Question 1: Subtopic 1.2
The speed–time graph shows the motion of an object. How far does the object travel at constant speed?
Options:
A: 25 m
B: 50 m
C: 75 m
D: 125 m
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: 50 m
Explanation: The object travels at constant speed between 5 s and 15 s. The distance traveled is calculated as speed × time = 10 m/s × 5 s = 50 m.
Question 2: Subtopic 1.3
Which statement about a falling object accelerating close to the Earth’s surface is correct?
Options:
A: The weight of the object is increasing and the force of air resistance on the object is decreasing.
B: The weight of the object and the force of air resistance on the object are of equal magnitude, but act in opposite directions.
C: The weight of the object is constant, but the force of air resistance on the object is increasing.
D: The weight of the object is less than the force of air resistance.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: The weight of the object is constant, but the force of air resistance on the object is increasing.
Explanation: The weight of the object remains constant near the Earth’s surface, but as the object accelerates, the air resistance increases until it balances the weight, leading to terminal velocity.
Question 3: Subtopic 1.2
An aircraft is moving at 60 m/s in a northerly direction when a cross-wind from the east starts to blow. The speed of the wind is 13 m/s. What is the magnitude of the aircraft’s velocity when the wind is blowing?
Options:
A: 47 m/s
B: 59 m/s
C: 61 m/s
D: 73 m/s
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: 61 m/s
Explanation: The resultant velocity is calculated using the Pythagorean theorem: √(60² + 13²) = √(3600 + 169) = √3769 ≈ 61 m/s.
Question 4: Subtopic 1.3
Two rectangular blocks consist of different materials. Four different methods are suggested to compare the two masses. Which methods give a comparison of the two masses?
Options:
A: 1, 2 and
B: 1 and 2 onl
C: 3 and 4 only
D: 4 only
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Methods 3 (hanging from a spring) and 4 (using a beam balance) directly compare the masses. Methods 1 and 2 do not provide a direct comparison of mass.
Question 5: Subtopic 1.3
An object in a space probe above the Earth weighs 3.5 N. The gravitational field strength at the height of the space probe is 7.0 N/kg. The gravitational field strength on the Earth’s surface is 9.8 N/kg. What are the mass and the weight of the object on the Earth’s surface?
Options:
A: mass/kg = 0.50, weight/N = 3.5
B: mass/kg = 0.50, weight/N = 4.9
C: mass/kg = 2.0, weight/N = 3.5
D: mass/kg = 2.0, weight/N = 20
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: mass/kg = 0.50, weight/N = 4.9
Explanation: The mass of the object is calculated as weight / gravitational field strength = 3.5 N / 7.0 N/kg = 0.50 kg. On Earth, the weight is 0.50 kg × 9.8 N/kg = 4.9 N.
Question 6: Subtopic 1.5
A cyclist is travelling in a straight line along a horizontal road at a constant speed. A constant driving force F acts on the cyclist in the forward direction shown. Which statement about the magnitude of the frictional forces acting on the cyclist is correct?
Options:
A: The magnitude is equal to F.
B: The magnitude is smaller than F, but greater than zero.
C: The magnitude is greater than F.
D: The magnitude is zero.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A: The magnitude is equal to F.
Explanation: Since the cyclist is moving at a constant speed, the net force is zero. Therefore, the frictional force must be equal in magnitude to the driving force F.
Question 7: Subtopic 1.5
A spring has an unstretched length of 3.0 cm. When a force of 60 N is applied to the spring, its length increases to 5.0 cm. The limit of proportionality is not exceeded. What is the spring constant of the spring?
Options:
A: 7.5 N/cm
B: 12 N/cm
C: 20 N/cm
D: 30 N/cm
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D: 30 N/cm
Explanation: The spring constant is calculated as force / extension = 60 N / (5.0 cm – 3.0 cm) = 60 N / 2.0 cm = 30 N/cm.
Question 8: Subtopic 1.5
The diagram shows the minimum force F1 acting vertically on a lever required to lift a heavy log of weight W. The log needs to be lifted by a smaller force than F1. The diagrams show the changes tried. Each diagram has only one change from the original diagram. In each case, F2 is the minimum force required to lift the log. In which situations will F2 be smaller than F1?
Options:
A: P, Q and R
B: P and Q only
C: P only
D: Q and R only
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: P and Q only
Explanation: Increasing the length of the lever (P) and increasing the distance from the log to the pivot (Q) will reduce the force required to lift the log. Moving the pivot closer to the log (R) will increase the force required.
Question 9: Subtopic 1.6
A ball of mass 0.25 kg hits a wall at a speed of 16 m/s. It then rebounds back along its original path at a speed of 12 m/s. What is the impulse experienced by the ball during its impact with the wall?
Options:
A: 1.0 N s
B: 3.0 N s
C: 4.0 N s
D: 7.0 N s
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D: 7.0 N s
Explanation: The impulse is calculated as the change in momentum: m(v – u) = 0.25 kg × (16 m/s – (-12 m/s)) = 0.25 kg × 28 m/s = 7.0 N s.
Question 10: Subtopic 1.7
A bicycle braking system transfers energy from a kinetic energy store to an internal energy store. A motor converts energy from a chemical energy store (battery) to a kinetic energy store. What enables these energy transfers?
Options:
A: braking system = electrical work, motor = mechanical work
B: braking system = electrical work, motor = electrical work
C: braking system = mechanical work, motor = mechanical work
D: braking system = mechanical work, motor = electrical work
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D: braking system = mechanical work, motor = electrical work
Explanation: The braking system uses mechanical work to transfer energy, while the motor uses electrical work to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy.
Question 11: Subtopic 5.2
Research is being carried out to produce electrical energy from the fusion of hydrogen nuclei. Which row shows two of the problems in designing a fusion reactor?
Options:
A: temperature needed = very low, why obtaining a high density of hydrogen nuclei is difficult = the nuclei are negatively charged and repel each other
B: temperature needed = very low, why obtaining a high density of hydrogen nuclei is difficult = the nuclei are positively charged and repel each other
C: temperature needed = very high, why obtaining a high density of hydrogen nuclei is difficult = the nuclei are negatively charged and repel each other
D: temperature needed = very high, why obtaining a high density of hydrogen nuclei is difficult = the nuclei are positively charged and repel each other
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D: temperature needed = very high, why obtaining a high density of hydrogen nuclei is difficult = the nuclei are positively charged and repel each other
Explanation: Fusion requires extremely high temperatures to overcome the electrostatic repulsion between positively charged hydrogen nuclei, making it difficult to achieve and maintain the necessary conditions.
Question 12: Subtopic 1.7
The engine of a motor vehicle develops a large power. Which statement is correct?
Options:
A: The driving force acting on the vehicle must be large.
B: The engine must have a very large volume.
C: The engine must transfer large amounts of energy each second.
D: The vehicle must be very fast.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: The engine must transfer large amounts of energy each second.
Explanation: Power is the rate of energy transfer, so a large power means the engine transfers large amounts of energy each second.
Question 13: Subtopic 2.8
The graph shows how the pressure due to a liquid varies with the depth beneath the liquid surface. The gravitational field strength g is 9.8 N/kg. What is the density of the liquid?
Options:
A: 200 kg/m³
B: 820 kg/m³
C: 2000 kg/m³
D: 8200 kg/m³
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: 2000 kg/m³
Explanation: Using the formula for pressure in a liquid, \( P = \rho g h \), and rearranging for density, \( \rho = P / (g h) \). From the graph, at a depth of 0.4 m, the pressure is 8000 Pa. Thus, \( \rho = 8000 / (9.8 \times 0.4) \approx 2000 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \).
Question 14: Subtopic 2.1
What is the lowest possible temperature (absolute zero) and what happens to the energy of particles at this temperature?
Options:
A: lowest possible temperature = –273 °C, particle energy = particles have least kinetic energy
B: lowest possible temperature = –273 °C, particle energy = particles have zero gravitational potential energy
C: lowest possible temperature = 0 °C, particle energy = particles have least kinetic energy
D: lowest possible temperature = 0 °C, particle energy = particles have zero gravitational potential energy
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A: lowest possible temperature = –273 °C, particle energy = particles have least kinetic energy
Explanation: Absolute zero is –273 °C, and at this temperature, particles have the least possible kinetic energy, but they still possess some energy due to quantum effects.
Question 15: Subtopic 2.1
Which statement about the particles of a substance after condensation is correct?
Options:
A: They are close to each other and slide over each other.
B: They are close to each other and vibrate about fixed points.
C: They are far apart from each other and vibrate about fixed points.
D: They are far apart from each other and move freely within the container.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: They are close to each other and vibrate about fixed points.
Explanation: After condensation, particles are in the liquid or solid state, where they are close together and vibrate about fixed points.
Question 16: Subtopic 2.3
Two otherwise identical cars, one black and one white, are at the same initial temperature. The cars are left in bright sunshine and their temperatures increase. During the night, their temperatures decrease. Which car shows the greater rate of temperature increase and which car shows the greater rate of temperature decrease?
Options:
A: greater rate of temperature increase = black, greater rate of temperature decrease = black
B: greater rate of temperature increase = black, greater rate of temperature decrease = white
C: greater rate of temperature increase = white, greater rate of temperature decrease = black
D: greater rate of temperature increase = white, greater rate of temperature decrease = white
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A: greater rate of temperature increase = black, greater rate of temperature decrease = black
Explanation: Black objects absorb and emit radiation more effectively than white objects, so the black car will heat up and cool down faster.
Question 17: Subtopic 3.1
A drop of water from a tap falls onto the surface of some water of constant depth. Water waves spread out on the surface of the water. Which statement is correct?
Options:
A: The waves are longitudinal and travel at the same speed in all directions.
B: The waves are longitudinal and travel more quickly in one direction than in others.
C: The waves are transverse and travel at the same speed in all directions.
D: The waves are transverse and travel more quickly in one direction than in others.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: The waves are transverse and travel at the same speed in all directions.
Explanation: Water waves are transverse waves, and in a uniform medium, they travel at the same speed in all directions.
Question 18: Subtopic 3.2
Each point F is one focal length from the centre of the lens. Each point 2F is two focal lengths from the centre of the lens. Which diagram shows a converging lens being used as a magnifying glass?
Options:
A: Diagram with object between F and 2F, image beyond 2F
B: Diagram with object at F, image at infinity
C: Diagram with object between F and the lens, image on the same side as the object
D: Diagram with object beyond 2F, image between F and 2F
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: Diagram with object between F and the lens, image on the same side as the object
Explanation: A converging lens acts as a magnifying glass when the object is placed between the focal point (F) and the lens, producing a virtual, magnified image on the same side as the object.
Question 19: Subtopic 3.2
A monochromatic ray of green light in air enters a block of glass. Which property of the ray of light always remains the same as it moves from air to glass?
Options:
A: wavelength
B: speed
C: frequency
D: direction
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: frequency
Explanation: The frequency of light remains constant when it passes from one medium to another, even though the wavelength and speed may change.
Question 20: Subtopic 3.2
A narrow beam of white light passes through a prism and is dispersed into a spectrum. Which row is correct?
Options:
A: colour 1 = blue, colour 2 = yellow, colour 3 = red
B: colour 1 = red, colour 2 = blue, colour 3 = yellow
C: colour 1 = red, colour 2 = yellow, colour 3 = blue
D: colour 1 = yellow, colour 2 = blue, colour 3 = red
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: colour 1 = red, colour 2 = yellow, colour 3 = blue
Explanation: When white light passes through a prism, it disperses into a spectrum with red having the least refraction and blue the most, so the order is red, yellow, blue.
Question 21: Subtopic 3.3
A student writes four statements matching a communication system to the region of the electromagnetic spectrum that it uses to transmit signals. Which statement is correct?
Options:
A: Wireless internet uses visible wavelengths.
B: Mobile phones use X-rays.
C: Cable television uses infrared wavelengths.
D: Bluetooth uses ultraviolet wavelengths.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: None of the options are correct. (Note: The correct answer should be that wireless internet and Bluetooth use radio waves or microwaves.)
Explanation: Wireless internet and Bluetooth typically use radio waves or microwaves, not visible light, X-rays, or ultraviolet wavelengths.
Question 22: Subtopic 3.4
A ship sounds its horn when it is 790 m from a cliff. A passenger on the ship hears the echo 4.8 s later. What is the speed of the sound?
Options:
A: 165 m/s
B: 330 m/s
C: 340 m/s
D: 1896 m/s
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: 330 m/s
Explanation: The total distance traveled by sound is 2 × 790 m = 1580 m. The speed of sound is calculated as distance / time = 1580 m / 4.8 s ≈ 330 m/s.
Question 23: Subtopic 4.1
Which row gives the metal used to make the core of an electromagnet and one property of the electromagnet?
Options:
A: metal = iron, property = permanent magnet
B: metal = iron, property = temporary magnet
C: metal = steel, property = permanent magnet
D: metal = steel, property = temporary magnet
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: metal = iron, property = temporary magnet
Explanation: Electromagnets typically use iron cores because iron is a soft magnetic material that can be easily magnetized and demagnetized, making it a temporary magnet.
Question 24: Subtopic 4.2
A plastic rod and a dry cloth are uncharged. The rod is now rubbed with the cloth and they both become charged. The rod becomes negatively charged because some charged particles move from the cloth to the rod. What is the charge on the cloth and which particles moved in the charging process?
Options:
A: charge on cloth = negative, particles that moved = electrons
B: charge on cloth = negative, particles that moved = neutrons
C: charge on cloth = positive, particles that moved = electrons
D: charge on cloth = positive, particles that moved = neutrons
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: charge on cloth = positive, particles that moved = electrons
Explanation: When the rod becomes negatively charged, electrons move from the cloth to the rod, leaving the cloth with a positive charge.
Question 25: Subtopic 4.2
A student does an experiment to investigate the resistance of a metal wire. The graph shows the results from the experiment. What is plotted on the x-axis?
Options:
A: diameter of the wire
B: length of the wire
C: temperature of the wire
D: current in the wire
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: length of the wire
Explanation: In experiments investigating resistance, the length of the wire is typically plotted on the x-axis to study how resistance varies with length.
Question 26: Subtopic 4.2
The cost of electrical energy is $0.25 for each unit of 1 kWh. A 2200 W heater is switched on for 48 minutes. What is the cost of this use?
Options:
A: $0.44
B: $0.55
C: $26
D: $440
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: A: $0.44
Explanation: Energy used = Power × Time = 2.2 kW × (48/60) h = 1.76 kWh. Cost = 1.76 kWh × $0.25/kWh = $0.44.
Question 27: Subtopic 4.2
The table describes four different resistance wires. They are all made from the same metal. Which wire has the smallest resistance?
Options:
A: length of wire = 2.0 m, diameter of wire = 1.0 mm
B: length of wire = 2.0 m, diameter of wire = 1.5 mm
C: length of wire = 3.0 m, diameter of wire = 1.0 mm
D: length of wire = 3.0 m, diameter of wire = 1.5 mm
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: length of wire = 2.0 m, diameter of wire = 1.5 mm
Explanation: Resistance is directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. Wire B has the shortest length and largest diameter, giving it the smallest resistance.
Question 28: Subtopic 4.3
The circuit shown contains three switches and four lamps P, Q, R and S. Which switches must be closed to light only lamps P and R?
Options:
A: switch 1 only
B: switch 1 and switch 2
C: switch 1 and switch 3
D: switch 2 and switch 3
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: switch 1 and switch 3
Explanation: Closing switch 1 and switch 3 will complete the circuit for lamps P and R, while leaving lamps Q and S unlit.
Question 29: Subtopic 4.5
The diagram shows the magnetic field around a solenoid carrying an electric current. What happens to the strength of the magnetic field and the distance between the field lines when the current is increased?
Options:
A: strength of magnetic field = decreases, distance between field lines = decreases
B: strength of magnetic field = decreases, distance between field lines = increases
C: strength of magnetic field = increases, distance between field lines = decreases
D: strength of magnetic field = increases, distance between field lines = increases
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: strength of magnetic field = increases, distance between field lines = decreases
Explanation: Increasing the current in a solenoid increases the strength of the magnetic field, causing the field lines to become closer together.
Question 30: Subtopic 4.5
The diagram shows a wire hanging freely between the poles of a magnet. There is a current in the wire in the direction shown. The magnet and current cause a force to act on the wire. In which direction does this force act?
Options:
A: into the page (away from you)
B: out of the page (toward you)
C: to the left
D: to the right
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: out of the page (toward you)
Explanation: Using Fleming’s left-hand rule, the force on the wire is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the current, pointing out of the page.
Question 31: Subtopic 4.5
Which component forms part of a d.c. motor but not a simple moving coil a.c. generator?
Options:
A: the coil
B: the brushes
C: the magnet
D: the split-ring commutator
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D: the split-ring commutator
Explanation: A split-ring commutator is used in a d.c. motor to reverse the direction of current in the coil, ensuring continuous rotation. It is not used in a simple a.c. generator.
Question 32: Subtopic 4.5
A transformer has 5500 turns on the primary coil and 500 turns on the secondary coil. The output of the secondary coil is 110 V a.c. and is connected to a heater. The transformer is 100% efficient. The heater produces a power of 132 W. What is the current in the primary coil?
Options:
A: 0.11 A
B: 0.12 A
C: 11 A
D: 12 A
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: 0.12 A
Explanation: The power in the primary coil is equal to the power in the secondary coil (100% efficiency). Power = Voltage × Current, so \( I = P / V \). For the primary coil, \( I = 132 \, \text{W} / 1100 \, \text{V} = 0.12 \, \text{A} \).
Question 33: Subtopic 5.1
The scattering of alpha-particles from a thin gold foil produces the following observations. Which conclusion does not follow from these observations?
Options:
A: Most of the mass of the gold atom is in its nucleus.
B: Most of the atom is empty space.
C: The nucleus consists of protons and neutrons.
D: The nucleus must be charged.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: The nucleus consists of protons and neutrons.
Explanation: The scattering experiment shows that the nucleus is small, dense, and positively charged, but it does not directly show that the nucleus consists of protons and neutrons.
Question 34: Subtopic 5.1
A nuclide of chlorine has the symbol shown. What is the nucleon number of this nuclide of chlorine?
Options:
A: 17
B: 18
C: 35
D: 52
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: 35
Explanation: The nucleon number (mass number) is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. For chlorine, it is 35.
Question 35: Subtopic 5.2
Which change is occurring in a nucleus during β-emission?
Options:
A: An electron and a neutron become one proton.
B: An electron and a proton become one neutron.
C: A neutron becomes one proton and one electron.
D: A proton becomes one neutron and one electron.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: A neutron becomes one proton and one electron.
Explanation: During β-emission, a neutron in the nucleus decays into a proton, an electron (β-particle), and an antineutrino.
Question 36: Subtopic 5.2
The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute. What is the half-life of the isotope?
Options:
A: 2.0 days
B: 2.5 days
C: 3.0 days
D: 4.0 days
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: 2.5 days
Explanation: The half-life is the time taken for the count rate to halve. From the graph, the count rate decreases from 40 to 20 counts per minute in 2.5 days.
Question 37: Subtopic 6.1
Which row about the orbits of the Earth and the Moon is correct?
Options:
A: approximate time for the Earth to orbit the Sun = 1 day, approximate time for the Moon to orbit the Earth = 30 days
B: approximate time for the Earth to orbit the Sun = 30 days, approximate time for the Moon to orbit the Earth = 1 day
C: approximate time for the Earth to orbit the Sun = 365 days, approximate time for the Moon to orbit the Earth = 1 day
D: approximate time for the Earth to orbit the Sun = 365 days, approximate time for the Moon to orbit the Earth = 30 days
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: D: approximate time for the Earth to orbit the Sun = 365 days, approximate time for the Moon to orbit the Earth = 30 days
Explanation: The Earth takes approximately 365 days to orbit the Sun, and the Moon takes approximately 30 days to orbit the Earth.
Question 38: Subtopic 6.1
Which statement about the orbits of comets is correct?
Options:
A: Comets have elliptical orbits and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit.
B: Comets have elliptical orbits and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit.
C: Comets have circular orbits and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit.
D: Comets have circular orbits and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit.
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: Comets have elliptical orbits and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit.
Explanation: Comets have highly elliptical orbits, and the Sun is located at one of the foci of the ellipse, not at the center.
Question 39: Subtopic 6.2
Which row describes the power source for a stable star?
Options:
A: type of nuclear reaction = fission, fuel = hydrogen
B: type of nuclear reaction = fission, fuel = uranium
C: type of nuclear reaction = fusion, fuel = hydrogen
D: type of nuclear reaction = fusion, fuel = uranium
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: C: type of nuclear reaction = fusion, fuel = hydrogen
Explanation: Stable stars generate energy through nuclear fusion, where hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium.
Question 40: Subtopic 6.2
Which quantity can be determined using the brightness of a supernova in a distant galaxy?
Options:
A: the speed at which the galaxy is moving away from the Earth
B: the distance of the galaxy from the Earth
C: the Hubble constant
D: the age of the Universe
▶️Answer/Explanation
Answer: B: the distance of the galaxy from the Earth
Explanation: The brightness of a supernova can be used to determine its distance from Earth, as supernovae have a known intrinsic brightness.