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Question 1

Which measuring instrument is used to measure the diameter of a thin metal wire?
A. 30 cm rule
B. measuring tape
C. metre rule
D. micrometre screw gauge

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.1: Physical quantities and measurement techniques (Describe the use of rulers and measuring cylinders to find a length or a volume)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To measure the diameter of a thin metal wire accurately, we need an instrument capable of measuring very small distances with high precision. A 30 cm rule, a measuring tape, and a metre rule are suitable for larger everyday objects but lack the fine scale needed for something as thin as a wire. A micrometre screw gauge, however, is specifically designed to measure extremely small dimensions, typically down to hundredths of a millimetre. It uses a calibrated screw mechanism to provide a highly precise reading. Therefore, the micrometre screw gauge is the perfect and standard tool for this job.

Question 2

A car starts from rest. The table shows the readings from its speedometer every 10 s.
Which row describes the car’s motion in the first 30 seconds and in the last 30 seconds?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion (Determine from given data or the shape of a speed–time graph when an object is accelerating or moving with constant speed)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Let’s look at the speedometer readings over time. In the first 30 seconds, the car’s speed increases steadily from 0 to 4, then 8, and finally 12 m/s. Because the speed is changing, the car is definitely experiencing a non-zero acceleration (specifically, $a = \Delta v / \Delta t$). Now, for the last 30 seconds (from 30 s to 60 s), the speedometer stays stuck right at 12 m/s the whole time. Since the speed isn’t changing at all, the car is moving at a constant speed, which also means its acceleration has dropped to zero. So, it accelerates first, then cruises at a steady pace.

Question 3

Which property of an object is a consequence of the effect of a gravitational field acting on it?
A. density
B. mass
C. volume
D. weight

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and weight (Describe, and use the concept of, weight as the effect of a gravitational field on a mass)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Mass is an intrinsic property of an object, representing the amount of matter it contains, and it doesn’t change regardless of where the object is in the universe. Density and volume are related to mass and spatial dimensions, also remaining independent of gravity. Weight, on the other hand, is literally defined as the force exerted on an object’s mass by a gravitational field ($W = mg$). If you take the same object to the Moon, its mass stays the same, but its weight drops because the Moon’s gravitational pull is weaker. Hence, weight is the direct result of gravity acting on mass.

Question 4

The diagram shows the dimensions of a solid rectangular block of metal of mass m.
The lengths of the sides are marked as p, q, and r. Which expression is used to calculate the density of the metal?
A. $m / (p \times q)$
B. $m / (p \times q \times r)$
C. $m \times p \times q$
D. $m \times p \times q \times r$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.4: Density (Define density as mass per unit volume; recall and use the equation)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To find the density of any material, we need to know how much mass is packed into a given volume. The standard formula for density is mass divided by volume ($\rho = m/V$). Here, we are given a rectangular block with side lengths $p$, $q$, and $r$. The volume of a solid rectangular block is simply the product of its three dimensions, which is calculated as $V = p \times q \times r$. By plugging this into our density formula, we get the expression mass $m$ divided by the volume $(p \times q \times r)$. This points us directly to option B.

Question 5

A wheelbarrow has a weight W of 140 N.
Which vertical force F is needed to support the wheelbarrow in the position shown?
A. 60 N
B. 80 N
C. 140 N
D. 245 N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Apply the principle of moments to situations)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

To find the force needed to lift the handles, we use the principle of moments, taking the wheel’s axle as our pivot point. The wheelbarrow is in equilibrium, so the clockwise moment must equal the anticlockwise moment. The downward force is the weight $W$ (140 N), and its distance from the pivot is calculated by subtracting 0.8 m from the total length of 1.4 m, giving $0.6$ m. The upward force $F$ is applied at a full distance of $1.4$ m from the pivot. Setting up the equation, we get $F \times 1.4 = 140 \times 0.6$. Solving for $F$ gives $84 / 1.4$, which equals exactly 60 N.

Question 6

A car is travelling around a circular track at a constant speed, as shown.
In which direction is the resultant force on the car?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.1: Effects of forces (Describe, qualitatively, motion in a circular path due to a force perpendicular to the motion)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When an object travels in a circle at a constant speed, it is continuously changing its direction. Because its velocity (which includes both speed and direction) is constantly changing, it must be accelerating, meaning there is a resultant force acting on it. For stable circular motion, this resultant force is called the centripetal force. The centripetal force always acts perpendicularly to the direction of motion, pulling the object directly inward toward the center of the circle. Therefore, the resultant force points straight to the center of the track.

Question 7

The diagram shows part of a hose used by a firefighter.
15 kg of water flows through the hose each second.
Which force is applied to the hose by the water?
A. 15 N
B. 75 N
C. 90 N
D. 105 N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.6: Momentum (Define resultant force as the change in momentum per unit time)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

We can solve this by looking at the change in momentum of the water as it accelerates through the nozzle. Force is defined mathematically as the rate of change of momentum ($F = \Delta p / \Delta t$). Every second, 15 kg of water is speeding up from 1 m/s to 6 m/s, representing a velocity change of 5 m/s. The change in momentum per second is simply the mass per second multiplied by this change in velocity ($15 \times 5$). Calculating this gives us 75 N of force. By Newton’s third law, the water exerts an equal and opposite force of 75 N right back on the hose.

Question 8

Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.
Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?
A. chemical
B. elastic
C. thermal
D. sound

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.1: Energy (Describe how energy is transferred between stores during events and processes, including heating)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

As a car applies its brakes, the brake pads press hard against the spinning rotors attached to the wheels, creating a massive amount of friction. This frictional force is the mechanism doing mechanical work to slow the vehicle down, gradually stripping away its kinetic energy. According to the principle of conservation of energy, this energy cannot disappear; it must change forms. While a tiny fraction might turn into sound energy (like a squeal), the vast majority of that kinetic energy is dissipated into the environment as thermal energy, noticeably heating up the brake components.

Question 9

An object has kinetic energy of 200 J.
A constant resultant force of 190 N is applied in the direction of its motion through a distance of 10 m.
What is the final kinetic energy of the object?
A. 390 J
B. 1700 J
C. 2000 J
D. 2100 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.2: Work (Understand that mechanical work done is equal to the energy transferred; recall and use $W = Fd$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To figure out the final kinetic energy, we need to calculate how much extra energy is pumped into the moving object by the applied force. This energy transfer is known as mechanical work, which is found by multiplying the force by the distance over which it acts ($W = Fd$). Here, a force of 190 N pushes the object across 10 m, meaning the work done is $190 \times 10 = 1900$ J. Because the force pushes in the exact same direction the object is already moving, it adds to the object’s existing energy. Adding this 1900 J to the initial 200 J gives a total final kinetic energy of 2100 J.

Question 10

The statements describe what happens when the power of a machine is increased.
  1. The work done in a given time decreases.
  2. The work done in a given time increases.
  3. The time taken to do a given quantity of work decreases.
  4. The time taken to do a given quantity of work increases.
Which statements are correct?
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.4: Power (Define power as work done per unit time and also as energy transferred per unit time)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Power is scientifically defined as the rate at which work is done, or energy is transferred, over time ($P = W / t$). If a machine becomes more powerful, it naturally means it can handle a higher rate of energy transfer. Consequently, it can perform far more work within the exact same time frame, making statement 2 perfectly accurate. Looking at it from the flip side, if you have a specific, fixed amount of work that needs to be completed, a more powerful machine will blaze through the job much faster, taking less time. This confirms that statement 3 is also correct, pointing us to option C.

Question 11

A manometer containing water is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply, as shown.
The density of water is $1000\text{ kg/m}^3$.
What is the pressure of the gas supply?
A. $300\text{ Pa}$ above atmospheric pressure
B. $400\text{ Pa}$ above atmospheric pressure
C. $3000\text{ Pa}$ above atmospheric pressure
D. $4000\text{ Pa}$ above atmospheric pressure

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.8: Pressure (Recall and use the equation for the change in pressure beneath the surface of a liquid $\Delta p = \rho g \Delta h$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

A manometer measures the pressure difference between a gas and the outside atmosphere by observing the height difference in a liquid column. First, we need to find the exact difference in water levels between the two arms. The left side is at $40\text{ cm}$ and the right side is at $10\text{ cm}$, so the difference $\Delta h$ is $30\text{ cm}$, which we must convert to $0.3\text{ m}$ for standard units. To calculate the pressure difference, we apply the fluid pressure formula $\Delta p = \rho g \Delta h$. Plugging in our values: density $\rho = 1000\text{ kg/m}^3$, gravity $g = 10\text{ m/s}^2$, and $\Delta h = 0.3\text{ m}$. Multiplying these together gives $1000 \times 10 \times 0.3 = 3000\text{ Pa}$. Since the gas pushes the water down, its pressure is exactly $3000\text{ Pa}$ higher than atmospheric pressure.

Question 12

A fixed mass of gas is trapped in a container. The temperature of the gas is increased but the volume of the gas is kept constant.
How does this change affect the average kinetic energy of the molecules and the pressure on the walls of the container?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.3: Gases and the absolute scale of temperature (Describe qualitatively, in terms of particles, the effect on the pressure of a fixed mass of gas of: a change of temperature at constant volume)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Temperature is essentially a direct measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles making up a substance. When you heat up the trapped gas, you are transferring thermal energy into it, which inherently means the molecules’ average kinetic energy increases and they begin to zip around much faster. Because the container’s volume is fixed and isn’t expanding to give them more room, these faster-moving molecules will collide with the walls of the container much more frequently and with significantly greater force. The culmination of all these harder, more frequent microscopic collisions results in a higher overall pressure on the container walls. Therefore, both the kinetic energy and the pressure see a noticeable increase.

Question 13

Which row correctly describes boiling and evaporation of water?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.3: Melting, boiling and evaporation (Describe the differences between boiling and evaporation)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Boiling and evaporation are two distinct processes by which a liquid turns into a gas, even though the end result is similar. Boiling is a rapid, active process that happens at a specific temperature (the boiling point); it occurs throughout the entire volume of the liquid, which is why you see large bubbles of vapor forming deep inside and rising to the surface. Evaporation, on the other hand, is a much quieter, slower process that happens at any temperature. It strictly occurs only at the surface of the liquid, where the most energetic particles manage to overcome attractive forces and escape into the air without any bubbles being formed. Hence, boiling involves visible bubbles, while evaporation happens exclusively at the surface.

Question 14

The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.
Which change increases the sensitivity of the thermometer?
A. a narrower capillary tube
B. a wider capillary tube
C. thicker glass around the bulb
D. thinner glass around the bulb

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.2: Specific heat (Measurement techniques and instrument properties)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The sensitivity of a thermometer refers to its ability to register a noticeably large change in the length of the liquid thread for even a tiny change in temperature. When the liquid inside the bulb gets heated, it expands by a very specific volume. If you force this expanding volume of liquid up into a narrower capillary tube, it has no choice but to travel much further along the tube to accommodate the same volume increase. This increased travel distance makes the scale markings wider and easier to read, thereby increasing the instrument’s sensitivity. Changing the thickness of the glass (like making it thinner) improves responsiveness—how quickly it reacts—but does not change sensitivity.

Question 15

The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer with a uniform capillary tube.
Which temperature is indicated by the thermometer?
A. $73^\circ\text{C}$
B. $80^\circ\text{C}$
C. $82^\circ\text{C}$
D. $90^\circ\text{C}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.2: Specific heat (Measurement techniques and interpolating linear scales)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To find the temperature, we need to determine what fraction of the full scale the liquid has reached. Based on standard diagrams of this type, the measurements are typically taken from the same reference point (like the end of the bulb). If the $0^\circ\text{C}$ mark is at $8\text{ mm}$, and the $100^\circ\text{C}$ mark is at $88\text{ mm}$, then the total distance representing the $100^\circ\text{C}$ range is $88\text{ mm} – 8\text{ mm} = 80\text{ mm}$. The liquid level itself is at a distance of $64\text{ mm}$ past the $0^\circ\text{C}$ mark (or $72\text{ mm}$ from the bulb, making the expansion length $72 – 8 = 64\text{ mm}$). Since it’s a uniform capillary tube, the temperature scales linearly with length. The temperature is simply the ratio of the liquid’s expansion to the full scale expansion multiplied by 100. That gives us $(64 / 80) \times 100^\circ\text{C} = 80^\circ\text{C}$.

Question 16

Four thermometers, with their bulbs painted different colours, are placed at equal distances from a radiant heater.
Which thermometer shows the slowest temperature rise when the heater is first switched on?
A. dull black
B. dull white
C. shiny black
D. shiny white

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.3.3: Radiation (Describe the effect of surface colour and texture on the emission, absorption and reflection of infrared radiation)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The rate at which an object absorbs thermal (infrared) radiation from a heater is heavily dependent on the color and texture of its surface. Dark and dull (matte) surfaces are excellent absorbers of radiant heat, meaning a dull black thermometer would heat up incredibly fast. Conversely, light-colored and highly reflective surfaces are incredibly poor absorbers because they bounce most of the radiant energy away. Therefore, the thermometer coated with a shiny white surface will reflect the majority of the incoming radiation, absorbing the least amount of heat and showing the slowest rise in temperature.

Question 17

A wave source produces 3000 crests every minute. The wave has a speed of $300\text{ m/s}$.
What is the wavelength of the wave?
A. $0.10\text{ m}$
B. $0.17\text{ m}$
C. $6.0\text{ m}$
D. $10.0\text{ m}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Recall and use the equation for wave speed $v = f \lambda$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To figure out the wavelength, we first need to determine the frequency of the wave, which is defined as the number of wave crests produced per second. The source makes 3000 crests in one minute (which is 60 seconds). So, the frequency $f$ is $3000 / 60 = 50\text{ Hz}$. We are given the wave speed $v = 300\text{ m/s}$. The fundamental wave equation connects these quantities: $v = f \times \lambda$. Rearranging this to solve for wavelength ($\lambda$) gives us $\lambda = v / f$. By plugging in our numbers, we get $\lambda = 300 / 50$, which neatly calculates to $6.0\text{ m}$.

Question 18

The diagrams show two sets of wavefronts in a ripple tank.
A student makes two statements about the waves.
  1. When the waves reflect from the barrier the direction changes but the wavelength remains the same.
  2. When the waves refract as they enter the shallow water the direction remains the same, but the wavelength changes.
Which statements are correct?
A. statement 1 and statement 2
B. statement 1 only
C. statement 2 only
D. neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Describe how waves can undergo reflection and refraction due to a change of speed)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Let’s evaluate the student’s claims one by one. Statement 1 is entirely correct: when waves reflect off a barrier, their direction changes according to the law of reflection, but because they remain in the exact same depth of water (the same medium), their speed and consequently their wavelength do not change at all. Statement 2, however, is flawed. When waves cross into shallower water at an angle, they definitely slow down, causing the wavelength to decrease (bunch up). Because they hit the boundary at an angle, this change in speed also causes the waves to bend, meaning their direction of travel changes. Since statement 2 wrongly claims the direction remains the same, only statement 1 is correct.

Question 19

A composite block is made by joining together three transparent materials.
The diagram shows a ray of light passing through the composite block.
Which list gives the three materials in order of the speeds of light in the materials, from slowest to fastest?
A. $1 \rightarrow 2 \rightarrow 3$
B. $1 \rightarrow 3 \rightarrow 2$
C. $2 \rightarrow 1 \rightarrow 3$
D. $2 \rightarrow 3 \rightarrow 1$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.2: Refraction of light (Describe the passage of light through a transparent material)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

When light travels from one transparent material into another, its speed changes, causing it to refract. The golden rule is: if it bends towards the normal line, it has slowed down; if it bends away from the normal, it has sped up. Observing the diagram, when the light goes from material 1 to material 2, it bends distinctly towards the normal. This tells us it travels slower in 2 than it does in 1 ($v_2 < v_1$). Then, moving from 2 into 3, it bends drastically away from the normal, meaning it has sped up considerably. The angle of the ray in material 3 is even wider than it was initially in material 1, indicating the light travels the absolute fastest in material 3. Therefore, ordering the speeds from slowest to fastest gives us 2, then 1, then 3.

Question 20

An object is placed 30 cm in front of a plane mirror. Which statement describes the image of the object?
A. The image is the same size and 30 cm from the object.
B. The image is the same size and 60 cm from the object.
C. The image is smaller and 30 cm from the object.
D. The image is smaller and 60 cm from the object.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light (Describe the formation of an optical image by a plane mirror and give its characteristics)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When you stand in front of a completely flat (plane) mirror, your reflection always looks exactly the same height and width as you are. So, the image produced is never magnified or diminished; it is the same size. Furthermore, a plane mirror creates a virtual image that appears to be positioned exactly the same distance behind the glass as the physical object is standing in front of it. Here, the object is placed 30 cm in front of the mirror, meaning the virtual image forms 30 cm deep behind the mirror. The question asks for the distance from the object to the image, which requires adding both distances together: 30 cm to the mirror plus 30 cm behind the mirror equals a total distance of 60 cm.

Question 21

A ray of light is shone onto the surface of a mirror.
Which two angles represent the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light (Define and use the terms normal, angle of incidence and angle of reflection)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

When dealing with light rays, all standard angles are measured relative to the normal, which is the imaginary dashed line drawn perfectly perpendicular (at 90 degrees) to the surface of the mirror. The angle of incidence is defined as the angle exactly between the incoming (incident) ray and the normal. In the described diagram, this is angle 2. Similarly, the angle of reflection is measured directly between the outgoing (reflected) ray and the normal, which corresponds to angle 3. Angles 1 and 4 are merely the glancing angles with the mirror surface, not the standard incident or reflected angles.

Question 22

The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. How do the speeds of sound in concrete and water compare with this speed?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.4: Sound (Know that, in general, sound travels faster in solids than in liquids and faster in liquids than in gases)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Sound waves are mechanical vibrations that propagate by transferring energy from one particle to an adjacent particle. Because particles in a liquid (like water) are packed much closer together than the widely spread particles in a gas (like air), water transmits these sound vibrations much faster. When we look at a solid (like concrete), the particles are packed incredibly tightly and held by strong bonds, making the energy transfer even more rapid. Therefore, the speed of sound is highest in solids, slower in liquids, and slowest in gases, meaning the speed in both concrete and water is significantly greater than 330 m/s.

Question 23

What is the speed of microwaves in air?
A. $3 \times 10^8\text{ }\mu\text{m/s}$
B. $3 \times 10^8\text{ cm/s}$
C. $3 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}$
D. $3 \times 10^8\text{ km/s}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Know that the speed of electromagnetic waves in a vacuum is $3.0 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}$ and is approximately the same in air)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Microwaves are a key part of the electromagnetic spectrum, living right between radio waves and infrared radiation. One of the defining and universal characteristics of all electromagnetic waves—whether they are X-rays, visible light, or microwaves—is that they all travel at the exact same ultimate speed in a vacuum. This is the speed of light, which is approximately $3 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}$. When these waves pass through air, they slow down by such a microscopic amount that we still confidently approximate their speed as $3 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}$ for all standard calculations.

Question 24

An observer stands at the finish line of a 100 m race. He wants to time the winner’s run. He starts his stop-watch as soon as he sees the smoke from the starting gun instead of when he hears the bang.
What is the reason for doing this?
A. Light travels much faster than sound.
B. There is a risk he might respond to an echo from a wall.
C. Humans react slower to sound than to light.
D. Humans react more quickly to sound than to light.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.4: Sound (Describe a method involving a measurement of distance and time for determining the speed of sound in air)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

To capture an accurate race time, the observer must start the watch the exact moment the gun fires. Light is incredibly fast, traveling at $3 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}$, so the visual cue of the smoke reaches the observer’s eyes at the finish line almost instantaneously. Sound, however, is much slower, cruising at only about 330 m/s. It takes roughly a third of a second for the sound of the ‘bang’ to cross that 100-meter field. If the observer relied on their hearing, they would start the watch late, resulting in a recorded race time that is falsely faster than reality.

Question 25

Which statement is not a method for magnetising an iron bar?
A. Place the bar next to a magnet and hammer the bar.
B. Place the bar inside a solenoid. Switch on an alternating current (a.c.) in the coil and gradually reduce the current.
C. Place the bar inside a solenoid. Switch on a direct current (d.c.) in the coil and gradually reduce the current.
D. Stroke the bar repeatedly with a magnet.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism (Describe induced magnetism and magnetisation/demagnetisation techniques)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Magnetizing an iron bar involves forcing its tiny internal magnetic domains to line up perfectly in one direction. You can achieve this by repeatedly stroking it with a permanent magnet, putting it in a strong unidirectional magnetic field created by a direct current (d.c.) in a solenoid, or even hitting it with a hammer while it sits in a magnetic field to physically jolt the domains into alignment. However, putting the bar in an alternating current (a.c.) solenoid forces the domains to rapidly flip back and forth. Slowly reducing that a.c. current leaves the domains completely scrambled and randomized, which is the classic method for demagnetizing an object, not magnetizing it.

Question 26

The diagram shows a circuit containing a variable resistor connected to a variable power supply.
The table shows the currents for different values of the potential difference (p.d.) and the resistance.
What is the order of the currents from smallest to largest?
A. $I_1 \rightarrow I_2 \rightarrow I_3$
B. $I_1 \rightarrow I_3 \rightarrow I_2$
C. $I_2 \rightarrow I_1 \rightarrow I_3$
D. $I_3 \rightarrow I_1 \rightarrow I_2$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.4: Resistance (Recall and use the equation for resistance $R = V / I$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

We can solve this swiftly using Ohm’s Law, which states that current is equal to the potential difference divided by the resistance ($I = V/R$). Let’s calculate the exact current for each row. For the first row, $I_1 = 3.6 / 12 = 0.3\text{ A}$. For the second row, $I_2 = 1.2 / 12 = 0.1\text{ A}$. For the third row, $I_3 = 3.6 / 6 = 0.6\text{ A}$. Now we simply need to rank these calculated values. Comparing them directly, 0.1 A is the smallest, 0.3 A is in the middle, and 0.6 A is the largest. Therefore, the correct sequential order from smallest to largest is $I_2$, then $I_1$, and finally $I_3$.

Question 27

Which diagram shows the electric field pattern around a positive charge?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.1: Electric charge (Describe simple electric field patterns, including the direction of the field around a point charge)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

An electric field represents the area where an electric charge exerts a force on other charges. By standard scientific convention, the direction of any electric field line is defined by the direction of the force it would exert on a small, imaginary positive “test” charge. If you bring a positive test charge close to a central positive point charge, the two like charges will repel each other strongly. Because the test charge is pushed straight away, the electric field lines around a positive charge must be drawn as straight lines radiating perfectly outward from the center.

Question 28

A negatively charged plastic rod P is placed above a positively charged plastic rod Q.
What are the directions of the electrostatic forces on rod P and on rod Q?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.1: Electric charge (State that positive charges attract negative charges)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

One of the foundational rules of electrostatics is that opposite charges attract each other, while like charges repel. In this scenario, rod P has a negative charge and rod Q has a positive charge, making them opposites. This means there is a mutual attractive force pulling them together. Since rod P is physically located above rod Q, the attraction pulls rod P straight downwards toward Q. Conversely, because rod Q is located below rod P, the attractive force pulls rod Q straight upwards toward P. They pull towards each other, confirming the downward and upward force directions respectively.

Question 29

A lamp rated 12 V, 2.0 A is switched on for one minute.
How much energy is transferred by the lamp?
A. 6.0 J
B. 24 J
C. 360 J
D. 1440 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power (Recall and use the equation for electrical energy $E = IVt$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To calculate the total electrical energy transferred by a component, we use the standard formula linking energy to current, voltage, and time: $E = IVt$. The problem provides us with a voltage $V$ of 12 V and a current $I$ of 2.0 A. The operating time is given as one minute, but standard physics equations require time to be measured in seconds. So, we convert 1 minute into $t = 60\text{ s}$. Plugging all these values directly into the formula gives $E = 2.0 \times 12 \times 60$. Multiplying these figures together yields exactly 1440 Joules of transferred energy.

Question 30

An alternating current (a.c.) power supply is connected in series with a resistor R and a diode.
Which graph shows how the voltage V across the resistor R varies with time?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components (Draw and interpret circuit diagrams containing diodes and know how these components behave in the circuit)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

An alternating current (a.c.) power supply naturally produces a voltage that continuously swings back and forth, represented mathematically as a full sine wave oscillating above and below zero. However, this circuit includes a diode in series. A diode is a specialized electrical component designed to allow current to flow in only one specific direction, while completely blocking current from flowing backwards. Therefore, during the half-cycle when the a.c. pushes in the diode’s forward direction, voltage drops across the resistor (creating a positive hump). During the reverse half-cycle, the diode acts like an open switch, blocking the current, meaning zero voltage falls across the resistor. This creates a “half-wave rectified” graph: positive peaks separated by flat lines at zero.

Question 31

A student makes four resistors using different pieces of wire. The wires have different diameters and lengths. All the pieces of wire are made of the same material.
Which piece of wire will make the resistor with the largest resistance?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.4: Resistance (Recall and use the following relationship for a metallic electrical conductor: resistance is directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to cross-sectional area)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The resistance of any metallic wire is fundamentally governed by its physical dimensions. Specifically, resistance is directly proportional to the length of the wire (a longer wire means electrons have to squeeze through more obstacles) and inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area (a thicker wire gives electrons more room to flow easily). To maximize resistance, you need the wire to be as long and as thin as possible. Looking at our options, the longest length available is 17 cm, and the thinnest diameter available is 0.8 mm. Combining these two properties gives us the wire with the absolute largest resistance.

Question 32

Which diagram shows a circuit containing a battery, a fuse and a buzzer?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components (Draw and interpret circuit diagrams containing cells, batteries, fuses and bells/buzzers)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To answer this, we need to carefully match standard electrical symbols to the required components. A “battery” is represented by two or more cells in series (long and short parallel lines). A “fuse” is specifically drawn as a rectangle with the connecting wire running completely straight through its center. A “buzzer” is universally depicted as a semi-circle with two small legs acting as its connection points. Looking at the options provided, only diagram D correctly combines all three of these specific, standardized symbols in one complete series circuit.

Question 33

The diagram shows a network of logic gates.
Which single logic gate, placed between X, Y and OUT, would have the same effect as the network?
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

We can solve this logic puzzle by constructing a quick truth table. The network performs the operation (NOT X) OR (NOT Y). If X=1 and Y=1, the NOT gates flip them to 0 and 0. The OR gate sees 0 OR 0, which outputs 0. If X=0 and Y=1, we get 1 OR 0, which outputs 1. If X=1 and Y=0, we get 0 OR 1, outputting 1. If X=0 and Y=0, we get 1 OR 1, outputting 1. The final output is 1 for all cases except when both inputs are 1. This exact behavior perfectly matches a NAND gate (NOT AND). The symbol for a NAND gate is an AND gate with a tiny inversion circle on the output, which is Option D.

Question 34

The diagram represents a transformer.
Which row shows materials suitable for making the core and the primary coil?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.6: The transformer (Describe the construction of a simple transformer with a soft-iron core)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

A transformer relies entirely on electromagnetic induction to transfer power. For the primary coil to generate a magnetic field and carry electricity efficiently, it must be made of an excellent electrical conductor; copper is the standard choice because plastic is an insulator and won’t work. For the core, its sole job is to efficiently link the magnetic field from the primary to the secondary coil. It needs to magnetize and demagnetize incredibly easily as the alternating current constantly flips. Soft iron is the perfect magnetic material for this because it is easily magnetized and demagnetized, whereas steel is a hard magnetic material and retains its magnetism, making it terribly inefficient for a transformer core.

Question 35

The diagrams show the magnetic field lines around a wire carrying a current, $I$.
Which diagrams are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 4 only
D. 1 and 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.3: Magnetic effect of a current (Describe the pattern and direction of the magnetic field due to currents in straight wires)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To determine the direction of the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire, we use the Right-Hand Grip Rule. Imagine gripping the wire with your right hand so that your thumb points in the direction of the conventional current. Your fingers will naturally curl around the wire in the exact direction of the magnetic field lines. In Diagram 1, pointing your thumb up makes your fingers curl anticlockwise, so it’s correct. Diagram 2 is wrong. In Diagram 3, pointing your thumb downwards makes your fingers curl clockwise, so it is also correct. Diagram 4 is wrong. Therefore, diagrams 1 and 3 correctly map the magnetic fields.

Question 36

Which statement about electromagnetic induction is correct?
A. A conductor moving parallel to magnetic field lines induces an electromotive force (e.m.f.) in the conductor.
B. The direction of the induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) opposes the change which produces it.
C. The induced current is in a direction parallel to the direction of motion producing it.
D. The induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) decreases when the speed of the conductor moving across the field lines increases.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.1: Electromagnetic induction (Know that the direction of an induced e.m.f. opposes the change causing it)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Electromagnetic induction is a fundamental principle where an e.m.f. is generated by a changing magnetic environment. Let’s look at the options. A is wrong because a conductor must actively “cut” across the magnetic field lines to induce an e.m.f.; moving parallel does nothing. C is wrong because Fleming’s Right-Hand Rule dictates the induced current is perpendicular, not parallel, to the motion. D is wrong because moving a conductor faster increases the rate of cutting field lines, which increases the induced e.m.f. Option B, however, perfectly states Lenz’s Law: the direction of any induced e.m.f. inherently creates a magnetic field that fights or “opposes” the original change that caused it.

Question 37

A very important experiment increased scientists’ understanding of the structure of matter.
In the experiment, particles scattered as they passed through a thin metal foil.
Which particles were used, and to which conclusion did the experiment lead?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.1: The atom (Describe how the scattering of alpha particles by a sheet of thin metal supports the nuclear model of the atom)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

This question references the famous Geiger-Marsden experiment, also heavily known as Rutherford’s gold foil experiment. In this historic setup, a beam of heavy, positively charged alpha-particles ($\alpha$-particles) was fired at a tremendously thin sheet of gold foil. The astonishing observation was that while most alpha particles sailed straight through uninterrupted, a tiny fraction were deflected at massive angles, and some even bounced straight back. Rutherford deduced that this scattering could only happen if almost all of the atom’s mass and positive charge were intensely concentrated in an incredibly small, dense center. Thus, the experiment used alpha-particles and definitively concluded that atoms have a very small, dense nucleus.

Question 38

Polonium, Po, has a proton number equal to 84 and a nucleon number equal to 218. Polonium changes into astatine, At, by emitting a $\beta$-particle.Which equation represents this decay?
A. ${}^{218}_{84}\text{Po} \rightarrow {}^{218}_{85}\text{At} + {}^{-1}_{0}\beta$
B. ${}^{218}_{84}\text{Po} \rightarrow {}^{218}_{83}\text{At} + {}^{0}_{-1}\beta$
C. ${}^{218}_{84}\text{Po} \rightarrow {}^{218}_{85}\text{At} + {}^{0}_{-1}\beta$
D. ${}^{218}_{84}\text{Po} + {}^{0}_{-1}\beta \rightarrow {}^{218}_{85}\text{At}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.3: Radioactive decay (Use decay equations, using nuclide notation, to show the emission of $\beta$-particles)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

In standard nuclide notation, the top number is the mass (nucleon) number, and the bottom is the proton (atomic) number. Polonium is written as ${}^{218}_{84}\text{Po}$. During beta ($\beta$) decay, a neutron deep inside the nucleus transforms directly into a proton and an electron. The electron is violently ejected as the $\beta$-particle, represented by ${}^{0}_{-1}\beta$. Because a neutron turns into a proton, the total mass number (protons + neutrons) stays absolutely unchanged at 218. However, because we gained a brand new proton, the proton number bumps up by one, from 84 to 85, creating the new element Astatine (At). Therefore, the perfectly balanced equation is ${}^{218}_{84}\text{Po} \rightarrow {}^{218}_{85}\text{At} + {}^{0}_{-1}\beta$.

Question 39

The graph shows how the count rate from a radioactive isotope changes with time.
 
What is the half-life of this isotope?
A. 2.0 s
B. 6.0 s
C. 12 s
D. 53 s

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.4: Half-life (Define the half-life… and use this definition in simple calculations, which might involve information in tables or decay curves)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The half-life of a radioactive isotope is strictly defined as the exact amount of time it takes for the measured count rate to fall to half of its initial value. By looking at the graph, we can trace the starting point at $t = 0\text{ s}$, where the count rate is at 60 counts/s. Half of 60 is exactly 30. If we trace a horizontal line across from 30 on the y-axis over to the curve, and then drop down to the x-axis, we hit exactly $t = 2.0\text{ s}$. To double-check our work, dropping from 30 to half its value (15) takes another 2.0 seconds (reaching $t = 4.0\text{ s}$). Thus, the half-life is definitively 2.0 seconds.

Question 40

What is the nature of $\alpha$-emission?
A. electromagnetic waves
B. negatively charged particles
C. positively charged particles
D. uncharged particles

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission (Identify $\alpha$, $\beta$ and $\gamma$ emissions from the nucleus by recalling their nature)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To answer this, we need to recall the fundamental physical nature of the three primary types of nuclear radiation. Gamma ($\gamma$) emission consists of high-energy electromagnetic waves. Beta ($\beta$) emission consists of fast-moving electrons, which are inherently negatively charged particles. Alpha ($\alpha$) emission, however, consists of alpha particles, which are structurally identical to the nucleus of a helium atom. They contain exactly two protons and two neutrons, completely lacking any surrounding electrons. Because protons hold a positive charge and neutrons are neutral, the entire alpha particle has a net positive charge of +2, making it a positively charged particle.

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