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Question 1

Which single apparatus is used to find the volume of a solid cube and which single apparatus is used to find the volume of a quantity of liquid?

Apparatus options table

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.1: Physical quantities and measurement techniques (Describe the use of rulers and measuring cylinders to find a length or a volume)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The volume of a solid cube with regular sides is found by measuring its dimensions with a ruler and calculating $V = l \times w \times h$.
The volume of a liquid is measured directly by pouring it into a measuring cylinder and reading the meniscus level.
Option D correctly pairs the ruler for the cube and the measuring cylinder for the liquid.
Other options incorrectly pair the apparatus with the measurement task.

Question 2

The speed–time graph represents a short journey.
Which distance–time graph represents the same journey?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion (Sketch, plot and interpret distance–time and speed–time graphs)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The given speed-time graph displays a straight diagonal line going downwards, representing constant deceleration to a stop.
On a distance-time graph, the gradient (or slope) at any given point represents the object’s speed.
Since the speed is constantly decreasing, the gradient of the distance-time graph must start steep and progressively become flatter.
Graph B perfectly illustrates this relationship, showing a curve with a decreasing positive slope that eventually becomes horizontal as the object stops.

Question 3

The graph represents the motion of a car.
How far has the car moved between 0 and 5 s?
A. 2 m
B. 10 m
C. 25 m
D. 50 m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion (Calculate the area under a speed–time graph to determine the distance travelled for motion with constant speed or constant acceleration)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To find the distance travelled from a speed–time graph, we need to calculate the area under the line.
For the time interval between 0 and 5 s, the graph shows a constant speed of 5 m/s.
The shape formed under the graph is a rectangle with a base of 5 s and a height of 5 m/s.
Calculating the area: Area = base × height = 5 s × 5 m/s = 25 m.
Therefore, the car has moved 25 m, which corresponds to Option C.

Question 4

Which statement about mass or weight is not correct?
A. Masses can be compared using a balance.
B. Mass is a force.
C. Weights can be compared using a balance.
D. Weight is a force.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and weight (State that mass is a measure of the quantity of matter and weight is a gravitational force)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Mass is defined as the measure of the quantity of matter in an object, making it a scalar quantity and not a force.
Weight is the gravitational force acting on an object that has mass.
Both masses and weights can be reliably compared using a balance.
Therefore, the statement “Mass is a force” is fundamentally incorrect.
This matches Option B.

Question 5

Which two quantities must be known to determine the density of a material?
A. mass and area
B. mass and volume
C. weight and area
D. weight and volume

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.4: Density (Define density as mass per unit volume) [cite: 194]
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Density ($\rho$) is defined as the mass per unit volume of a material. [cite: 194]
This relationship is mathematically expressed by the formula: $\rho = \frac{m}{V}$. [cite: 195]
Therefore, to determine a material’s density, you explicitly need to measure its mass ($m$) and its volume ($V$). [cite: 194]
Weight is a gravitational force, and area is a two-dimensional measure, neither of which are used in this standard calculation. [cite: 192]
This makes Option B the correct choice.

Question 6

Two boys are sitting on a see-saw. The see-saw is in equilibrium and remains horizontal.
What affects the moment of each boy about the pivot?
A. his distance from the pivot only
B. his height above the ground and his weight
C. his weight only
D. his weight and distance from the pivot

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Define the moment of a force as moment = force × perpendicular distance from the pivot)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The moment of a force is a measure of its turning effect around a pivot point.
It is defined and calculated using the equation: moment = force × perpendicular distance from the pivot.
In this scenario, the downward force acting on the see-saw is the weight of each boy.
Therefore, the moment exerted by each boy is determined by both his weight and his horizontal distance from the pivot.
This makes Option D the correct choice.

Question 7

A uniform metre rule is pivoted in equilibrium at the 50 cm mark. A mass of 25 g is placed at the 30 cm mark on the rule.
What is the smallest mass that can be placed on the rule to restore equilibrium?
A. 5 g
B. 10 g
C. 15 g
D. 25 g

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Apply the principle of moments to situations with one force each side of the pivot, including balancing of a beam)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

According to the principle of moments, the anticlockwise moment must equal the clockwise moment.
The anticlockwise moment is $25 \times (50 – 30) = 500$ g·cm.
To restore equilibrium using the smallest possible mass, it must be placed at the maximum distance from the pivot.
The maximum distance on the opposite side of the 100 cm rule is 50 cm (placed exactly at the 100 cm mark).
Equating the moments gives $m \times 50 = 500$, which solves to $m = 10$ g, matching Option B.

Question 8

A uniform beam XY is 100 cm long and weighs 4.0 N.
The beam rests on a pivot 60 cm from end X.
A load of 8.0 N hangs from the beam 10 cm from end X.
The beam is kept balanced by a force F acting on the beam 80 cm from end X.
What is the magnitude of force F?
A. 8.0 N
B. 18 N
C. 22 N
D. 44 N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Apply the principle of moments to other situations, including those with more than one force each side of the pivot)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The uniform beam’s 4.0 N weight acts at its center of gravity, which is 50 cm from end X.
The pivot is at 60 cm, making the lever arms: 8.0 N load = 50 cm, beam weight = 10 cm, and force F = 20 cm.
By the principle of moments: Total Anticlockwise Moment = Total Clockwise Moment.
(8.0 N × 50 cm) + (4.0 N × 10 cm) = F × 20 cm.
400 + 40 = 20F, which simplifies to 440 = 20F.
Therefore, solving for F gives 22 N.

Question 9

Three children’s toys, X, Y and Z, are the same size and shape. They have weights at different positions inside so that the position of the centre of gravity of each toy is different. Each toy’s centre of gravity is marked P.
Which toy is the most stable and which toy is the least stable when balanced in the positions shown?
A. X is most stable, Y is least stable
B. X is most stable, Z is least stable
C. Y is most stable, X is least stable
D. Y is most stable, Z is least stable

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.3: Centre of gravity (Describe, qualitatively, the effect of the position of the centre of gravity on the stability of simple objects)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The stability of an object depends on the height of its centre of gravity above its base.
An object is more stable when its centre of gravity is lower, as a greater angle of tilt is required before its weight causes it to topple.
In the diagram, toy X has the lowest centre of gravity (point P), making it the most stable.
Conversely, toy Z has the highest centre of gravity, making it the least stable.
Therefore, X is the most stable and Z is the least stable, matching Option B.

Question 10

The diagram shows the energy stores for a mobile (cell) phone and how the energy is transferred between stores.
What describes how the chemical energy is transferred?
A. electrical work done
B. mechanical work done
C. electromagnetic waves
D. sound waves

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.1: Energy (Describe how energy is transferred between stores during events and processes, including examples of transfer by electrical currents (electrical work done))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

A mobile phone is powered by a battery, which functions as a chemical energy store.
When the phone is in use, this chemical energy is transferred to other components via an electric current.
According to the syllabus, energy transfer by electrical currents is defined as electrical work done.
Therefore, the process describing how chemical energy moves from the battery store is electrical work.
This matches Option A.

Question 11

A moving object is brought to rest by a resistive force of 50 N over a distance of 5.0 m. What is the work done by the force?
A. 0.10 J
B. 10 J
C. 55 J
D. 250 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.2: Work (Recall and use the equation for mechanical working $W = Fd = \Delta E$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Work done ($W$) is defined as the product of the force ($F$) and the distance ($d$) moved in the direction of the force .
Using the formula $W = F \times d$, substitute the given values: $W = 50\text{ N} \times 5.0\text{ m}$.
Calculating the product gives $W = 250\text{ J}$.
This matches the value provided in Option D.

Question 12

Which two physical quantities must be used to calculate the power developed by a student running up a flight of steps?
A. force exerted and the vertical height of the steps only
B. force exerted and the time taken only
C. work done and the vertical height of the steps only
D. work done and the time taken only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.4: Power (Define power as work done per unit time and also as energy transferred per unit time)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Power is defined as the rate at which work is done or the rate at which energy is transferred .
The standard formula for power is $P = \frac{W}{t}$, where $W$ represents work done and $t$ represents the time taken .
While work done can be further calculated as force multiplied by distance, the primary definition relies on work and time.
Therefore, to calculate the power developed by the student, both work done and time taken are essential quantities.
This corresponds directly to Option D.

Question 13

A rectangular marble block has dimensions 1 m by 1 m by 5 m and weighs 125 000 N.
The marble block is stored with the long side resting on the ground, as in diagram 1.
What is the change in the pressure on the ground due to the block when the block is stored as in diagram 2 rather than diagram 1?
A. a decrease of 25 000 N/m²
B. an increase of 100 000 N/m²
C. an increase of 125 000 N/m²
D. no change

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.8: Pressure (Define pressure as force per unit area; recall and use the equation $p = F / A$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Pressure is defined as $P = F/A$. In Diagram 1, the base area is $1\text{m} \times 5\text{m} = 5\text{m}^2$, resulting in a pressure of $125\,000\text{N} / 5\text{m}^2 = 25\,000\text{ Pa}$.
In Diagram 2, the base area is $1\text{m} \times 1\text{m} = 1\text{m}^2$, making the pressure $125\,000\text{N} / 1\text{m}^2 = 125\,000\text{ Pa}$.
The change in pressure is $125\,000\text{ Pa} – 25\,000\text{ Pa} = 100\,000\text{ Pa}$.
This represents an increase of $100\,000\text{ N/m}^2$, matching Option B.

Question 14

Four students describe the phrase ‘absolute zero’ during a lesson on the particle model.
Which student is correct?
A. This is the lowest possible temperature.
B. Particles in a solid start vibrating.
C. Particles do not have any weight.
D. Particles have the least gravitational potential energy.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.1: State of matter (Describe the relationship between the motion of particles and temperature, including the idea that there is a lowest possible temperature (–273 °C), known as absolute zero, where the particles have least kinetic energy)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Absolute zero is defined as the lowest theoretical temperature achievable, equivalent to 0 K or approximately −273 ∘ C.
At this temperature, the kinetic energy of particles reaches its absolute minimum.
Since internal energy is related to particle motion, as temperature decreases, particles move less until they have the least possible energy.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the fundamental temperature limit or its effect on internal energy.
Therefore, student A provides the correct description of absolute zero.

Question 15

At the surface of a liquid, the more energetic molecules can escape from the liquid into the atmosphere. Which name is given to this process?
A. boiling
B. condensation
C. evaporation
D. melting

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2: Thermal properties and temperature (Describe evaporation in terms of the escape of more-energetic particles from the surface of a liquid)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Molecules in a liquid have a range of kinetic energies; some move faster than others.
Particles at the surface with high enough energy can overcome the attractive forces of neighboring molecules and escape as gas.
This specific surface-level process is known as evaporation and can occur at any temperature.
In contrast, boiling involves the formation of bubbles throughout the entire liquid, not just at the surface.
Therefore, the correct term for surface-based escape is evaporation, matching Option C.

Question 16

A teacher puts some cold water in a test-tube.
She holds the bottom of the test-tube while heating the top.
The water at the top boils but she continues to hold the test-tube as the bottom remains cold.
Which conclusion about water is made from this experiment?
A. Water is a bad conductor.
B. Water is a bad convector.
C. Water is a good conductor.
D. Water is a good convector.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.3.1: Conduction (Describe experiments to demonstrate the properties of good and bad thermal conductors)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

In this experiment, heat is applied to the top of the water while the bottom stays cold.
Since hot water is less dense, it remains at the top, preventing heat transfer via convection to the bottom.
Any heat reaching the bottom would have to travel through the water by conduction.
Because the bottom remains cold even when the top boils, it proves water does not conduct heat well.
Therefore, the experiment concludes that water is a bad conductor, matching Option A.

Question 17

The diagram shows a wave.
What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Describe the features of a wave in terms of wavefront, wavelength, frequency, crest (peak), trough, amplitude and wave speed)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The amplitude is the maximum displacement from the equilibrium position to a crest or trough; the diagram shows this vertical distance is $3\text{ cm}$.
The wavelength is the horizontal distance between two consecutive identical points, such as from one crest to the next.
From the diagram, one complete wave cycle spans a horizontal distance of $8\text{ cm}$.
Therefore, the amplitude is $3\text{ cm}$ and the wavelength is $8\text{ cm}$.
This corresponds to the values provided in Option B.

Question 18

A light ray strikes a plane mirror and is reflected.
Which angle is always equal in size to the angle of reflection?
A. the angle between the incident ray and the mirror
B. the angle between the incident ray and the normal to the mirror
C. the angle between the reflected ray and the mirror
D. the angle between the reflected ray and the incident ray

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light (State that for reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection.
The angle of incidence is defined as the angle between the incident ray and the normal to the mirror.
The angle of reflection is defined as the angle between the reflected ray and the normal.
Therefore, the angle between the incident ray and the normal is the correct equivalent.
This corresponds to Option B.

Question 19

The diagram shows two diverging rays of light passing through a lens and emerging parallel to each other.
Which labelled distance is the focal length of the lens?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.3: Thin lenses (Define and use the terms focal length, principal axis and principal focus)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The focal length is defined as the distance from the optical centre of the lens to its principal focus.
Rays of light that pass through the principal focus emerge parallel to the principal axis after passing through a converging lens.
In the diagram, the rays originate from a single point and become parallel, identifying that point as the principal focus.
Distance B measures the span between the center of the lens and this focal point.
Therefore, B represents the focal length of the lens.

Question 20

A beam of light consists of yellow and blue light. The beam of light is incident on a glass prism.
Which diagram is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2: Light (Describe the dispersion of light as illustrated by the passage of white light through a glass prism)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

When a beam of light enters a prism, it undergoes refraction and dispersion because different colors have different refractive indices in glass.
Blue light has a shorter wavelength and a higher frequency than yellow light, causing it to slow down more and refract (bend) at a greater angle.
In the diagrams, blue light should be positioned further away from the original path of the incident beam than yellow light.
Diagram D correctly shows both colors bending toward the normal upon entry and away from the normal upon exit, with blue light deviating more than yellow light.
This correctly demonstrates the dispersion of light within a glass prism.

Question 21

The two devices shown use different types of electromagnetic waves.
Which types of waves are used in these devices?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Describe typical uses of the different regions of the electromagnetic spectrum)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Medical scanning, such as imaging broken bones, typically utilizes X-rays due to their ability to penetrate soft tissue while being absorbed by dense materials .
Television remote controllers operate using infrared radiation to transmit short-range signals.
Comparing these requirements to the table, the medical scanner uses X-rays and the remote controller uses infrared.
This combination corresponds to the row for Option C.

Question 22

A boy shouts and hears the echo from a tall building 2.2 s later. The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s.
How far away from the boy is the building?
A. 150 m
B. 300 m
C. 360 m
D. 730 m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.4: Sound (Describe the reflection of sound waves as an echo)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

An echo involves sound travelling to the building and back, so the total distance is 2×distance to building(d).
Using the formula distance=speed×time, the total travel distance is 330 m/s×2.2 s=726 m.
To find the distance to the building, divide the total distance by 2: d=726 m/2=363 m.
Rounding to two significant figures as per the options, the distance is approximately 360 m.
This matches Option C.

Question 23

The magnetic field of a bar magnet can be represented by magnetic field lines.
Which diagram shows two magnetic field lines correctly?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism (Draw the pattern and direction of magnetic field lines around a bar magnet)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Magnetic field lines indicate the direction of the force on a North pole, always pointing from the North pole toward the South pole outside the magnet.
Diagram A correctly shows the lines emerging from the North (N) and entering the South (S).
The lines must also be continuous loops and should not cross each other.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they show either reversed directions or lines pointing away from both poles.
Therefore, Option A is the only correct representation of the magnetic field pattern.

Question 24

A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.
Why has the rod become positively charged?
A. It has gained electrons.
B. It has gained neutrons.
C. It has lost electrons.
D. It has lost neutrons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.1: Electric charge (Explain that charging of solids by friction involves only a transfer of negative charge (electrons))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Charging by friction occurs because of the transfer of electrons between two surfaces.
Electrons are negatively charged particles; protons and neutrons remain fixed in the nucleus.
For an object to become positively charged, it must have a deficit of negative charges.
In this case, rubbing causes electrons to move from the plastic rod to the dry cloth.
This loss of electrons leaves the rod with an overall positive charge, matching Option C.

Question 25

Which statement about electric current in a conductor is correct?
A. In a d.c. circuit, the electric current gradually decreases along the conductor.
B. In a d.c. circuit, the free electrons flow back and forth.
C. In an a.c. circuit, the electric current remains exactly the same all the time.
D. In an a.c. circuit, the flow of charge changes direction continually.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2: Electrical quantities (Know the difference between direct current (d.c.) and alternating current (a.c.))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Direct current (d.c.) involves charge flowing in one constant direction, while alternating current (a.c.) involves charge changing direction periodically .
In a d.c. circuit, current is conserved and does not decrease along a single conductor.
Free electrons in a d.c. circuit move in one direction, whereas they oscillate back and forth in an a.c. circuit.
In an a.c. circuit, the magnitude and direction of the current vary over time rather than remaining constant.
Therefore, statement D is the only correct description of alternating current behavior.

Question 26

Which circuit can be used to measure the resistance of a resistor?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.4: Resistance (Describe an experiment to determine resistance using a voltmeter and an ammeter and do the appropriate calculations)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To determine the resistance of a component, you must measure the potential difference (V) across it and the current (I) flowing through it.
The ammeter must be connected in series with the resistor to measure the current correctly.
The voltmeter must be connected in parallel across the resistor to measure the potential difference.
In circuit B, the ammeter is in series and the voltmeter is in parallel with the resistor, allowing for the calculation R=V/I.
Therefore, circuit B is the only setup that correctly positions both meters for this measurement.

Question 27

A lamp rated 12V, 2.0A is switched on for 60s.
How much energy is transferred?
A. 0.40 J
B. 10 J
C. 360 J
D. 1400 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power (Recall and use the equation for electrical energy E=IVt)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To find the energy transferred, use the formula E=V×I×t, where V is voltage, I is current, and t is time.
Substitute the given values into the equation: E=12 V×2.0 A×60 s.
Calculating the product gives E=1440 J.
Among the given choices, 1400 J is the closest approximate value.
Therefore, the correct choice is Option D.

Question 28

The circuit diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors. Four labelled ammeters are connected into the circuit.
Which ammeter shows the largest reading?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3: Electric circuits (State that, for a parallel circuit, the current from the source is larger than the current in each branch)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In the given circuit, ammeters B and C are connected in separate parallel branches, measuring only the current flowing through their respective resistors.
Ammeter D is placed in the main part of the circuit directly connected to the battery source.
According to the rules of parallel circuits, the total current entering a junction must equal the sum of the currents in the branches.
Therefore, the current at D is the sum of the currents passing through B and C, making it the largest reading.
This corresponds to Option D.

Question 29

Two lamps are connected in parallel.
Which switches must be closed so that both lamps light?
A. S₁ and S₂ only
B. S₁ and S₃ only
C. S₂ and S₃ only
D. S₁, S₂ and S₃

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3: Electric circuits (Draw and interpret circuit diagrams containing switches and lamps)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Switch S₁ is in the main branch, so it must be closed for any current to flow from the power supply.
Switches S₂ and S₃ are in separate parallel branches, each controlling one of the two lamps.
To light the first lamp, both S₁ and S₂ must be closed; to light the second lamp, both S₁ and S₃ must be closed.
Therefore, for both lamps to light simultaneously, all three switches S₁, S₂, and S₃ must be closed.
This corresponds to Option D.

Question 30

Which statement about electrical safety is correct?
A. If a device is double insulated, it does not need a fuse.
B. A device that has a normal operating current of 3.0 A must be protected by a 3.0 A fuse.
C. Switches must always be connected into the live supply wire.
D. The metal casing of an electrical device must be connected to the neutral wire.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.4: Electrical safety (Explain why a switch must be connected to the live wire for the circuit to be switched off safely)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Switches and fuses must be connected to the live wire to ensure safety .
When the switch is open, this arrangement disconnects the device from the high-voltage supply .
If a switch were on the neutral wire, the device would remain “live” even when turned off, posing a shock risk .
Regarding other options: double-insulated devices still require fuses to protect against excess current .
A fuse rating must be slightly higher than the operating current to prevent unnecessary blowing.

Question 31

A student investigates the output voltage induced across a coil of wire by a bar magnet. When will the induced voltage have the greatest value?
A. The student slowly moves the bar magnet into the coil of wire.
B. The student leaves the bar magnet stationary in the coil of wire.
C. The student quickly removes the bar magnet from the coil of wire.
D. The student places the bar magnet at rest outside the coil of wire.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.1: Electromagnetic induction (State the factors affecting the magnitude of an induced e.m.f.)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

An electromotive force (e.m.f.) is induced when a conductor moves across a magnetic field or when a magnetic field linking a conductor changes .
The magnitude of this induced voltage depends on the rate at which the magnetic field lines are cut or changed.
Moving the magnet quickly creates a higher rate of change in the magnetic field compared to moving it slowly.
Stationary magnets (Options B and D) do not cause a change in magnetic field linkage, resulting in zero induced voltage.
Therefore, quickly removing the magnet produces the greatest induced voltage, matching Option C.

Question 32

In which device is the magnetic effect of a current not used?
A. electromagnet
B. loudspeaker
C. potential divider
D. relay

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5: Electromagnetic effects
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Electromagnets, loudspeakers, and relays all utilize the magnetic field generated by an electric current to operate mechanical parts or produce sound.
A potential divider is a purely resistive circuit used to scale down voltage and does not involve magnetic fields or electromagnetic induction.
Therefore, it is the only device listed that does not use the magnetic effect of a current.
This corresponds to Option C.

Question 33

The diagram represents the transmission of electricity from a power station to homes that are many kilometres away. Two transformers are labelled X and Y.
What type of transformers are X and Y?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3: Electric circuits (Draw and interpret circuit diagrams containing… transformers)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

In long-distance electricity transmission, transformer X must be a step-up transformer to increase voltage and minimize energy loss in cables.
Transformer Y is located near the destination to decrease the voltage to a safe level for domestic use, making it a step-down transformer.
Step-up transformers increase potential difference, while step-down transformers decrease it.
This configuration ensures efficiency during transit and safety at the point of use.
Therefore, X is step-up and Y is step-down, matching Option C.

Question 34

Which diagram represents the positions of the charged particles of an atom?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.1: Atomic model (Describe the structure of an atom in terms of a positively charged nucleus and negatively charged electrons in orbit around the nucleus)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The nuclear model of the atom states that the mass and positive charge are concentrated in a central nucleus .
Protons (positively charged) and neutrons (neutral) are located inside this nucleus .
Electrons (negatively charged) move in orbits around the outside of the nucleus.
Diagram A correctly shows the positive charges in the center and negative charges in orbit.
Therefore, Option A is the correct representation of the charged particles.

Question 35

The table shows the composition of three different nuclei.
Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element?
A. X, Y and Z
B. X and Y only
C. X and Z only
D. Y and Z only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.2: The nucleus (Explain what is meant by an isotope and state that an element may have more than one isotope)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Isotopes of the same element must have the same number of protons (atomic number) but different numbers of neutrons.
Looking at the table, nucleus X and nucleus Y both have 3 protons, which identifies them as the same element.
Nucleus X has 3 neutrons, while nucleus Y has 4 neutrons, satisfying the condition for isotopes.
Nucleus Z has 4 protons, meaning it belongs to a different chemical element entirely.
Therefore, only X and Y are isotopes of the same element, which corresponds to Option B.

Question 36

A sample of a radioactive isotope emits 9600 α-particles per second. After 40 hours the rate of emission has fallen to 600 α-particles per second. What is the half-life of this isotope?
A. 4.0 hours
B. 8.0 hours
C. 10 hours
D. 20 hours

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2: Radioactivity (Explain the meaning of half-life for a particular isotope and use the term in context, including the use of investment or decay curves and numerical problems)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

First, calculate the reduction factor in activity: 9600/600=16.
Since 16=2 4 , this indicates that exactly 4 half-lives have elapsed.
The total time taken for this decay is given as 40 hours.
Therefore, the duration of one half-life is 40 hours/4=10 hours.
This matches the value given in Option C.

Question 37

Which row states a harmful effect and a beneficial effect of ionising radiation on living things?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2: Radioactivity (Explain the useful applications and the hazards of ionising radiation)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Ionising radiation carries enough energy to remove electrons from atoms, which can damage DNA and cause cell mutations. This mutation of cells is a significant harmful effect on living organisms. Conversely, high doses of radiation can be precisely targeted to kill cancer cells, a process used in radiotherapy. In Row C, both effects are correctly identified: “cell mutation” as the hazard and “killing cancer cells” as the benefit. Other options incorrectly pair these effects or list processes like “making vitamin D” which are not associated with ionising nuclear radiation. Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

Question 38

Which statement about the Solar System is correct?
A. All the planets are rocky.
B. Only the Earth has a moon.
C. Pluto is a dwarf planet.
D. There are many stars in the Solar System.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.1.1: The Earth
TOPIC 6.1.2: The Solar System
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Option A is incorrect because the outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune) are gas giants, not rocky.
Option B is incorrect as many other planets, such as Mars and Jupiter, also have moons.
Option C is correct because Pluto was reclassified as a dwarf planet in 2006.
Option D is incorrect because the Solar System contains only one star, which is the Sun.
Therefore, Option C is the only correct statement.

Question 39

The graph shows the energy radiated by the Sun at different wavelengths. Most of the energy is radiated in just three parts of the electromagnetic spectrum, labelled P, Q and R.

Which parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are P and R?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.2: Stars
TOPIC 6.2.3: The Universe 
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The Sun’s peak radiation occurs across three main regions of the electromagnetic spectrum: ultraviolet, visible, and infrared.
In the spectrum, ultraviolet radiation has shorter wavelengths than visible light, while infrared radiation has longer wavelengths.
According to the graph, P represents the region with the shortest wavelengths, which is ultraviolet.
R represents the region with the longest wavelengths shown, which corresponds to infrared radiation.
Therefore, P is ultraviolet and R is infrared, matching Option D.

Question 40

An astronomer observes redshift in the light from a distant galaxy.
Which statement about redshift is correct?
A. It is the decrease in the observed wavelength of red light emitted from receding galaxies.
B. It is evidence that the Universe is contracting and supports the Big Bang Theory.
C. It is evidence that the Universe is expanding and supports the Big Bang Theory.
D. Redshift is when light from receding galaxies appears blue.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.2: Stars
TOPIC 6.2.3: The Universe 
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Redshift is defined as an increase in the observed wavelength of radiation from receding galaxies .
Light from distant galaxies appears redshifted compared to light emitted on Earth .
This observation indicates that galaxies are moving away from us, providing evidence for an expanding Universe .
This expansion is a key pillar of the Big Bang Theory.
Therefore, statement C is the only correct description of redshift and its implications.

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