Question 1

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To find the volume of an irregularly shaped object like a stone, we cannot use a ruler because there are no regular dimensions (like length or width) to measure and calculate mathematically.
The standard method for this is the displacement method, which requires a measuring cylinder partially filled with a liquid.
First, you record the initial volume of the water in the cylinder, then carefully submerge the stone and record the new, higher volume.
The difference between these two readings represents the volume of the stone.
Since a ruler is useless for non-geometric shapes, only the measuring cylinder is required for this specific task.
Question 2
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
In a speed–time graph, the vertical axis represents the speed of the object while the horizontal axis represents the time elapsed.
If a car is moving at a constant speed, its velocity does not change as time increases.
On a graph, this means the y-value remains the same regardless of the x-value, resulting in a straight horizontal line.
A diagonal line would imply a changing speed (acceleration), and a vertical line is physically impossible as it would mean time has stopped.
Therefore, a horizontal line with a gradient of 0 is the only correct representation of constant motion on this type of plot.
Question 3

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
In a distance-time graph, the gradient (slope) of the curve represents the speed of the object.
If an object is moving at a constant speed, the graph is a straight diagonal line, while a horizontal line indicates the object is stationary.
Deceleration means the speed is decreasing over time, which corresponds to the gradient of the graph becoming flatter (less steep) as time passes.
Looking at graph C, the curve starts with a steep slope and gradually levels off, indicating that the object is covering less distance per unit of time.
Therefore, graph C represents an object that is slowing down, or decelerating, until it eventually comes to a stop.
Question 4

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
The mass of an object is a measure of the amount of matter it contains and remains constant regardless of its location in the universe; therefore, the mass on the Moon is the same as on Earth.
Weight, however, is the gravitational force acting on that mass and is calculated using the formula $W = m \times g$.
Since the acceleration of free fall $g$ on the Moon ($1.6$ $m/s^2$) is significantly less than on Earth ($9.8$ $m/s^2$), the gravitational pull is weaker.
This means that while the object’s physical substance doesn’t change, the force pulling it down decreases.
Consequently, the weight of the object on the Moon is less than its weight on Earth, making row D the correct description.
Question 5

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To find the density, we first need to determine the volume of the liquid from the measuring cylinder.
By looking closely at the meniscus in the diagram, we can see that the liquid level is at $20 \text{ cm}^3$.
The problem states that the mass of the liquid is $16 \text{ g}$.
Using the density formula, we calculate $\text{density} = \frac{\text{mass}}{\text{volume}}$, which gives us $\frac{16 \text{ g}}{20 \text{ cm}^3}$.
Performing the division, $16 \div 20$ equals $0.80$.
Therefore, the density of the liquid is $0.80 \text{ g/cm}^3$, which matches Option A.
Question 6
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
When a single resultant force acts on an object, it must cause an acceleration according to Newton’s second law, $F = ma$.
Since there is an acceleration, the velocity of the object must change over time.
The mass of an object is an intrinsic property and does not change just because a force is applied.
Because the mass and volume are constant, the density ($\rho = m/V$) also remains unchanged.
Similarly, weight depends on mass and the gravitational field strength, so it would not be affected by a single applied force.
Therefore, the only correct observation is that the object’s motion or velocity will be altered.
Question 7
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To solve this, we need to look at the relationship between power, work, and time using the formula $P = \frac{W}{t}$.
The question states that all four motors perform the same quantity of work ($W$) since they lift the same weight through the same distance.
Because the work done is constant, the power produced is inversely proportional to the time taken; this means the shorter the time, the higher the power.
Comparing the given options, $1.5\text{ s}$ is the smallest value for time among the choices provided.
Therefore, the motor that completes the work in $1.5\text{ s}$ is the one that produces the most power, making Option A the correct answer.
Question 8

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
In physics, the pressure exerted by a column of liquid is determined by the formula $P = h \rho g$, where $h$ is the depth, $\rho$ is the density, and $g$ is the gravitational field strength.
Looking at this relationship, we can see that as the depth below the surface increases, the weight of the liquid pressing down above that point increases, leading to higher pressure.
Similarly, if the density of the liquid is higher, the mass per unit volume is greater, which also results in an increase in pressure at any given depth.
Therefore, pressure increases with both increasing depth and increasing density.
By checking the table, Row D correctly identifies that pressure increases in both of these scenarios, making it the correct choice.
Question 9
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
The transition of a substance from a gaseous state to a liquid state is known as condensation.
This process occurs when the gas particles lose kinetic energy, usually due to cooling, and come closer together to form a liquid phase.
In contrast, boiling is the reverse process (liquid to gas), while freezing refers to a liquid becoming a solid.
Melting describes the change from a solid to a liquid state.
Therefore, when specifically looking for the change from gas to liquid, condensation is the correct scientific term.
This makes Option B the right choice for this phase change.
Question 10

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
When we observe pollen grains in water, they exhibit what is known as Brownian motion.
This phenomenon occurs because the tiny water molecules are in constant, rapid, and random motion, colliding with the much larger pollen grain from all sides.
Because these collisions are uneven and haphazard, the pollen grain is pushed in various directions, resulting in a jagged and unpredictable path.
Diagram A perfectly represents this random walk, showing the sharp changes in direction that characterize microscopic particles in suspension.
Options B, C, and D suggest smooth or circular patterns, which would imply organized forces that do not exist in a still beaker of water.
Therefore, the completely irregular zig-zag path in A is the only movement that aligns with the kinetic particle model.
Question 11
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To convert from the Celsius scale to the Kelvin scale, we use the standard relation $T = \theta + 273$, where $T$ is the temperature in Kelvin and $\theta$ is the temperature in degrees Celsius.
This formula is based on the fact that absolute zero ($0\text{ K}$) is equivalent to $-273^\circ\text{C}$.
If we want to find the expression for $\theta$ in terms of $T$, we simply need to rearrange the equation by subtracting $273$ from both sides.
Subtracting $273$ gives us $\theta = T – 273$.
Comparing this result to the given choices, we can see that it matches perfectly with Option B.
Therefore, to get the Celsius temperature from a Kelvin value, you just subtract $273$ from the Kelvin temperature.
Question 12
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
When the water is stirred in an insulated tub, mechanical work is being performed on the liquid by the person or device doing the stirring.
Because the tub is insulated, no heat can enter from the surroundings, meaning the temperature rise isn’t due to external heating.
Instead, the mechanical energy from stirring is transferred to the water molecules, increasing their kinetic energy and thus the total internal energy.
A rise in temperature is a direct indicator that the internal energy of the substance has increased.
Therefore, we can conclude that the work done during stirring is converted into internal energy, which is exactly what Option C describes.
Question 13
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
Thermal expansion can be either a problem to overcome or a property to be utilized in engineering.
In bridges, railway lines, and telephone cables, expansion is generally an unwanted effect that requires gaps or slack to prevent buckling or snapping during temperature changes.
However, in a thermostat, we specifically use a bimetallic strip made of two different metals that expand at different rates when heated.
This unequal expansion causes the strip to bend, which mechanically opens or closes an electric circuit to regulate temperature.
Therefore, the thermostat is a classic example where thermal expansion is a deliberate and useful application rather than a nuisance.
Question 14

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
When the rod is heated at the center, thermal energy is transferred outward toward both ends via conduction.
Aluminium is a metal, which means it contains a high density of free electrons that transfer heat energy very rapidly throughout the material.
In contrast, glass is an insulator (a poor thermal conductor) because it lacks these free-moving electrons and relies on slower lattice vibrations.
Because aluminium conducts heat much more efficiently than glass, the wax at end P will reach its melting point much faster than the wax at end Q.
Consequently, Pin P will fall off first, making Option A the correct description of the experiment’s outcome.
Question 15
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
When sunlight hits a surface, it carries energy in the form of infrared radiation, which we feel as heat.
The color and texture of a surface significantly determine how much of that radiation is kept or bounced away.
White and light-colored surfaces are excellent reflectors and very poor absorbers of infrared radiation.
By painting houses white in hot climates, the majority of the thermal radiation from the sun is reflected back into the atmosphere rather than being absorbed into the walls.
This keeps the interior of the building much cooler than if it were painted a dark color like black, which is a good absorber.
Therefore, Option A is the correct explanation for this common architectural practice.
Question 16
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To solve this, we need to look at the basic anatomy of a transverse wave.
The term wavelength refers to the spatial length of one complete wave cycle, which is measured as the distance between two consecutive identical points.
Specifically, measuring from the peak of one wave (the crest) to the very next peak gives us this value, typically denoted by the Greek letter $\lambda$.
Other options like amplitude refer to the height of the wave, while the period is a measure of time, not distance.
Therefore, the distance between successive crests is defined exactly as the wavelength.
This makes Option D the correct physical description for the distance described.
Question 17

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
When water waves transition from deep water to shallow water, their speed decreases because the wave interaction with the seabed becomes more significant.
According to the wave equation $v = f\lambda$, since the frequency $f$ remains constant when a wave changes medium, a decrease in speed $v$ results in a shorter wavelength $\lambda$.
Refraction occurs when the waves hit the boundary at an angle; the side of the wave hitting the shallow water first slows down, causing the wavefronts to bend.
In the shallow region, the wavefronts should be closer together to represent the decreased wavelength and should bend toward the normal.
Looking at the diagrams, Option A correctly depicts both the change in direction and the decrease in the distance between successive wavefronts.
This behavior is consistent with the physical principles of wave refraction in different depths of water.
Question 18

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
This question explores the principle of reversibility of light in a thin converging lens.
We know that light rays traveling parallel to the principal axis will refract through the lens and pass through the principal focus on the opposite side.
Conversely, if a light source is placed exactly at the principal focus ($F_1$), the diverging rays hitting the lens will be refracted so that they emerge perfectly parallel to the principal axis.
This happens because the lens “bends” the spreading rays just enough to straighten them out into a cylindrical beam.
Therefore, the light does not converge to a specific point or continue to diverge, but rather forms a parallel beam, making Option D the correct choice.
Question 19
$i = r$
What is the student reading about?
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
The equation $i = r$ represents the Law of Reflection, where the angle of incidence is exactly equal to the angle of reflection.
In this context, both angles are measured relative to the normal line, which is perpendicular to the surface of the mirror at the point of impact.
For other phenomena like refraction, the relationship between these angles is governed by Snell’s Law, meaning $i$ is not equal to $r$.
In dispersion and diffraction, the behavior of light is described by wave speed changes or spreading effects rather than a simple equality of angles.
Therefore, the student is specifically looking at the behavior of light when it bounces off a smooth surface like a plane mirror.
This makes Option C the only correct choice based on basic optical laws.
Question 20

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To find the frequency of orange light, we can use the wave equation $v = f \lambda$, where $v$ is the speed of light, $f$ is the frequency, and $\lambda$ is the wavelength.
In a vacuum or air, all electromagnetic waves travel at a constant speed of approximately $v = 3.0 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$.
By looking at the table, orange light is listed with a wavelength of $600 \text{ nm}$, which is $600 \times 10^{-9} \text{ m}$ or $6.0 \times 10^{-7} \text{ m}$.
Rearranging the formula to solve for frequency gives us $f = \frac{v}{\lambda}$.
Plugging in the values, we get $f = \frac{3.0 \times 10^8}{6.0 \times 10^{-7}}$, which simplifies to $0.5 \times 10^{15} \text{ Hz}$.
In standard scientific notation, this equals $5.0 \times 10^{14} \text{ Hz}$, matching option B.
Question 21


Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To solve this, we need to compare the given wavelengths to the known regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Wave P has a wavelength of $1.0 \times 10^{-11} \text{ m}$, which is extremely short and characteristic of high-energy Gamma rays.
Wave Q is $1.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ m}$ ($10 \text{ \mu m}$), which falls into the Infrared region just beyond the visible light spectrum.
Wave R has a much longer wavelength of $1.0 \times 10^{2} \text{ m}$ ($100 \text{ meters}$), which is typical for Radio waves used in broadcasting.
By matching these specific values to their respective categories, we can see that Row B correctly identifies all three waves.
Understanding the scale of the EM spectrum from shortest (Gamma) to longest (Radio) is key to identifying these regions.
Question 22
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
The range of frequencies that a healthy human ear can detect is known as the audible range.
For humans, the lower limit of hearing is typically around $20$ Hz, which represents very deep, low-pitched bass sounds.
The upper limit for a healthy young person is approximately $20,000$ Hz (or $20$ kHz), where sounds are extremely high-pitched.
Frequencies below this range are called infrasound, while those above are known as ultrasound.
Since the standard accepted value for human hearing covers these three orders of magnitude, Option C is the correct answer.
Question 23

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To find the distance to the wall, we first need to determine the total distance traveled by the sound wave.
Since the sound travels from the student to the wall and back again (an echo), the total distance is $2d$, where $d$ is the distance to the wall.
Using the formula $\text{speed} = \frac{\text{distance}}{\text{time}}$, the total distance covered in $0.59 \text{ s}$ at a speed of $340 \text{ m/s}$ is $340 \times 0.59 = 200.6 \text{ m}$.
Because this represents the “round trip,” we must divide this value by $2$ to find the one-way distance to the wall.
Calculation: $d = \frac{200.6}{2} = 100.3 \text{ m}$, which rounds to approximately $100 \text{ m}$.
Therefore, Option A is the correct choice based on the physics of echo reflection.
Question 24

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To solve this, we need to look closely at the arrows on the magnetic field lines, as they indicate the direction of the field.
By convention, magnetic field lines always point away from a North pole and toward a South pole.
In the diagram, we can clearly see the arrows emerging from the end labeled $X$, which identifies it as a North (N) pole.
Similarly, the arrows are pointing directly into the end labeled $Y$, which identifies it as a South (S) pole.
Since the field lines travel from $X$ to $Y$, these two poles are attracted to each other.
Therefore, $X$ must be an N pole and $Y$ must be an S pole, making Option C the correct choice.
Question 25


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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
In Diagram 1, we see the weight of the steel block alone is $100$ g. In Diagram 2, when Magnet 1 is placed above the block, the reading increases to $120$ g, which means Magnet 1 is attracting the steel block with a force equivalent to $20$ g ($120 – 100$).
In Diagram 3, Magnet 2 is used, and the reading is $125$ g, indicating it exerts a stronger attractive force equivalent to $25$ g ($125 – 100$).
Since Magnet 2 creates a larger change in the balance reading than Magnet 1, Magnet 2 is clearly the stronger magnet.
Furthermore, the increase in weight on the balance occurs because the magnet pulls the steel block upward, and by Newton’s third law, the block pulls the magnet downward, or more accurately, the magnetic attraction creates an internal tension that results in an increased downward force exerted by the apparatus on the scale.
Therefore, Magnet 2 is stronger, and the readings increase because of the magnetic attraction between the magnets and the steel, making row C the correct choice.
Question 26

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
Alternating current (a.c.) is characterized by a voltage that continuously changes its magnitude and periodically reverses its direction.
In a voltage-time graph, this means the line must cross the horizontal axis (where $V = 0$) to move between positive and negative values.
Graphs A, B, and C all show voltages that remain on one side of the axis, meaning the current always flows in a single direction, which is characteristic of direct current (d.c.).
Graph D shows a periodic wave that oscillates between positive and negative peaks, indicating the polarity is reversing over time.
Therefore, Graph D is the only one representing an alternating current supply.
Question 27
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To understand what the product $IVt$ represents, we can break down the electrical definitions step by step.
The product of current and time ($I \times t$) gives us the total charge $Q$ that has flowed through the resistor.
When this charge $Q$ moves through a potential difference $V$, the work done or energy transferred is calculated as $W = V \times Q$.
By substituting $Q = It$ into the energy equation, we arrive at the expression $E = VIt$, which represents the total electrical energy transferred.
While $IV$ alone would represent the power (rate of energy transfer), multiplying by time $t$ gives us the total energy quantity.
Therefore, the product $IVt$ specifically identifies the energy transferred by the resistor over that time period.
Question 28

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To create a circuit that responds specifically to temperature changes, we need a component whose electrical properties change with heat.
A thermistor is a temperature-dependent resistor; specifically, an NTC (Negative Temperature Coefficient) thermistor’s resistance decreases as the temperature increases.
Looking at the symbols provided: A is a fuse, B is a variable resistor (rheostat), C is a light-dependent resistor (LDR), and D is a thermistor.
By using the thermistor (Option D), the circuit can “sense” the rise in temperature and allow more current to flow to trigger the fan.
Therefore, component D is the essential choice for any heat-activated electronic design.
Question 29
- If the outer casing is a conductor, it should be earthed.
- If the outer casing is a conductor, it should not be earthed.
- If the outer casing is an insulator, it should be earthed.
- If the outer casing is an insulator, it should not be earthed.
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
When an electrical appliance has a metal outer casing (a conductor), it must be earthed so that if a fault occurs and a live wire touches the casing, the current flows safely to the ground rather than through a person.
This makes statement 1 correct and statement 2 incorrect.
Conversely, if the outer casing is made of an insulator, such as plastic, it is known as “double insulation.”
Because insulators do not conduct electricity, there is no risk of the casing becoming live, so an earth wire is not required for safety.
Therefore, statement 4 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect, making the combination of 1 and 4 the right choice.
Question 30

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To find the output voltage for each coil, we use the transformer equation: $\frac{V_p}{V_s} = \frac{N_p}{N_s}$, where $V$ is voltage and $N$ is the number of turns.
For secondary coil 1, we rearrange the formula to $V_{s1} = \frac{V_p \cdot N_{s1}}{N_p}$, giving us $\frac{240 \cdot 2500}{400} = 1500\text{V}$.
For secondary coil 2, using the same logic, we calculate $V_{s2} = \frac{240 \cdot 20}{400} = 12\text{V}$.
Comparing these results to the provided table, we can see that coil 1 acts as a step-up transformer and coil 2 acts as a step-down transformer.
Therefore, the values $1500\text{V}$ and $12\text{V}$ align perfectly with the data in row B.
Question 31
- Have a larger current in the coil of the motor.
- Have a stronger magnet in the motor.
- Put a larger number of turns on the coil.
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To increase the turning effect (or torque) of a d.c. motor, we need to increase the magnetic force acting on the sides of the coil.
The force on a wire is proportional to the magnetic field strength, the current, and the number of turns in the coil.
Increasing the current provides more charge flow, which directly boosts the motor’s strength, while a stronger magnet provides a more intense magnetic field for the current to interact with.
Additionally, having more turns on the coil means the magnetic force acts on more segments of wire simultaneously, effectively multiplying the total torque.
Since all three suggestions—increasing current, using a stronger magnet, and adding more turns—contribute to a higher turning effect, option A is the correct choice.
Question 32
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
An atom is composed of a central, positively charged nucleus surrounded by electrons that move in orbits.
The nucleus contains protons, which carry a positive charge ($+1$), and usually neutrons, which are electrically neutral ($0$).
In the space surrounding the nucleus, we find electrons that carry a negative charge ($-1$).
In a neutral atom, the total number of positive charges in the nucleus equals the total number of negative charges from the electrons.
Therefore, an atom is not made of just one type of charge; it essentially contains both positively and negatively charged particles, making Option D the correct description of its structure.
Question 33
Which row gives the number and location of the electrons in an atom of $_{38}^{90}\textrm{Sr}$?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
In the standard nuclide notation $_Z^A\textrm{X}$, the bottom number ($Z$) represents the proton number or atomic number.
For a neutral atom of strontium, the number of electrons is always equal to the number of protons to ensure the charges balance out, which in this case is $38$.
Regarding the structure of the atom, we know that protons and neutrons are tightly packed within the central nucleus.
The electrons, however, are found orbiting this nucleus in specific energy levels or shells.
Therefore, a strontium atom contains $38$ electrons located in orbits around the nucleus, matching the description in row B.
This fundamental arrangement defines the basic electronic structure of any neutral atom.
Question 34

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
Background radiation refers to the low-level ionizing radiation that is constantly present in our environment from both natural and artificial sources.
The radioactive decay process responsible for this radiation is random in nature, meaning the readings on a detector will fluctuate and vary slightly over time rather than remaining constant.
Common sources of this radiation include cosmic rays from space and radioactive rocks in the Earth’s crust, such as those containing uranium or thorium.
Since there is no specific “single” laboratory source mentioned, the detector is picking up these ubiquitous natural emissions.
Therefore, the readings must be described as varying, and the cause is attributed to cosmic rays and rocks, making Option A the correct choice.
Question 35
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
Radioactive decay is the process by which an unstable atomic nucleus loses energy by emitting radiation.
This process occurs completely at random, meaning we cannot predict exactly when a specific nucleus will decay.
The emission often involves $\alpha$-particles, $\beta$-particles, or $\gamma$-rays as the nucleus tries to reach a more stable state.
Options A, B, and C refer to physical or magnetic processes that do not involve changes to the atomic nucleus itself.
Therefore, a substance whose nuclei are changing and emitting radiation is by definition undergoing radioactive decay, matching Option D.
Question 36
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation such as alpha, beta, and gamma rays, which can be harmful to living tissue.
To minimize exposure, these sources must be shielded by materials with high density and high atomic numbers, such as lead, which effectively absorbs most radiations.
Storing the source in a lead-lined box ensures that the radiation is contained within the container rather than escaping into the environment.
Furthermore, placing that box inside a locked metal cabinet provides an extra layer of distance and security, preventing unauthorized access.
Other options like glass bottles or fume cupboards do not provide sufficient density to block penetrating gamma rays, making Option A the correct safety protocol.
Question 37

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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To understand the apparent daily motion of the Sun, we must look at the Earth’s behavior; the Sun appears to move across the sky because the Earth rotates on its own axis once every $24$ hours.
This rotation creates the illusion of the Sun rising and setting, even though the Sun is relatively stationary compared to Earth’s spin.
Regarding the phases of the Moon, these are caused by the Moon’s orbit around the Earth, which takes approximately $27.3$ days.
As the Moon moves around our planet, different portions of its illuminated half become visible to us from Earth.
Combining these two facts, the Sun’s daily motion is due to Earth’s rotation and the Moon’s phases are due to the Moon’s orbit, making Option B the correct choice.
Question 38
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To solve this, we first look at the distance for a one-way trip, which is $4$ light-years. Since the return journey is also required, the total distance traveled is $4 \times 2 = 8$ light-years.
A light-year is the distance light travels in one year, so at $100\%$ the speed of light, the trip would take $8$ years.
However, the spaceship is only traveling at $0.1\%$ of the speed of light, which can be written as a fraction: $\frac{0.1}{100} = 0.001$.
To find the time, we use the relationship $time = \frac{distance}{speed}$, giving us $\frac{8 \text{ light-years}}{0.001 \times c}$.
This calculation results in $8 \div 0.001 = 8000$ years for the round trip.
Therefore, Option D is the correct duration for the entire journey.
Question 39
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
The Sun behaves much like a black body radiator, emitting a broad range of wavelengths across the electromagnetic spectrum.
The peak of the Sun’s energy output occurs in the visible light region, which is what we see during the day.
However, a massive portion of its energy is also radiated in the wavelengths immediately surrounding visible light: the infrared (heat) and ultraviolet (UV) regions.
While the Sun does emit radio waves and X-rays, the total power in those bands is negligible compared to the “middle” of the spectrum.
Therefore, the vast majority of solar radiation is concentrated from the infrared through to the ultraviolet range, making Option C the correct choice.
Question 40
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▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution:
To answer this, we need to consider the vast scale of our galaxy, the Milky Way.
While a hundred thousand kilometres might sound like a large distance on Earth, it is extremely small in astronomical terms—even the Sun is much larger than that.
Galaxies are composed of billions of stars spread across massive distances, so we use “light-years” as the standard unit of measurement.
A light-year is the distance light travels in one year, which is roughly $9.5 \times 10^{12}$ km.
Scientific observations and data confirm that the diameter of the Milky Way’s disk is approximately $100,000$ light-years.
Therefore, Option C is the correct value commonly taught in physics and astronomy curricula.
