

Question 36

Which structure represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 11.1: Formulae, functional groups and terminology (State that an unsaturated compound has molecules in which one or more carbon–carbon bonds are not single bonds)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

An unsaturated hydrocarbon contains at least one carbon-carbon double bond (C=C). By looking at the diagrams, we need to find a molecule that has only carbon and hydrogen atoms and also contains a double bond. The correct structure is ethene (or a similar alkene), which has the formula \(C_2H_4\) and the characteristic C=C double bond that marks it as unsaturated.

Question 37

Petroleum is a mixture of compounds. Which elements are present in all of these compounds?
  1. carbon
  2. hydrogen
  3. oxygen
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 11.3: Fuels (State that hydrocarbons are compounds that contain hydrogen and carbon only; State that petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons. By definition, a hydrocarbon is a compound containing only the elements hydrogen and carbon. This means every compound in petroleum must contain carbon and hydrogen. Oxygen is not a component of hydrocarbons and is only present if the compound belongs to a different chemical family, like alcohols or acids. So, the correct set is carbon and hydrogen only.

Question 38

Which statement about ethanol explains why it is used as a fuel?
A. It is a colourless liquid.
B. It has a low density.
C. It forms carbon dioxide when burned.
D. It releases energy when burned.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 11.6: Alcohols (Describe the combustion of ethanol; State the uses of ethanol as: a fuel)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The primary purpose of any fuel is to release energy, usually in the form of heat and light, when it is burned. This energy is harnessed for various applications. While it’s true that ethanol forms carbon dioxide when burned (\(C_2H_5OH + 3O_2 \rightarrow 2CO_2 + 3H_2O\)), this is a consequence, not the reason it is useful as a fuel. The key reason is the exothermic nature of its combustion, releasing energy.

Question 39

The table shows the observations of two tests on an aqueous solution of a solid.
What is the solid?
A. chromium(III) bromide
B. chromium(III) chloride
C. iron(II) bromide
D. iron(II) chloride

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 12.5: Identification of ions and gases (Describe tests to identify the anions: chloride, bromide, iodide by acidifying with dilute nitric acid then adding aqueous silver nitrate; Describe tests using aqueous sodium hydroxide to identify the aqueous cations: chromium(III), iron(II))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The first test with acidified silver nitrate gives a white precipitate. This tells us the anion is a chloride ion (\(Cl^-\)), because silver chloride is white (bromide would give a cream precipitate, and iodide a yellow one). The second test with aqueous sodium hydroxide gives a green precipitate that dissolves in excess NaOH. A green precipitate points to either chromium(III) or iron(II). Crucially, chromium(III) hydroxide dissolves in excess sodium hydroxide, whereas iron(II) hydroxide is insoluble in excess. So the cation must be chromium(III). Therefore, the solid is chromium(III) chloride.

Question 40

W is a mixture of coloured dyes. It is thought to contain dyes P, Q, R or S. A sample of W is separated by chromatography. The chromatogram is shown.
What does the chromatogram show?
A. W contains P and S only.
B. W contains P and R only.
C. W contains P, Q and S.
D. W contains P, R and S.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry 0620):

TOPIC 12.3: Chromatography (Interpret simple chromatograms to identify: unknown substances by comparison with known substances, pure and impure substances)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

In paper chromatography, a substance is identified by comparing the distance its spot travels up the paper relative to known reference spots. Two spots are the same substance if they travel the same distance from the baseline. Looking at the chromatogram, mixture W has separated into three distinct spots. By drawing horizontal lines across from these spots, we can see they line up perfectly with reference dyes P, R, and S. No spot in mixture W aligns with dye Q. Therefore, the chromatogram proves that W contains P, R, and S, making option D the correct interpretation.

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