Question 1 (Subtopic Code: 1.1)
Which single apparatus is used to find the volume of a solid cube and which single apparatus is used to find the volume of a quantity of liquid?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: The volume of a solid cube can be found using a ruler to measure its dimensions and then calculating the volume using the formula for the volume of a cube. The volume of a liquid is typically measured using a measuring cylinder, which is designed to measure liquid volumes accurately.
Question 2(Subtopic Code: 1.2)
The speed–time graph represents a short journey.
Which distance–time graph represents the same journey?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The speed–time graph shows that the speed is decreasing over time, which means the distance–time graph should show a decreasing rate of increase in distance. Therefore, option B is correct.
Question 3(Subtopic Code: 1.2)
The graph represents the motion of a car.
How far has the car moved between 0 and 5 s?
A: 2 m
B: 10 m
C: 25 m
D: 50 m
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The area under the speed–time graph gives the distance traveled. The graph shows a constant speed of 5 m/s over 5 seconds, so the distance is 5 m/s * 5 s = 25 m.
Question 4(Subtopic Code: 1.3)
Which statement about mass or weight is not correct?
A: Masses can be compared using a balance.
B: Mass is a force.
C: Weights can be compared using a balance.
D: Weight is a force.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Mass is a measure of the amount of matter in an object and is not a force. Weight, on the other hand, is the force exerted on an object due to gravity. Therefore, statement B is incorrect.
Question 5(Subtopic Code: 1.4)
Which two quantities must be known to determine the density of a material?
A: mass and area
B: mass and volume
C: weight and area
D: weight and volume
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Density is defined as mass per unit volume. Therefore, to determine the density of a material, you need to know both its mass and its volume.
Question 6(Subtopic Code: 1.5)
Two boys are sitting on a see-saw. The see-saw is in equilibrium and remains horizontal.
What affects the moment of each boy about the pivot?
A: his distance from the pivot only
B: his height above the ground and his weight
C: his weight only
D: his weight and distance from the pivot
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: The moment of a force (or torque) is calculated as the product of the force (weight) and the perpendicular distance from the pivot. Therefore, both the weight of the boy and his distance from the pivot affect the moment.
Question 7(Subtopic Code: 1.5)
A uniform metre rule is pivoted in equilibrium at the 50 cm mark. A mass of 25 g is placed at the 30 cm mark on the rule.
What is the smallest mass that can be placed on the rule to restore equilibrium?
A: 5 g
B: 10 g
C: 15 g
D: 25 g
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: To restore equilibrium, the moments on both sides of the pivot must be equal. The moment due to the 25 g mass is 25 g * 20 cm (distance from the pivot). To balance this, a mass of 10 g placed at the 70 cm mark (20 cm from the pivot) will create an equal moment: 10 g * 20 cm = 200 g·cm, which balances the 25 g * 20 cm = 500 g·cm moment.
Question 8(Subtopic Code: 1.5)
A uniform beam XY is 100 cm long and weighs 4.0 N.
The beam rests on a pivot 60 cm from end X.
A load of 8.0 N hangs from the beam 10 cm from end X.
The beam is kept balanced by a force F acting on the beam 80 cm from end X.
What is the magnitude of force F?
Options:
A: 8.0 N
B: 18 N
C: 22 N
D: 44 N
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: To balance the beam, the sum of the moments about the pivot must be zero. The moment due to the 8.0 N load is 8.0 N * 50 cm = 400 N·cm. The moment due to the beam’s weight is 4.0 N * 10 cm = 40 N·cm. The moment due to force F is F * 20 cm. Setting the sum of moments to zero: 400 N·cm + 40 N·cm = F * 20 cm. Solving for F gives F = 22 N.
Question 9(Subtopic Code: 1.5)
Three children’s toys, X, Y and Z, are the same size and shape. They have weights at different positions inside so that the position of the centre of gravity of each toy is different. Each toy’s centre of gravity is marked P.
Which toy is the most stable and which toy is the least stable when balanced in the positions shown?
A: X is most stable, Y is least stable
B: X is most stable, Z is least stable
C: Y is most stable, X is least stable
D: Y is most stable, Z is least stable
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The stability of an object depends on the position of its center of gravity. The lower the center of gravity, the more stable the object. Toy X has the lowest center of gravity, making it the most stable, while Toy Z has the highest center of gravity, making it the least stable.
Question 10(Subtopic Code: 1.7)
The diagram shows the energy stores for a mobile (cell) phone and how the energy is transferred between stores.
What describes how the chemical energy is transferred?
A: electrical work done
B: mechanical work done
C: electromagnetic waves
D: sound waves
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: In a mobile phone, chemical energy stored in the battery is converted into electrical energy, which is then used to power the phone’s components. Therefore, the transfer of energy is described as electrical work done.
Question 11(Subtopic Code: 1.7)
A moving object is brought to rest by a resistive force of 50 N over a distance of 5.0 m. What is the work done by the force?
A: 0.10 J
B: 10 J
C: 55 J
D: 250 J
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Work done is calculated using the formula \( W = F \times d \), where \( F \) is the force and \( d \) is the distance. Here, \( W = 50 \, \text{N} \times 5.0 \, \text{m} = 250 \, \text{J} \).
Question 12(Subtopic Code: 1.7)
Which two physical quantities must be used to calculate the power developed by a student running up a flight of steps?
A: force exerted and the vertical height of the steps only
B: force exerted and the time taken only
C: work done and the vertical height of the steps only
D: work done and the time taken only
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Power is defined as the rate at which work is done, so it is calculated using the formula \( P = \frac{W}{t} \), where \( W \) is the work done and \( t \) is the time taken. Therefore, both work done and time taken are needed to calculate power.
Question 13(Subtopic Code: 1.8)
A rectangular marble block has dimensions 1 m by 1 m by 5 m and weighs 125 000 N.
The marble block is stored with the long side resting on the ground, as in diagram 1.
What is the change in the pressure on the ground due to the block when the block is stored as in diagram 2 rather than diagram 1?
A: a decrease of 25 000 N/m²
B: an increase of 100 000 N/m²
C: an increase of 125 000 N/m²
D: no change
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Pressure is calculated as \( P = \frac{F}{A} \), where \( F \) is the force (weight) and \( A \) is the area. In diagram 1, the area is \( 1 \, \text{m} \times 5 \, \text{m} = 5 \, \text{m}^2 \), so the pressure is \( \frac{125000 \, \text{N}}{5 \, \text{m}^2} = 25000 \, \text{N/m}^2 \). In diagram 2, the area is \( 1 \, \text{m} \times 1 \, \text{m} = 1 \, \text{m}^2 \), so the pressure is \( \frac{125000 \, \text{N}}{1 \, \text{m}^2} = 125000 \, \text{N/m}^2 \). The change in pressure is \( 125000 \, \text{N/m}^2 – 25000 \, \text{N/m}^2 = 100000 \, \text{N/m}^2 \), which is an increase.
Question 14(Subtopic Code: 2.1)
Four students describe the phrase ‘absolute zero’ during a lesson on the particle model.
Which student is correct?
A: This is the lowest possible temperature.
B: Particles in a solid start vibrating.
C: Particles do not have any weight.
D: Particles have the least gravitational potential energy.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: Absolute zero is the lowest possible temperature, at which particles have minimal vibrational motion. It is defined as 0 K on the Kelvin scale, which is approximately -273.15°C.
Question 15(Subtopic Code: 2.2)
At the surface of a liquid, the more energetic molecules can escape from the liquid into the atmosphere. Which name is given to this process?
A: boiling
B: condensation
C: evaporation
D: melting
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Evaporation is the process by which molecules at the surface of a liquid gain enough energy to escape into the atmosphere. This typically occurs at temperatures below the boiling point of the liquid.
Question 16(Subtopic Code: 2.3)
A teacher puts some cold water in a test-tube.
She holds the bottom of the test-tube while heating the top.
The water at the top boils but she continues to hold the test-tube as the bottom remains cold.
Which conclusion about water is made from this experiment?
A: Water is a bad conductor.
B: Water is a bad convector.
C: Water is a good conductor.
D: Water is a good convector.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: The experiment shows that heat is not being conducted effectively from the top to the bottom of the test-tube, indicating that water is a poor conductor of heat. If water were a good conductor, the heat would have spread evenly throughout the test-tube.
Question 17(Subtopic Code: 3.1)
The diagram shows a wave.
What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The amplitude of a wave is the maximum displacement from the equilibrium position, which is 3 cm in this case. The wavelength is the distance between two consecutive crests or troughs, which is 8 cm in this case.
Question 18(Subtopic Code: 3.2)
A light ray strikes a plane mirror and is reflected.
Which angle is always equal in size to the angle of reflection?
A: the angle between the incident ray and the mirror
B: the angle between the incident ray and the normal to the mirror
C: the angle between the reflected ray and the mirror
D: the angle between the reflected ray and the incident ray
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence (the angle between the incident ray and the normal) is equal to the angle of reflection (the angle between the reflected ray and the normal).
Question 19(Subtopic Code: 3.2)
The diagram shows two diverging rays of light passing through a lens and emerging parallel to each other.
Which labelled distance is the focal length of the lens?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The focal length of a lens is the distance from the lens to the focal point, where parallel rays of light converge or appear to diverge from. In this case, the distance labelled B corresponds to the focal length.
Question 20(Subtopic Code: 3.2)
A beam of light consists of yellow and blue light. The beam of light is incident on a glass prism.
Which diagram is correct?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Question 21(Subtopic Code: 3.3)
The two devices shown use different types of electromagnetic waves.
Which types of waves are used in these devices?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Medical scanning typically uses X-rays, which can penetrate the body to create images of internal structures. Remote controllers use infrared waves to send signals to devices like televisions.
Question 22(Subtopic Code: 3.4)
A boy shouts and hears the echo from a tall building 2.2 s later. The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s.
How far away from the boy is the building?
A: 150 m
B: 300 m
C: 360 m
D: 730 m
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The distance to the building can be calculated using the formula \( d = \frac{v \times t}{2} \), where \( v \) is the speed of sound and \( t \) is the time taken for the echo to return. Here, \( d = \frac{330 \, \text{m/s} \times 2.2 \, \text{s}}{2} = 363 \, \text{m} \), which is approximately 360 m.
Question 23(Subtopic Code: 4.1)
The magnetic field of a bar magnet can be represented by magnetic field lines.
Which diagram shows two magnetic field lines correctly?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: Magnetic field lines always form closed loops, curving from the north pole to the south pole outside the magnet and from the south pole to the north pole inside the magnet. They never cross each other.
Question 24(Subtopic Code: 4.2)
A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.
Why has the rod become positively charged?
A: It has gained electrons.
B: It has gained neutrons.
C: It has lost electrons.
D: It has lost neutrons.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: When a plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth, electrons are transferred from the rod to the cloth. This leaves the rod with a net positive charge due to the loss of electrons.
Question 25(Subtopic Code: 4.2)
Which statement about electric current in a conductor is correct?
A: In a d.c. circuit, the electric current gradually decreases along the conductor.
B: In a d.c. circuit, the free electrons flow back and forth.
C: In an a.c. circuit, the electric current remains exactly the same all the time.
D: In an a.c. circuit, the flow of charge changes direction continually.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: In an alternating current (a.c.) circuit, the direction of the electric current changes periodically, typically 50 or 60 times per second, depending on the frequency of the supply.
Question 26(Subtopic Code: 4.3)
Which circuit can be used to measure the resistance of a resistor?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: To measure the resistance of a resistor, you need to measure both the voltage across it and the current through it. This is done using a voltmeter connected in parallel with the resistor and an ammeter connected in series with the resistor.
Question 27(Subtopic Code: 4.3)
A lamp rated 12V, 2.0A is switched on for 60s.
How much energy is transferred?
A: 0.40 J
B: 10 J
C: 360 J
D: 1400 J
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: The energy transferred can be calculated using the formula \( E = V \times I \times t \), where \( V \) is the voltage, \( I \) is the current, and \( t \) is the time. Here, \( E = 12 \, \text{V} \times 2.0 \, \text{A} \times 60 \, \text{s} = 1440 \, \text{J} \), which is approximately 1400 J.
Question 28(Subtopic Code: 4.3)
The circuit diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors. Four labelled ammeters are connected into the circuit.
Which ammeter shows the largest reading?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: In a parallel circuit, the total current is the sum of the currents through each branch. Ammeter D measures the total current from the battery, which is the sum of the currents through the resistors, so it will show the largest reading.
Question 29(Subtopic Code: 4.3)
Two lamps are connected in parallel.
Which switches must be closed so that both lamps light?
A: S₁ and S₂ only
B: S₁ and S₃ only
C: S₂ and S₃ only
D: S₁, S₂ and S₃
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: In a parallel circuit, all switches must be closed to ensure that current flows through both lamps. If any switch is open, the corresponding lamp will not light.
Question 30(Subtopic Code: 4.4)
Which statement about electrical safety is correct?
A: If a device is double insulated, it does not need a fuse.
B: A device that has a normal operating current of 3.0 A must be protected by a 3.0 A fuse.
C: Switches must always be connected into the live supply wire.
D: The metal casing of an electrical device must be connected to the neutral wire.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Switches must be connected to the live wire to ensure that the circuit can be safely switched off. This prevents the device from remaining live when the switch is off, reducing the risk of electric shock.
Question 31(Subtopic Code: 4.5)
A student investigates the output voltage induced across a coil of wire by a bar magnet. When will the induced voltage have the greatest value?
A: The student slowly moves the bar magnet into the coil of wire.
B: The student leaves the bar magnet stationary in the coil of wire.
C: The student quickly removes the bar magnet from the coil of wire.
D: The student places the bar magnet at rest outside the coil of wire.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, the induced voltage is greatest when the rate of change of the magnetic flux is highest. Quickly removing the magnet from the coil causes a rapid change in the magnetic flux, resulting in the greatest induced voltage.
Question 32(Subtopic Code: 4.5)
In which device is the magnetic effect of a current not used?
A: electromagnet
B: loudspeaker
C: potential divider
D: relay
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: A potential divider is a circuit that divides the voltage in a circuit using resistors. It does not rely on the magnetic effect of a current, unlike electromagnets, loudspeakers, and relays, which all use the magnetic effect of a current to function.
Question 33(Subtopic Code: 4.5)
The diagram represents the transmission of electricity from a power station to homes that are many kilometres away. Two transformers are labelled X and Y.
What type of transformers are X and Y?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: In electricity transmission, a step-up transformer (X) is used at the power station to increase the voltage for efficient long-distance transmission. A step-down transformer (Y) is used near homes to reduce the voltage to a safe level for domestic use.
Question 34(Subtopic Code: 5.1)
Which diagram represents the positions of the charged particles of an atom?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: In the nuclear model of the atom, protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus, while electrons orbit the nucleus in energy levels or shells.
Question 35(Subtopic Code: 5.1)
The table shows the composition of three different nuclei.
Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element?
A: X, Y and Z
B: X and Y only
C: X and Z only
D: Y and Z only
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Isotopes of the same element have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. In the table, nuclei X and Y have the same number of protons (3) but different numbers of neutrons (3 and 4), making them isotopes of the same element.
Question 36(Subtopic Code: 5.2)
A sample of a radioactive isotope emits 9600 α-particles per second. After 40 hours the rate of emission has fallen to 600 α-particles per second. What is the half-life of this isotope?
A: 4.0 hours
B: 8.0 hours
C: 10 hours
D: 20 hours
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The half-life is the time taken for the activity of a radioactive sample to halve. Here, the activity has decreased from 9600 to 600 α-particles per second, which is a reduction by a factor of 16 (9600 ÷ 600 = 16). Since \( 2^4 = 16 \), four half-lives have passed in 40 hours. Therefore, the half-life is \( \frac{40 \, \text{hours}}{4} = 10 \, \text{hours} \).
Question 37(Subtopic Code: 5.2)
Which row states a harmful effect and a beneficial effect of ionising radiation on living things?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Ionising radiation can cause mutations in living cells, which is harmful. However, it can also be used to kill cancer cells, which is a beneficial application in radiotherapy.
Question 38(Subtopic Code: 6.1)
Which statement about the Solar System is correct?
A: All the planets are rocky.
B: Only the Earth has a moon.
C: Pluto is a dwarf planet.
D: There are many stars in the Solar System.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Pluto is classified as a dwarf planet. The Solar System contains only one star, the Sun, and many planets have moons, not just Earth.
Question 39(Subtopic Code: 6.2)
The graph shows the energy radiated by the Sun at different wavelengths. Most of the energy is radiated in just three parts of the electromagnetic spectrum, labelled P, Q and R.
Which parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are P and R?
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: The Sun radiates most of its energy in the visible, ultraviolet (P), and infrared (R) regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. Ultraviolet has shorter wavelengths than infrared.
Question 40(Subtopic Code: 6.2)
An astronomer observes redshift in the light from a distant galaxy.
Which statement about redshift is correct?
A: It is the decrease in the observed wavelength of red light emitted from receding galaxies.
B: It is evidence that the Universe is contracting and supports the Big Bang Theory.
C: It is evidence that the Universe is expanding and supports the Big Bang Theory.
D: Redshift is when light from receding galaxies appears blue.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Redshift occurs when the wavelength of light from distant galaxies increases, indicating that the galaxies are moving away from us. This is evidence that the Universe is expanding, which supports the Big Bang Theory.