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Question 1

In order to determine the period of a pendulum, a student times one complete swing of the pendulum using an analogue stop-watch with a second hand.
Which change of method produces the greatest improvement in accuracy?
A. asking a friend with a shorter reaction time to take the measurement
B. measuring the time for 100 swings of the pendulum and dividing it by 100
C. measuring the time for a half swing of the pendulum and doubling it
D. using a digital timer

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.1: Physical quantities and measurement techniques (Determine an average value for a short interval of time by measuring multiples)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Timing a single swing introduces a large human reaction time error relative to the very short period.
By measuring the time for 100 swings, this error is distributed across many oscillations, significantly reducing its impact on the calculated period.
This method directly applies the syllabus technique of measuring multiples to determine a more accurate average for a small time interval.
Options A and D still leave a single period measurement susceptible to start/stop error, while Option C introduces a larger relative error by halving an already short interval.
Therefore, measuring multiple oscillations provides the greatest improvement in accuracy.

Question 2

The graph shows the speed of a car travelling through a town.
Which section of the graph represents a period when the car is decelerating?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.1: Effects of forces (Determine, qualitatively, from the shape of a speed-time graph when an object is decelerating)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Deceleration means the speed of the car is decreasing over time.
On a speed-time graph, this is shown by a line sloping downwards from left to right (negative gradient).
Looking at the graph, Section D is the only section where the speed value drops as time progresses.
Sections A and C show increasing speed (acceleration), and Section B shows constant speed.
Therefore, Section D correctly represents the period of deceleration.

Question 3

An object weighs \(19 \mathrm{~N}\) on a planet where the acceleration of free fall is \(3.8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\).
What is the mass of the object?
A. \(0.20 \mathrm{~kg}\)
B. \(1.9 \mathrm{~kg}\)
C. \(5.0 \mathrm{~kg}\)
D. \(72 \mathrm{~kg}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and weight (Define gravitational field strength as force per unit mass; recall and use the equation \(g = \frac{W}{m}\))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Weight is related to mass by the equation \(W = mg\), where \(g\) is the gravitational field strength.
Rearranging gives mass \(m = \frac{W}{g} = \frac{19 \mathrm{~N}}{3.8 \mathrm{~m/s^2}}\).
Calculating this yields \(m = 5.0 \mathrm{~kg}\).
This matches Option C.

Question 4

An object is suspended from a spring balance on the Earth. The same object is suspended from the same spring balance on another planet.
Which statement explains the difference between the two readings?
A. Both the mass and the weight of the object are greater on the other planet.
B. The mass of the object is greater on the other planet than on the Earth, but the weight is unchanged.
C. The spring stretches more easily when on the other planet.
D. The weight of the object is greater on the other planet than on the Earth, but the mass is unchanged.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and weight (State that weight is a gravitational force on an object that has mass; know that mass is unchanged but weight depends on gravitational field strength)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Mass is the quantity of matter in an object and remains constant regardless of location.
Weight is the gravitational force on the object, given by $W = mg$, so it changes with the gravitational field strength $g$.
The spring balance measures weight, so a higher reading on the other planet indicates a greater weight.
This is possible only if the other planet has a stronger gravitational field than Earth.
Therefore, the weight increases while the mass stays the same, making Option D correct.

Question 5

A student has a bottle of cooking oil.
She determines the density of the cooking oil.
Which apparatus does she need?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.4: Density (Describe how to determine the density of a liquid, including appropriate calculations)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To find the density of a liquid, mass must be measured using a balance and volume using a measuring cylinder.
The ruler is not needed for a liquid, and the stopwatch is used for timing events, not density.
Option C includes both the balance and measuring cylinder, the only apparatus required.
Using the density formula $\rho = \frac{m}{V}$, the mass and volume obtained give the density.
Therefore, the correct apparatus set is shown in Option C.

Question 6

Forces are applied to four identical objects.
The length of each arrow indicates the magnitude of the force.
Which object is in equilibrium?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (State that, when there is no resultant force and no resultant moment, an object is in equilibrium)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

An object is in equilibrium when there is no resultant force and no resultant moment acting on it.
In option B, the two horizontal forces are equal in length and opposite in direction, cancelling each other out, and the vertical forces also cancel.
In the other options, the opposing forces are not equal, resulting in a net force that would cause acceleration.
Therefore, only object B satisfies the condition for equilibrium as stated in the syllabus.

Question 7

The diagram shows a wooden beam PQ which is attached to a wall by a pivot at P and kept in a horizontal position by a vertical rope attached at Q.
A box has been placed on the beam.
Which changes must reduce the tension in the rope at \(\mathrm{Q}\) ?
A. Decrease the mass of the box and move it towards \(P\).
B. Decrease the mass of the box and move it towards \(Q\).
C. Increase the mass of the box and move it towards \(P\).
D. Increase the mass of the box and move it towards \(Q\).

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Apply the principle of moments to situations with one force each side of the pivot)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Taking moments about the pivot P, the clockwise moment (box weight × distance) must equal the anticlockwise moment (tension × distance PQ).
Reducing the mass of the box decreases its weight, directly reducing the clockwise moment.
Moving the box towards P decreases the perpendicular distance from the pivot, further reducing this moment.
Both changes lower the required opposing moment, therefore the tension in the rope at Q must decrease.
This matches Option A.

Question 8

A cyclist travels down a hill from rest at point X without pedalling.
The cyclist applies his brakes and the cycle stops at point Y.
Which energy transfers have taken place between \(X\) and \(Y\) ?
A. gravitational potential \(\rightarrow\) kinetic \(\rightarrow\) internal (thermal)
B. gravitational potential \(\rightarrow\) internal (thermal) \(\rightarrow\) kinetic
C. kinetic \(\rightarrow\) gravitational potential \(\rightarrow\) internal (thermal)
D. kinetic \(\rightarrow\) internal (thermal) \(\rightarrow\) gravitational potential

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.1: Energy (Describe how energy is transferred between stores during events and processes)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

At point X, the cyclist has gravitational potential energy due to his height.
As he moves down the hill, this energy is transferred into kinetic energy (movement).
When the brakes are applied, friction converts the kinetic energy into internal (thermal) energy, causing the cycle to stop at Y.
Therefore, the sequence is gravitational potential → kinetic → internal (thermal).

Question 9

Which energy resource is non-renewable?
A. geothermal
B. natural gas
C. solar
D. wind

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.3: Energy resources (Describe advantages and disadvantages of each method in terms of renewability)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Non-renewable energy resources exist in finite amounts and cannot be replenished at the rate of consumption.
Geothermal, solar, and wind energy are all renewable because they are naturally replenished on a human timescale.
Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed over millions of years and is therefore a non-renewable resource.
Consequently, among the given choices, only natural gas is classified as non-renewable.

Question 10

A pump does $460000\text{ J}$ of work to raise water to fill a tank. It takes $7$ minutes to fill the tank.
What is the power of the pump?
A. $1.1\text{ kW}$
B. $66\text{ kW}$
C. $3200\text{ kW}$
D. $190000\text{ kW}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.4: Power (Define power as work done per unit time; recall and use the equation $P = \frac{W}{t}$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Power is the rate of doing work: $P = \frac{W}{t}$.
Convert time to seconds: $t = 7 \times 60 = 420\text{ s}$.
Substitute the values: $P = \frac{460000\text{ J}}{420\text{ s}} \approx 1095\text{ W}$.
Convert to kilowatts: $1095\text{ W} = 1.1\text{ kW}$.
This matches Option A.

Question 11

When a diver swims down from the surface of the water to a depth of \(10 \mathrm{~m}\), the pressure experienced increases from \(100000 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^2\) to \(200000 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^2\).
Which statement explains this increase in pressure?
A. The density of the water increases with depth.
B. The gravitational field strength increases with depth.
C. The weight of water above the diver increases with depth.
D. Water cannot be compressed.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.8: Pressure (Describe how the pressure beneath the surface of a liquid changes with depth)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Pressure in a liquid is caused by the force exerted by the molecules of the liquid due to their weight. As the diver descends, the column of water directly above them becomes taller, meaning there is a greater total weight of water pressing down per unit area. Density and gravitational field strength are assumed constant in this context. Therefore, the pressure increases solely because the weight of the water above increases.

Question 12

Why can a gas be compressed easily into a smaller volume?
A. The particles are far apart.
B. The particles do not attract each other.
C. The particles move randomly.
D. The volume of each particle can be reduced.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.2: Particle model (Describe the particle structure of gases in terms of arrangement and separation)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Gases are easily compressed because the particles are widely spaced with large distances between them.
Applying pressure simply pushes these particles closer together, significantly reducing the volume of the gas.
In contrast, liquids and solids have particles that are already close together, making them difficult to compress.
The volume of the individual particles themselves does not change.
This corresponds directly to the particle model described in the syllabus.

Question 13

The melting point of mercury is \(-39^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\).
What is the melting point of mercury in kelvin?
A. \(-234 \mathrm{~K}\)
B. \(61 \mathrm{~K}\)
C. \(234 \mathrm{~K}\)
D. \(312 \mathrm{~K}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.3: Gases and the absolute scale of temperature (Convert temperatures between kelvin and degrees Celsius; recall and use the equation \(T(\mathrm{in} \mathrm{K}) = \theta (\mathrm{in} \mathrm{^\circ C}) + 273\))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To convert a temperature from degrees Celsius to kelvin, add 273 to the Celsius temperature.
Calculation: \( T(\mathrm{K}) = \theta (\mathrm{^\circ C}) + 273 = -39 + 273 = 234 \mathrm{~K} \).
This is because the kelvin scale is an absolute scale where \(0 \mathrm{~K}\) is absolute zero, equivalent to \(-273^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\).
Therefore, the melting point of mercury is \(234 \mathrm{~K}\).
This matches Option C.

Question 14

A bimetallic strip is used to control the temperature of an electrical appliance. It is made of two different metals fixed together.
The diagram shows the shape of the bimetallic strip before and after heating.
Which statement is correct?
A. Metal P contracts more than metal Q on heating.
B. Metal Q contracts more than metal P on heating.
C. Metal P expands more than metal Q on heating.
D. Metal Q expands more than metal P on heating.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.1: Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases (Describe, qualitatively, the thermal expansion of solids and its applications)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

When heated, the bimetallic strip bends into a curve with metal P on the outside of the curve.
This indicates that metal P has become longer than metal Q at the same temperature increase.
Therefore, metal P has a greater thermal expansion, expanding more than metal Q.
Since the strip bends towards the side that expands less (metal Q), option C is the correct statement.

Question 15

A student has two blocks of metal, \(\mathrm{X}\) and \(\mathrm{Y}\). The temperature of \(\mathrm{X}\) is \(50^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\) and the temperature of \(\mathrm{Y}\) is \(0^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\).
The two blocks are placed in contact with each other, as shown.
After some time, both blocks have a temperature of \(25^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\).
What has happened to the internal energy of each block?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.2: Specific heat capacity (Describe an increase in temperature of an object in terms of an increase in the average kinetic energies of all of the particles in the object)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Block X cools from \(50^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) to \(25^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\), so its particles lose kinetic energy and its internal energy decreases.
Block Y warms from \(0^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) to \(25^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\), so its particles gain kinetic energy and its internal energy increases.
Energy is transferred thermally from the hotter block to the colder block until thermal equilibrium is reached.
Therefore, the internal energy of X decreases and the internal energy of Y increases.
This matches Option B.

Question 16

The diagram shows the view of a room heated by a radiator. The arrowed line from X to Y is the path of the convection current in the air.
Which row about the air temperature and the air density at X and at Y is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.3.2: Convection (Explain convection in liquids and gases in terms of density changes)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Air heated by the radiator at X expands, becomes less dense, and rises to the ceiling.
As the air cools near the window at Y, it contracts, becomes more dense, and sinks towards the floor.
Therefore, the temperature at X is higher than at Y, and the density at X is lower than at Y.
This correctly matches the conditions described in row B.

Question 17

Which statements about waves are correct?

  1. Only longitudinal waves can undergo diffraction.
  2. All waves can undergo refraction.
  3. All waves can undergo reflection.
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Describe how waves can undergo reflection, refraction, and diffraction)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: both transverse and longitudinal waves undergo diffraction.
Statement 2 is correct: all waves change speed and direction when entering a new medium.
Statement 3 is correct: all waves bounce off surfaces according to the law of reflection.
Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
This matches Option D.

Question 18

Which quantities relating to a wave on the surface of water can both be measured in metres?
A. amplitude and frequency
B. amplitude and wavelength
C. amplitude and wave speed
D. frequency and wavelength

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Know the definitions of amplitude and wavelength)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Amplitude is the maximum displacement from the rest position, measured in metres. Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive identical points (e.g., crest to crest), also measured in metres. Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz), and wave speed is measured in metres per second (m/s). Therefore, only amplitude and wavelength both have the SI unit of metres.

Question 19

Which diagram correctly shows the dispersion of white light through a glass prism?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.4: Dispersion of light (Describe the dispersion of light as illustrated by the refraction of white light by a glass prism)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

When white light enters a glass prism, it refracts and disperses into its constituent colours.
Violet light has the highest frequency and is refracted the most; red light has the lowest frequency and is refracted the least.
Diagram D correctly shows the incident white light entering, the spectrum spreading inside the prism with violet deviating more than red, and the colours continuing to separate upon exiting.
The order of colours (red to violet) and the direction of deviation must match this physical principle.

Question 20

A ray of light is reflected by a plane mirror.
Which row shows the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light (Define and use the terms angle of incidence and angle of reflection)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The angle of incidence is the angle between the incident ray and the normal (the line perpendicular to the mirror surface).
The angle of reflection is the angle between the reflected ray and the normal.
According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection.
In the diagram, the normal is represented by the dashed line; the angle on either side of it is $35^\circ$.
Therefore, both the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are $35^\circ$, which corresponds to Row C.

Question 21

A thin converging lens is used to produce a real image of an object.
Which statement about the real image is always correct?
A. It is nearer to the lens than the object.
B. It is on the opposite side of the lens to the object.
C. It is the same size as the object.
D. It is upright.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.3: Thin lenses (Draw and use ray diagrams for the formation of a real image by a converging lens)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

For a converging lens, a real image is formed when rays of light physically converge on the opposite side of the lens from the object.
Real images are always inverted and can be magnified, diminished, or the same size depending on the object distance.
Unlike virtual images (which are upright and on the same side), real images always appear inverted and on the opposite side.
Therefore, the only statement that is always correct for any real image is that it is on the opposite side of the lens to the object.
This matches Option B.

Question 22

Where do all types of electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed?
A. air
B. a vacuum
C. glass
D. water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Know that all electromagnetic waves travel at the same high speed in a vacuum)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

All types of electromagnetic waves (radio, microwaves, visible light, X-rays, etc.) travel at approximately $3.0 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}$ in a vacuum.
When these waves enter a medium like air, glass, or water, they slow down and different frequencies may travel at slightly different speeds, causing dispersion.
Therefore, a vacuum is the only location where all electromagnetic waves travel at exactly the same speed.
This matches Option B.

Question 23

Dogs can hear sounds in the range from \(100 \mathrm{~Hz}\) to \(45 \mathrm{kHz}\).
Which statement is correct?
A. Any sound a dog can hear can also be heard by a human.
B. Any sound a human can hear can also be heard by a dog.
C. Dogs can hear some low frequency sounds that are silent for humans.
D. Dogs can hear some high frequency sounds that are silent for humans.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.4: Sound (State the approximate range of frequencies audible to humans as 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The human audible range is approximately \(20 \mathrm{~Hz}\) to \(20 \mathrm{~kHz}\).
Dogs can hear up to \(45 \mathrm{~kHz}\), which is well above the upper limit of human hearing.
Therefore, sounds between \(20 \mathrm{~kHz}\) and \(45 \mathrm{~kHz}\) are audible to dogs but silent to humans.
This makes statement D correct, as these are high-frequency sounds beyond human perception.

Question 24

Which metal could be used for a permanent magnet and which metal could be used for the core of an electromagnet?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism (State the differences between the properties of temporary magnets (made of soft iron) and permanent magnets (made of steel))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Permanent magnets require a material that retains its magnetism, such as hard magnetic steel.
The core of an electromagnet must be easily magnetized and demagnetized, making soft iron the ideal choice.
Therefore, steel is used for the permanent magnet and soft iron is used for the electromagnet core.
This combination of materials corresponds to Row D in the table.

Question 25

Object 1 is given a negative charge and placed on a balance.
Object 2, which is also charged, is brought close to object 1 and the reading on the balance changes as shown.
Which action would further decrease the reading on the balance?
A. Add the same number of electrons to both objects.
B. Remove the same number of electrons from both objects.
C. Transfer electrons from object 1 to object 2.
D. Transfer electrons from object 2 to object 1.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.1: Electric charge (Describe simple experiments to show the production and detection of electrostatic charges; Explain that charging of solids by friction involves only a transfer of negative charge (electrons))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The decreased reading indicates an upward electrostatic attraction, so Object 2 must be positive. To increase this attraction, Object 2 needs a larger positive charge and/or Object 1 needs a larger negative charge. Transferring electrons (negative charge) from Object 2 to Object 1 makes Object 2 more positive and Object 1 more negative, strengthening the attraction and further decreasing the balance reading. This matches Option D.

Question 26

Which statement about a voltmeter is correct?

A. It has a scale which is marked in amperes (A).
B. It must be connected in series in a circuit.
C. It measures potential difference (p.d.).
D. It must have three terminals.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.3: Electromotive force and potential difference (Define potential difference and describe the use of voltmeters)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

A voltmeter is an instrument used to measure the potential difference (p.d.) between two points in a circuit.
It is marked in volts (V), not amperes (A), and must be connected in parallel, not series.
While some voltmeters may have multiple terminals, it is not a mandatory requirement for all voltmeters.
Therefore, the only universally correct statement is that it measures potential difference.

Question 27

How does the resistance of a metallic wire change:
  • as its length increases
  • as its cross-sectional area decreases?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.4: Resistance (State, qualitatively, the relationship of the resistance of a metallic wire to its length and to its cross-sectional area)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

For a metallic wire at constant temperature, resistance is directly proportional to its length, so increasing length increases resistance.
Resistance is also inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area, so decreasing the area also increases resistance.
Therefore, both changes described result in an increase in the overall resistance of the wire.
This corresponds to Option A in the table provided.

Question 28

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged because of the movement of charged particles.
Which row gives the name of these charged particles and the direction in which they move?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.1: Electric charge (Explain that charging of solids by friction involves only a transfer of negative charge (electrons))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When a plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth, electrons (which are negatively charged) are transferred from the rod to the cloth.
The loss of electrons leaves the rod with an overall positive charge.
This aligns with the principle that only negative charge (electrons) moves during charging by friction.
Therefore, the charged particles are electrons, and they move from the rod to the cloth.
This matches Option B in the table.

Question 29

Two \(2.0 \Omega\) resistors are connected in parallel.
What is the combined resistance of the resistors?
A. less than \(2.0 \Omega\)
B. exactly \(2.0 \Omega\)
C. more than \(2.0 \Omega\), but less than \(4.0 \Omega\)
D. exactly \(4.0 \Omega\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

4.3.2 Series and parallel circuits: Calculate the combined resistance of two resistors in parallel
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

For two identical resistors \(R\) in parallel, the combined resistance is given by \(R_{\text{total}} = \frac{R}{n}\), where \(n\) is the number of resistors.
Here, \(R = 2.0 \, \Omega\) and \(n = 2\), so \(R_{\text{total}} = \frac{2.0}{2} = 1.0 \, \Omega\).
The combined resistance in a parallel circuit is always less than the smallest individual resistance.
Since \(1.0 \, \Omega\) is less than \(2.0 \, \Omega\), the correct choice is Option A.

Question 30

An electric heater is plugged into the mains supply using a fused plug.
The current in the heater is \(10 \mathrm{~A}\).
The cable attached to the heater is rated at \(15 \mathrm{~A}\).
The fuses available are rated at \(1.0 \mathrm{~A}, 3.0 \mathrm{~A}, 5.0 \mathrm{~A}\) and \(13 \mathrm{~A}\).
Which fuse should be used?
A. \(1.0 \mathrm{~A}\)
B. \(3.0 \mathrm{~A}\)
C. \(5.0 \mathrm{~A}\)
D. \(13 \mathrm{~A}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

4.4 Electrical safety: Explain the use and operation of fuses and choose appropriate fuse ratings
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The fuse rating must be slightly higher than the normal operating current of \(10\text{ A}\) to prevent unnecessary blowing.
It must also be lower than the cable’s maximum rating of \(15\text{ A}\) to ensure the cable is protected from overheating.
From the available options, the \(13\text{ A}\) fuse is the only one that satisfies both of these safety conditions.
A lower rating (e.g., \(5\text{ A}\)) would blow immediately under normal use.
Therefore, the \(13\text{ A}\) fuse is the correct and safe choice.

Question 31

A teacher sets up the equipment for three demonstrations, \(\mathrm{P}, \mathrm{Q}\) and \(\mathrm{R}\).
In demonstration P, the magnet is moved to the right.
In demonstration \(Q\), the switch is closed.
In demonstration R, the copper rod is moved vertically upwards.
Which demonstrations can be used to demonstrate electromagnetic induction?
A. \(\mathrm{P}\) and \(\mathrm{Q}\) only
B. \(\mathrm{P}\) and \(\mathrm{R}\) only
C. \(\mathrm{Q}\) and \(\mathrm{R}\) only
D. \(\mathrm{P}, \mathrm{Q}\) and \(\mathrm{R}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.1: Electromagnetic induction (Know that a conductor moving across a magnetic field or a changing magnetic field linking with a conductor can induce an e.m.f. in the conductor)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Electromagnetic induction occurs when there is relative motion between a conductor and a magnetic field or a changing magnetic field linking a circuit.
In P, moving the magnet changes the field linking the coil, inducing an e.m.f.
In Q, closing the switch changes the current in the left coil, creating a changing magnetic field that links the right coil.
In R, moving the rod vertically upwards in the magnetic field cuts field lines, inducing an e.m.f. across the rod.

Question 32

A metal rod PQ rests on two horizontal metal wires that are attached to a battery. The rod lies between the poles of a magnet.
When the switch is closed, the rod moves to the right.
What could be changed so that the rod moves to the left?
A. Open the switch.
B. Reverse the battery terminals and exchange the poles of the magnet.
C. Reverse the battery terminals but without exchanging the poles of the magnet.
D. Turn the metal rod around ( \(P\) and \(Q\) exchanged).

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.4: Force on a current-carrying conductor (Recall and use the relative directions of force, magnetic field and current)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The direction of the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field can be determined using Fleming’s left-hand rule.
Reversing the battery terminals reverses the direction of the current through the rod.
If the direction of the magnetic field remains unchanged, reversing the current will reverse the direction of the force, causing the rod to move to the left.
Opening the switch stops the current and the force; exchanging both the current and magnetic field directions results in no change to the force direction.
Turning the rod around does not change the direction of current relative to the magnetic field.

Question 33

A transformer in a computer is used to transform the mains voltage of \(240 \mathrm{~V}\) to \(12 \mathrm{~V}\).
The number of turns on the secondary coil is 2000 .
Which statement about the transformer is correct?

A. It is a step-down transformer and has 100 turns on its primary coil.
B. It is a step-down transformer and has 40000 turns on its primary coil.
C. It is a step-up transformer and has 100 turns on its primary coil.
D. It is a step-up transformer and has 40000 turns on its primary coil.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.6: The transformer (Recall and use the equation \( \frac{V_{\mathrm{p}}}{V_{\mathrm{s}}} = \frac{N_{\mathrm{p}}}{N_{\mathrm{s}}} \))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The transformer steps \(240 \mathrm{~V}\) down to \(12 \mathrm{~V}\), so it is a step-down transformer.
Using \( \frac{V_{\mathrm{p}}}{V_{\mathrm{s}}} = \frac{N_{\mathrm{p}}}{N_{\mathrm{s}}} \), we have \( \frac{240}{12} = \frac{N_{\mathrm{p}}}{2000} \).
Solving gives \(N_{\mathrm{p}} = 20 \times 2000 = 40000\) turns.
Therefore, the primary coil has 40000 turns, matching option B.

Question 34

Atom \(P\) has 6 electrons, 6 protons and 6 neutrons.
Atom \(Q\) has 6 electrons, 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
Which statement is correct?
A. Atom \(\mathrm{P}\) has atomic number 12.
B. Atom \(\mathrm{P}\) has nucleon number 6.
C. Atom \(Q\) has nucleon number 13.
D. Atoms \(\mathrm{P}\) and \(\mathrm{Q}\) are different chemical elements.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.2: The nucleus (Know that isotopes of an element have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Nucleon number (mass number) is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
For atom \(Q\), there are 6 protons and 7 neutrons, so the nucleon number is \(6 + 7 = 13\).
Atom \(P\) has an atomic number of 6 (equal to the number of protons), not 12.
Atoms \(P\) and \(Q\) are isotopes of the same element because they have the same number of protons.
Therefore, only statement C is correct.

Question 35

\(\alpha\)-particles, \(\beta\)-particles and \(\gamma\)-rays are emitted by radioactive nuclei when they decay.
Which emissions can be deflected by an electric field?

A. \(\alpha\)-particles, \(\beta\)-particles and \(\gamma\)-rays
B. \(\alpha\)-particles and \(\beta\)-particles only
C. \(\beta\)-particles and \(\gamma\)-rays only
D. \(\gamma\)-rays and \(\alpha\)-particles only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission (Describe the deflection of \(\alpha\)-particles, \(\beta\)-particles and \(\gamma\)-radiation in electric fields and magnetic fields)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

\(\alpha\)-particles have a positive charge \((+2)\) and \(\beta\)-particles have a negative charge \((-1)\), so both experience a force in an electric field.
\(\gamma\)-rays are electromagnetic waves with no charge and therefore travel in a straight line without deflection.
As a result, only \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) emissions are deflected by the electric field.
This matches Option B.

Question 36

The graph shows the count rate from a radioactive source over a period of time.
What is the half-life of the source?
A. 0.5 hour
B. 1.0 hour
C. 1.5 hours
D. 3.0 hours

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.4: Half-life (Define half-life and use it in simple calculations involving decay curves)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Locate the initial count rate on the graph, which is $100$ counts/minute at time $t = 0$.
Find the time taken for the count rate to decrease by half, from $100$ counts/minute to $50$ counts/minute.
From the graph, the curve passes through $50$ counts/minute at exactly $t = 1.0$ hour.
Therefore, the half-life of the radioactive source is $1.0$ hour.
This matches Option B.

Question 37

A scientist carries out an experiment using a sealed source which emits \(\beta\)-particles. The range of the \(\beta\)-particles in the air is about \(30 \mathrm{~cm}\).

Which precaution is the most effective to protect the scientist from the radiation?

A. handling the source with long tongs
B. keeping the temperature of the source low
C. opening all windows in the laboratory
D. washing his hands before leaving the laboratory

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.5: Safety precautions (Explain safety precautions for all ionising radiation in terms of reducing exposure time, increasing distance between source and living tissue and using shielding to absorb radiation)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The \(\beta\)-particles travel only about \(30 \mathrm{~cm}\) in air, so increasing the distance beyond this range prevents them from reaching the scientist.
Using long tongs keeps the source far enough away from the body to avoid exposure.
Reducing time and increasing distance are key safety principles; shielding is less critical here since air provides sufficient attenuation over \(30 \mathrm{~cm}\).
Temperature, ventilation, and hand washing do not effectively protect against direct external radiation from a sealed source.
Therefore, handling the source with long tongs is the most effective precaution.

Question 38

Which planet orbits the Sun between Mars and Saturn?
A. Earth
B. Jupiter
C. Mercury
D. Neptune

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

6.1.2 The Solar System: Describe the Solar System as containing the eight named planets and know their order from the Sun
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Recall the correct sequence of the eight planets in order from the Sun: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
By identifying the positions of Mars and Saturn in this sequence, the planet located directly between them is Jupiter.
The other options are incorrect because Earth and Mercury are located before Mars, while Neptune is located after Saturn.
This confirms that Option B is the correct answer.

Question 39

Which statement about the Sun is correct?
A. The Sun is a dwarf star consisting mostly of hydrogen and oxygen.
B. The Sun is a giant star consisting mostly of helium and carbon dioxide.
C. The Sun is a medium-sized star consisting mostly of hydrogen and helium.
D. The Sun is a medium-sized star consisting mostly of nitrogen and oxygen.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.1: The Sun as a star (Know that the Sun is a star of medium size, consisting mostly of hydrogen and helium)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

The Sun is classified as a medium-sized (main sequence) star, not a dwarf or giant.
It is composed primarily of hydrogen (about 74%) and helium (about 24%), with trace amounts of other elements.
Nuclear fusion in the Sun’s core converts hydrogen into helium, releasing vast amounts of energy.
Options A, B, and D incorrectly state the star’s size classification and/or its primary elemental composition.
This matches the syllabus statement for Topic 6.2.1.

Question 40

Which quantity does a light-year measure?
A. an angle
B. a distance
C. a speed
D. a time

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.2: Stars (State that astronomical distances can be measured in light-years)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

A light-year is defined as the distance travelled by light in a vacuum during one year.
It is a unit of astronomical distance used to measure the vast spaces between stars and galaxies.
Since it quantifies how far light travels over a specific time, it measures distance, not time, speed, or angle.
Therefore, Option B is the correct choice.

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