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Question 1

The diagram shows a rectangular metal sheet close to two rulers.
What is the area of the metal sheet?
A. $700\text{ cm}^2$
B. $875\text{ cm}^2$
C. $900\text{ cm}^2$
D. $1125\text{ cm}^2$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.1: Physical quantities and measurement techniques (Describe the use of rulers and measuring cylinders to find a length or a volume)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

To determine the area of the rectangular metal sheet, we first need to find its length and width by reading the two rulers.
The horizontal ruler measures the length. The edges of the sheet align with the $10\text{ cm}$ and $45\text{ cm}$ marks, giving a length of $45\text{ cm} – 10\text{ cm} = 35\text{ cm}$.
The vertical ruler measures the width. The edges of the sheet align with the $10\text{ cm}$ and $30\text{ cm}$ marks, giving a width of $30\text{ cm} – 10\text{ cm} = 20\text{ cm}$.
The area of a rectangle is calculated by multiplying its length by its width.
Therefore, the total area is $35\text{ cm} \times 20\text{ cm} = 700\text{ cm}^2$, which exactly matches Option A.

Question 2

The diagram shows the speed–time graph of an object.
In which section does the object have the largest acceleration?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion (Calculate acceleration from the gradient of a speed–time graph)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To find the acceleration from a speed-time graph, we need to look at the gradient or slope of the line.
The formula for acceleration is $a = \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}$, which corresponds directly to the steepness of the graph.
A steeper upward line indicates a greater change in speed over a given time, meaning a larger acceleration.
When we compare the different sections visually, section B clearly has the steepest positive slope.
Section A is less steep, C has zero slope (constant speed), and D shows deceleration (negative slope).
Therefore, the largest acceleration occurs in section B, making it the correct choice.

Question 3

An object begins to fall close to the Earth’s surface. Air resistance can be ignored.
Which statement about the object’s acceleration is correct?
A. The acceleration is constant.
B. The acceleration decreases as the body falls.
C. The acceleration increases as the body falls.
D. The acceleration is zero.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion (State that the acceleration of free fall g for an object near to the surface of the Earth is approximately constant and is approximately 9.8m/s²)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

When an object falls near the Earth’s surface and air resistance is ignored, it is in a state of free fall.
The only force acting on the object is the downward gravitational pull of the Earth.
According to Newton’s second law of motion ($F = ma$), a constant net force results in a constant acceleration.
This constant acceleration is known as the acceleration due to gravity, denoted as $g$ (which is approximately 9.8 m/s²).
Because there is no air resistance to counteract gravity as the object speeds up, the acceleration remains completely steady.
Therefore, the acceleration is constant, making Option A the correct choice.

Question 4

Which quantity is equal to gravitational force?
A. gravitational field strength $\times$ mass
B. gravitational field strength $\times$ weight
C. mass per unit weight
D. weight per unit mass

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and weight (State that weight is a gravitational force on an object that has mass; Define gravitational field strength as force per unit mass; recall and use the equation g = W/m)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

In physics, the gravitational force acting on an object is commonly referred to as its weight.
We define the relationship between weight ($W$), mass ($m$), and gravitational field strength ($g$) using the formula $W = m \times g$.
This means that to find the force, we must multiply the mass of the object by the acceleration due to gravity or field strength.
Option B is incorrect because multiplying strength by weight doesn’t yield a standard physical quantity, while options C and D describe ratios rather than the force itself.
Therefore, gravitational force is equal to the product of gravitational field strength and mass, which corresponds to Option A.

Question 5

A concrete building block has the dimensions shown.
The mass of the block is $15000\text{ g}$.
What is the density of the block?
A. $43\text{ g/cm}^3$
B. $2.4\text{ g/cm}^3$
C. $0.42\text{ g/cm}^3$
D. $0.023\text{ g/cm}^3$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.4: Density (Define density as mass per unit volume; recall and use the equation $\rho = \frac{m}{V}$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

First, we need to determine the total volume of the concrete building block using the dimensions provided in the diagram.
The volume of a rectangular block is found by multiplying its length, width, and height ($V = l \times w \times h$).
Next, we use the standard formula for density, which is defined as mass per unit volume ($\rho = \frac{m}{V}$).
We are given the total mass of the block as $15000\text{ g}$.
By dividing this mass by the calculated volume from the diagram, we can easily find the density of the material.
The final calculation yields a density of $2.4\text{ g/cm}^3$, making Option B the correct choice.

Question 6

What is measured by the moment of a force?
A. the acceleration produced by the force
B. the turning effect of the force
C. the time for which the force acts
D. the increase in energy caused by the force

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Describe the moment of a force as a measure of its turning effect and give everyday examples)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

In physics, the moment of a force is defined as the measure of its tendency to cause a body to rotate about a specific point or axis.
Mathematically, the moment is calculated as the product of the force $F$ and the perpendicular distance $d$ from the pivot, expressed as $\text{Moment} = F \times d$.
While acceleration is related to Newton’s Second Law and energy relates to work done, the term “moment” specifically describes the rotational or turning impact.
Therefore, when we calculate the moment, we are quantifying the turning effect of that force on an object.
This leads us directly to Option B as the correct definition.

Question 7

Two identical containers, $P$ and $Q$, are partly filled with different quantities of sand.
The position of the centre of gravity for each container is labelled $X$.
Which container is more stable and what is the reason why it is more stable?
A. $P$ is more stable because it has a lower centre of gravity.
B. $P$ is more stable because it has a smaller mass.
C. $Q$ is more stable because it has a greater depth of sand.
D. $Q$ is more stable because it has a higher centre of gravity.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.3: Centre of gravity (Describe, qualitatively, the effect of the position of the centre of gravity on the stability of simple objects)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The stability of an object generally depends on two main factors: the width of its base and the height of its centre of gravity.
Since containers $P$ and $Q$ are completely identical in shape, they share the exact same base area.
For an object to be more stable and resist toppling over easily, its centre of gravity needs to be as low as possible.
Based on the position $X$ marked in the given scenario, container $P$ has a lower centre of gravity than container $Q$.
Therefore, container $P$ is more stable directly because of this lower centre of gravity, making Option A the correct choice.

Question 8

The diagram shows a steel sphere falling through a cylinder of oil.
Which row indicates what happens to the steel sphere and what happens to the oil as the steel sphere falls?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.1: Energy (Describe how energy is transferred between stores during events and processes, including examples of transfer by forces (mechanical work done) and heating)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

When the steel sphere falls through the viscous oil, it experiences friction (drag) as it moves against the fluid layers.
This friction causes some of the sphere’s kinetic and gravitational potential energy to be converted into thermal energy.
As a result, the internal energy of the steel sphere increases, leading to a rise in its temperature.
Similarly, the work done against the viscous forces of the oil increases the internal energy of the oil as well.
Therefore, both the steel sphere and the oil gain internal energy during the process.
This leads us to the conclusion that row A is the correct answer.

Question 9

A moving object is brought to rest by a frictional force of $30\text{ N}$ over a distance of $5.0\text{ m}$.
The diagram shows the energy transferred between stores.
How much energy is transferred by this force and how is the energy transferred?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.1: Energy (Describe how energy is transferred between stores during events and processes, including examples of transfer by forces (mechanical work done))
TOPIC 1.7.2: Work (Recall and use the equation for mechanical working W = Fd = ∆E)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To find the energy transferred, we use the formula for work done: $W = F \times d$, where $F$ is the force and $d$ is the distance moved in the direction of the force.
Plugging in the given values, we get $30\text{ N} \times 5.0\text{ m} = 150\text{ J}$.
Since friction is the force acting against the motion, the energy is transferred mechanically as work is being done by the force.
The energy initially in the kinetic store of the object is transferred to the thermal store of the surroundings due to friction.
Looking at the table provided, the energy transferred is $150\text{ J}$ and the method of transfer is “mechanically”.
This corresponds correctly with Option D.

Question 10

A motor transfers $24\text{ J}$ of energy in $60\text{ seconds}$.
What is the power output of the motor?
A. $0.40\text{ W}$
B. $2.5\text{ W}$
C. $24\text{ W}$
D. $1400\text{ W}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.4: Power (Define power as work done per unit time and also as energy transferred per unit time; recall and use the equation $P = \frac{\Delta E}{t}$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

To find the power output of the motor, we need to use the relationship between power, energy, and time.
Power is defined as the rate at which energy is transferred or work is done, which is given by the formula $P = \frac{E}{t}$.
We are given that the energy transferred is $E = 24\text{ J}$ and the time taken is $t = 60\text{ s}$.
Substituting these given values into our formula gives $P = \frac{24\text{ J}}{60\text{ s}}$.
Calculating this division yields $P = 0.40\text{ W}$.
Therefore, the motor’s power output is exactly $0.40\text{ W}$, making Option A the correct choice.

Question 11

An artist makes four sculptures with circular bases and places them on sand. All the sculptures are of equal weight and volume.
Which sculpture is least likely to sink into the sand?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.8: Pressure (Define pressure as force per unit area; recall and use the equation p = F / A)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The likelihood of a sculpture sinking into the sand depends on the amount of pressure it exerts on the surface.
Pressure is defined as force per unit area, represented mathematically by the equation $P = \frac{F}{A}$.
Since all the sculptures share an equal weight, they exert the exact same downward force ($F$) onto the sand.
To minimize the pressure and thus be least likely to sink, a sculpture must distribute this constant force over the largest possible base area ($A$).
Sculpture D has the widest circular base, which yields the lowest pressure, making it the correct choice.

Question 12

A quantity of water is boiled to form the same mass of steam.
Which row shows how the volume and density of the water change?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.4: Density (Define density as mass per unit volume; recall and use the equation $\rho = m/V$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

When liquid water turns into steam, the molecules gain energy and move much further apart, which causes the volume of the substance to increase significantly.
Since the mass remains constant as stated in the question, we look at the relationship $\text{density} = \frac{\text{mass}}{\text{volume}}$.
Because the volume increases while the mass stays the same, the density must decrease because the same amount of matter is now spread over a larger space.
In the given table, Row C correctly identifies that the volume increases and the density decreases during this phase change.
Therefore, Option C is the correct choice to describe the transition from water to steam.

Question 13

The diagram represents gas particles moving around in a sealed container.
The gas particles collide with the walls of the container.
The temperature of the gas is increased.
What happens to the average speed of the gas particles and what happens to the number of collisions by the gas particles with the walls of the container?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.1: States of matter (Describe the pressure and the changes in pressure of a gas in terms of the motion of its particles and their collisions with a surface)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When the temperature of a gas in a sealed container is increased, the thermal energy is converted into kinetic energy.
This causes the average speed of the gas particles to increase, meaning they move much faster within the space.
Because the particles are moving faster within the same fixed volume of the container, they will travel between the walls in less time.
Consequently, they will strike the container walls more frequently.
Therefore, both the average speed of the particles and the number of collisions with the walls of the container will increase.
This corresponds to the conditions described in Option B.

Question 14

A metal object is heated strongly in an oven.
What happens to the volume of the object and the internal energy stored in the object?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7: Energy, work and power (State that energy may be stored as … internal (thermal))
TOPIC 2.2: Thermal properties and temperature (Describe, qualitatively, the thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases at constant pressure)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

When a metal object is heated, the atoms gain kinetic energy and vibrate more vigorously, causing them to push slightly further apart. This microscopic behavior leads to thermal expansion, resulting in an increase in the overall volume of the object.
Simultaneously, heating increases the internal energy of the metal, which is the sum of the random kinetic and potential energies of its particles.
Since both the temperature and the average separation of the atoms increase, the internal energy must increase as well.
Looking at the provided table, the row where both volume and internal energy are described as increasing is row D.
Therefore, the correct observation for the heated object is represented by Option D.

Question 15

Which row describes the process of melting?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.3: Melting, boiling and evaporation (Describe melting and boiling in terms of energy input without a change in temperature)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Melting is the physical process where a substance transitions from a solid state to a liquid state due to the absorption of thermal energy.
In the solid state, molecules or atoms are closely packed together in a regular lattice structure and can only vibrate around fixed positions.
As the substance melts, the added energy overcomes the strong intermolecular forces holding the rigid lattice together.
Consequently, in the resulting liquid state, the particles gain more kinetic energy and break free from their fixed positions.
This allows the particles to move more freely and slide past one another, while still remaining relatively close together.
Therefore, the row describing a change from vibrating in fixed positions to moving past one another correctly identifies melting, corresponding to Option D.

Question 16

A beaker of water is heated and thermal energy travels through the water by convection.
What happens to the density of the water when it is heated and how does the water move?
A. The density decreases and the heated water moves downwards.
B. The density decreases and the heated water moves upwards.
C. The density increases and the heated water moves downwards.
D. The density increases and the heated water moves upwards.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.3.2: Convection (Explain convection in liquids and gases in terms of density changes and describe experiments to illustrate convection)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

When water is heated at the bottom of a beaker, the thermal energy causes the water molecules to gain kinetic energy and spread slightly further apart.
This thermal expansion results in an increase in the overall volume of that specific mass of heated water.
Since density is mathematically defined as mass divided by volume ($\rho = \frac{m}{V}$), an increase in volume while the mass remains constant dictates that the density must decrease.
Because this heated water is now less dense than the cooler, denser water surrounding and above it, it experiences an upward buoyant force.
As a result, the less dense, warm water moves upwards towards the surface, which is the primary driving mechanism of convection currents.
Therefore, the density decreases and the heated water moves upwards, perfectly matching Option B.

Question 17

Waves travel across the surface of water.
What is meant by the amplitude of the wave?
A. the maximum distance of a water particle from its mean position
B. how far the wave travels every second
C. the number of waves passing a point every second
D. the distance between the top of consecutive waves

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Describe the features of a wave in terms of wavefront, wavelength, frequency, crest (peak), trough, amplitude and wave speed)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we need to look at the standard definitions of wave properties.
The amplitude is defined as the maximum displacement of a point on the wave from its undisturbed or mean position.
In the context of water waves, this is the furthest distance a water particle moves up or down from its resting level.
Other options describe different properties: Option B is the wave speed, Option C is the frequency, and Option D is the wavelength.
Therefore, the only statement that correctly identifies the amplitude is Option A.
This matches the physical behavior of particles in a transverse wave movement.

Question 18

Water waves change direction when they move from shallow water to deep water.
What is the name of this effect?
A. diffraction
B. dispersion
C. reflection
D. refraction

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Describe how waves can undergo refraction due to a change of speed; describe the use of a ripple tank to show refraction due to a change in speed caused by a change in depth)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

When water waves travel from a region of shallow water into deeper water, their wave speed naturally increases.
This abrupt change in speed across the boundary between the two depths causes the wavefronts to change their direction of propagation.
The phenomenon of a wave bending as it passes from one medium or condition to another is a fundamental wave property.
While diffraction involves spreading around obstacles and reflection is bouncing back, this bending due to a change in wave speed is exclusively known as refraction.
Therefore, the effect depicted in the diagram is refraction, which perfectly aligns with Option D.

Question 19

The ray diagram shows the formation of an image when light is reflected by a plane mirror.
Which lines represent light rays?
A. $X$, $Y$ and $Z$
B. $X$ and $Y$ only
C. $X$ and $Z$ only
D. $Y$ and $Z$ only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light (Describe the formation of an optical image by a plane mirror and give its characteristics, i.e. same size, same distance from mirror, virtual)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In a typical ray diagram for a plane mirror, solid lines are used to represent the actual paths of physical light, while dashed lines represent virtual extensions of these rays.
Looking at the given image, line $Z$ is the incident ray travelling from the real object to the surface of the mirror.
Similarly, line $Y$ is the reflected ray bouncing off the mirror and travelling towards the observer’s eye, meaning both $Y$ and $Z$ exist in real space.
Line $X$, however, is drawn behind the opaque mirror using a dashed line to locate where the virtual image appears to be; it does not represent a real light ray because light cannot pass through the mirror.
Consequently, only lines $Y$ and $Z$ represent actual light rays, making Option D the correct choice.

Question 20

Which diagram shows how an image of an object is formed on a screen by a converging lens?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.3: Thin lenses (Draw and use ray diagrams for the formation of a real image by a converging lens)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To form a real image on a screen using a converging lens, light rays from the object must pass through the lens and converge at a single point on the screen.
We need to follow the standard rules of ray diagrams: a ray parallel to the principal axis passes through the principal focus, and a ray passing through the center of the lens continues undeviated.
In diagram C, we can see that the rays originating from the top of the object accurately converge at a specific point on the screen after passing through the lens.
The other diagrams show rays that either do not converge properly or fail to follow the basic laws of refraction for a convex lens.
Therefore, diagram C is the only one that correctly illustrates the formation of a focused image on the screen.

Question 21

Which diagram shows the dispersion of white light by a glass prism?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.4: Dispersion of light (Describe the dispersion of light as illustrated by the refraction of white light by a glass prism)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

When white light passes through a glass prism, it undergoes a process called dispersion, splitting into its constituent colors.
Because different colors of light have different wavelengths, they travel at slightly different speeds inside the glass and refract (bend) by different amounts.
Red light has the longest wavelength in the visible spectrum and bends the least.
Violet light has the shortest wavelength and bends the most.
Diagram A correctly illustrates this phenomenon, showing the red light bending less than the violet light as it exits the prism.

Question 22

Which regions of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for satellite television and for security marking?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Describe typical uses of the different regions of the electromagnetic spectrum including: microwaves; satellite television… ultraviolet; security marking)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we need to recall the specific applications for different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. Satellite television requires waves that can pass through the Earth’s atmosphere without being reflected, which is a characteristic of microwaves. Security marking, often used on banknotes or IDs, involves materials that glow when exposed to ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Looking at the table provided in the image, microwaves are listed for satellite television and ultraviolet is listed for security marking in the second row. By matching these properties to the options, we can see that row B correctly identifies both uses. Therefore, the correct option is B.

Question 23

The horn on a ship makes a sound. The captain on the ship hears an echo from a cliff $4.0\text{ s}$ later.
The speed of sound is $340\text{ m/s}$.
How far away is the cliff from the ship?
A. $170\text{ m}$
B. $340\text{ m}$
C. $680\text{ m}$
D. $1400\text{ m}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.4: Sound (Describe an echo as the reflection of sound waves)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

When the captain hears an echo, the sound has traveled from the ship to the cliff and back to the ship again.
This means the total distance covered by the sound is $2 \times d$, where $d$ is the distance to the cliff.
We can find the total distance using the formula $v = \frac{\text{total distance}}{t}$, so total distance $= 340\text{ m/s} \times 4.0\text{ s} = 1360\text{ m}$.
To find the distance to the cliff, we divide this total distance by $2$, which gives $d = \frac{1360\text{ m}}{2} = 680\text{ m}$.
Therefore, the cliff is $680\text{ m}$ away from the ship.
This matches Option C.

Question 24

A bar magnet is next to a steel bar. Some of the magnetic field lines due to the magnet are shown.
What are the correct poles of the magnet and would the steel bar attract or repel the bar magnet?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism (Describe the forces between magnetic poles and between magnets and magnetic materials, including the use of the terms north pole (N pole), south pole (S pole), attraction and repulsion, magnetised and unmagnetised)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

To identify the poles, we look at the direction of the magnetic field lines. Since magnetic field lines always point away from the North pole and toward the South pole, the end where lines emerge ($X$) is the North pole and the end where they enter ($Y$) is the South pole.
Next, we consider the interaction with the steel bar. Steel is a ferromagnetic material, which means it becomes an induced magnet when placed in a magnetic field.
The magnetic field from the bar magnet causes the domains in the steel bar to align, creating an opposite pole on the nearest side of the steel.
This induced magnetism always results in a force of attraction between the permanent magnet and the unmagnetized magnetic material.
Therefore, $X$ is North, $Y$ is South, and the bars will attract, which corresponds to Option A.

Question 25

Which row about electrical conduction in metals is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.2: Electric current (Know that electric current in metals is due to a flow of electrons)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

In a metallic conductor, the structure consists of a lattice of positive ions surrounded by a “sea” of delocalized electrons.
When an electric potential difference is applied, it is these free electrons that move through the lattice to create a current.
The positive ions remain fixed in their lattice positions and do not move to conduct electricity.
By convention, the direction of conventional current is from positive to negative, but the actual flow of electrons is from negative to positive.
Therefore, the particles that move are electrons and their direction of flow is towards the positive terminal, which corresponds to row C.

Question 26

The diagram shows three wires, P, Q and R. They are all made from the same metal.
Which list gives the wires in order of resistance, from lowest to highest?
A. P → Q → R
B. Q → R → P
C. R → P → Q
D. R → Q → P

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.4: Resistance (Recall and use the relationship for a metallic electrical conductor: resistance is directly proportional to length and resistance is inversely proportional to cross-sectional area)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Resistance is determined by the formula $R = \rho \frac{L}{A}$, where $\rho$ is the resistivity, $L$ is length, and $A$ is cross-sectional area. Since all wires are the same metal, $\rho$ is constant, so we compare the ratio $L/A$.For wire P, the ratio is $L/A$. For wire Q, which is longer and thinner, the ratio is $2L / (0.5A) = 4(L/A)$, meaning it has the highest resistance.For wire R, which is short and thick, the ratio is $0.5L / 2A = 0.25(L/A)$, giving it the lowest resistance.Ordering these from lowest to highest gives us R ($0.25$), then P ($1$), then Q ($4$).Therefore, the correct sequence is R → P → Q, which matches Option C.

Question 27

A $60\text{ W}$ lamp operates at normal brightness for $2.0\text{ minutes}$.
How much energy is transferred by the lamp?
A. $0.50\text{ J}$
B. $30\text{ J}$
C. $120\text{ J}$
D. $7200\text{ J}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power (Recall and use the equation for electrical energy $E = IVt$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To calculate the energy transferred, we first need to identify the given values: power $P = 60\text{ W}$ and time $t = 2.0\text{ minutes}$.
Since energy is calculated in joules, we must convert the time from minutes to seconds.
There are $60\text{ seconds}$ in a minute, so the time is $t = 2.0 \times 60 = 120\text{ s}$.
Next, we use the formula relating energy, power, and time: $E = P \times t$.
Substituting our values into the equation gives $E = 60\text{ W} \times 120\text{ s} = 7200\text{ J}$.
Therefore, the lamp transfers $7200\text{ J}$ of energy, making Option D the correct answer.

Question 28

What is a thermistor?
A. a container to keep a hot liquid warm
B. a circuit to control room temperature
C. a temperature-dependent resistor
D. a heater for a room

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components (Draw and interpret circuit diagrams containing… thermistors (NTC only)… and know how these components behave in the circuit)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

A thermistor is a specific type of semi-conductor component used in electronic circuits.
The name itself is a combination of the words “thermal” and “resistor,” which hints at its function.
Its electrical resistance changes significantly when there is a change in the surrounding temperature.
For common negative temperature coefficient (NTC) thermistors, the resistance decreases as the temperature increases.
Therefore, it is accurately described as a temperature-dependent resistor, making Option C the correct choice.

Question 29

The diagram shows a circuit containing two identical resistors connected to a battery. The current is measured at $X$ and at $Y$.
Which row is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits (Recall and use in calculations, the fact that the sum of the currents entering a junction in a parallel circuit is equal to the sum of the currents that leave the junction)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Looking at the circuit, we can see that the two identical resistors are connected in parallel with each other. According to Kirchhoff’s first law, the total current leaving the battery splits into the two parallel branches.
Since the resistors are identical, the resistance in each branch is equal, meaning the current will split equally between them.
Point $X$ is located on the main wire before the split, so it measures the total current, while point $Y$ is in one of the parallel branches.
Therefore, the current at $X$ must be twice the current at $Y$ ($I_X = 2 \times I_Y$).
Checking the table, only row D satisfies this relationship with $I_X = 4.0\text{ A}$ and $I_Y = 2.0\text{ A}$.

Question 30

The mains voltage is $120\text{ V}$.
Which fuse should be fitted to an electric kettle with a power of $1.5\text{ kW}$?
A. $3\text{ A}$
B. $5\text{ A}$
C. $10\text{ A}$
D. $13\text{ A}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power (Recall and use the equation for electrical power $P = IV$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To find the correct fuse, we first need to calculate the normal operating current of the kettle using the power formula $P = VI$.
Given the power $P = 1.5\text{ kW} = 1500\text{ W}$ and voltage $V = 120\text{ V}$, the current is $I = \frac{1500}{120} = 12.5\text{ A}$.
A fuse must have a rating slightly higher than the operating current so that it doesn’t melt during normal use but still protects the circuit.
Comparing the options, $13\text{ A}$ is the smallest available rating that is higher than $12.5\text{ A}$.
Therefore, a $13\text{ A}$ fuse is the most appropriate choice to prevent the fuse from blowing unnecessarily.
This corresponds to Option D.

Question 31

The diagrams show a strong magnet and a weak magnet moving into the same coil of wire at different speeds.
Which arrangement induces the largest electromotive force (e.m.f.) and which arrangement induces the smallest e.m.f.?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.1: Electromagnetic induction (State the factors affecting the magnitude of an induced e.m.f.)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

The magnitude of the induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) is determined by the rate at which the magnetic flux linkage changes through the coil.
To induce the largest e.m.f., we need the highest rate of change, which is achieved by using the strong magnet moving at a high speed ($v = 4\text{ m/s}$), corresponding to arrangement $1$.
Conversely, the smallest e.m.f. is induced when the change in flux is slowest, which occurs with the weak magnet moving at the lowest speed ($v = 1\text{ m/s}$), as seen in arrangement $4$.
By comparing the arrangements, $1$ provides the maximum change per second while $4$ provides the minimum.
Therefore, the largest e.m.f. is in arrangement $1$ and the smallest is in arrangement $4$, which matches Option D.

Question 32

The diagrams show a current-carrying wire with an arrow in the direction of the current.
Which diagram shows the magnetic field produced by the current?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.4: Magnetic effects of electric currents (Describe the pattern and direction of the magnetic field due to currents in straight wires)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To determine the direction of the magnetic field around a straight wire, we use the Right-Hand Grip Rule.
Imagine gripping the wire with your right hand so that your thumb points in the direction of the conventional current flow.
Your fingers will then naturally curl in the direction of the magnetic field lines, which form concentric circles around the wire.
In diagram B, the current is moving upward; placing your thumb upward causes your fingers to curl counter-clockwise when viewed from above.
The arrows in diagram B correctly represent this circular field pattern, whereas other diagrams show incorrect field shapes or directions.
Therefore, diagram B is the correct representation of the magnetic field.

Question 33

What are the best materials to use for the construction of a transformer?
A. copper for the core and steel for the coils wound around it
B. copper for the core and copper for the coils wound around it
C. soft iron for the core and copper for the coils wound around it
D. steel for the core and copper for the coils wound around it

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.6: The transformer (Describe the construction of a simple transformer with a soft-iron core, as used for voltage transformations)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To build an efficient transformer, we need materials that minimize energy loss. We use copper for the coils because it has very low electrical resistance, which reduces heat generated by the current. For the core, we use soft iron because it is a “soft” magnetic material that is easily magnetized and demagnetized. This helps reduce energy losses caused by hysteresis during the constant reversals of the magnetic field. Steel is avoided for the core because it is a “hard” magnetic material that retains its magnetism, making it very inefficient for this purpose. Therefore, the combination of a soft iron core and copper coils is the standard choice.

Question 34

Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.1: The atom (Describe the structure of an atom in terms of a positively charged nucleus and negatively charged electrons in orbit around the nucleus)
TOPIC 5.1.2: The nucleus (State the relative charges of protons, neutrons and electrons as +1, 0 and –1 respectively)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

For an atom to be neutral, the total positive charge in the nucleus must be exactly balanced by the total negative charge of the orbiting electrons.
In the nucleus, protons carry a charge of $+1$ and neutrons carry a charge of $0$. Electrons orbiting the nucleus carry a charge of $-1$.
By checking the diagrams, we look for the one where the number of protons equals the number of electrons.
In diagram B, there are $2$ protons and $2$ electrons, meaning the net charge is $(+2) + (-2) = 0$.
Therefore, diagram B correctly represents the structure of a neutral atom.

Question 35

The diagram shows five atoms in a radioactive substance. The atoms each give out an $\alpha$-particle.
Atom $1$ is the first to give out a particle. Atom $3$ is the second to give out a particle.
Which atom will give out the next particle?
A. atom $2$
B. atom $4$
C. atom $5$
D. impossible to tell

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission (Describe the emission of radiation from a nucleus as spontaneous and random in direction)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Radioactive decay is a completely random and spontaneous process at the atomic level.
While we can predict the behavior of a large number of atoms using half-life, we cannot predict when an individual nucleus will decay.
The fact that Atom $1$ and Atom $3$ have already decayed does not provide any information about the sequence of the remaining atoms.
Each remaining nucleus has the same probability of decaying next, regardless of its position or the history of previous decays.
Therefore, it is impossible to tell which specific atom will be the next to emit an $\alpha$-particle.
This leads us to Option D.

Question 36

The diagram shows a radioactive source, a thick aluminium sheet and a radiation detector.
The radiation detector shows a reading greater than the background reading.
Which type of radiation is being emitted by the source and detected by the detector?
A. $\alpha$-radiation
B. $\beta$-radiation
C. $\gamma$-radiation
D. infrared radiation

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2: Radioactivity (Describe the penetration through matter of alpha (α) particles, beta (β) particles and gamma (γ) rays)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To identify the radiation, we look at the penetrating power of each type relative to the thick aluminium sheet.
$\alpha$-particles are stopped by a thin sheet of paper, so they definitely cannot pass through thick aluminium.
$\beta$-particles are typically stopped by a few millimeters of aluminium, meaning they would be blocked by a thick sheet.
$\gamma$-radiation is highly penetrating and can pass through several centimeters of aluminium or even lead.
Since the detector is still showing a reading above background levels, the radiation must have passed through the sheet.
Therefore, the source must be emitting $\gamma$-radiation, which corresponds to Option C.

Question 37

The half-life of the radioactive isotope caesium $_{55}^{137}\text{Cs}$ is $30$ years. Starting with $30\text{ g}$ of the isotope, which mass of the isotope remains after $90$ years?
A. $10.0\text{ g}$
B. $7.50\text{ g}$
C. $3.75\text{ g}$
D. $1.25\text{ g}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.4: Half-life (Calculate the half-life from data or use the half-life to solve problems)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we first find how many half-lives have passed by dividing the total time of $90$ years by the half-life of $30$ years, giving us $3$ half-lives.
After the first half-life ($30$ years), the mass is halved from $30\text{ g}$ to $15\text{ g}$.
After the second half-life ($60$ years), the mass is halved again from $15\text{ g}$ to $7.5\text{ g}$.
After the third half-life ($90$ years), the mass halves one more time from $7.5\text{ g}$ to $3.75\text{ g}$.
Mathematically, this is expressed as $30 \times (\frac{1}{2})^3 = 3.75\text{ g}$.
Therefore, the remaining mass is $3.75\text{ g}$, which corresponds to Option C.

Question 38

Which list gives the names of the planets in the correct order?
A. Mercury, Mars, Earth, Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
B. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Saturn, Uranus, Jupiter, Neptune
C. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
D. Venus, Mars, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.1.2: The Solar System (Describe the Solar System as containing: (b) the eight named planets and know their order from the Sun)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To find the correct order, we list the planets starting from the one closest to the Sun and moving outward.
The four inner terrestrial planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars, followed by the asteroid belt.
Beyond the belt, the gas giants and ice giants appear in the sequence of Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and finally Neptune.
Comparing this sequence to the options provided, Option C follows this exact orbital hierarchy.
A common mnemonic to remember this order is “My Very Educated Mother Just Served Us Noodles.”
This confirms that Option C is the only accurate representation of the solar system’s layout.

Question 39

Which row describes the Sun and the Milky Way?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.2: Stars (State that: galaxies are each made up of many billions of stars; the Sun is a star in the galaxy known as the Milky Way)
TOPIC 6.2.3: The Universe (State that: galaxies are each made up of many billions of stars; the Sun is a star in the galaxy known as the Milky Way)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

To solve this, we need to classify both the Sun and the Milky Way based on astronomical definitions.
The Sun is a medium-sized star located at the center of our solar system, so it is correctly identified as a star.
The Milky Way is the vast collection of billions of stars, gas, and dust that contains our solar system, which defines it as a galaxy.
Looking at the table, Row $C$ correctly identifies the Sun as a star and the Milky Way as a galaxy.
Other options incorrectly classify the Milky Way as a solar system or the Sun as a galaxy.
Therefore, Option $C$ is the only accurate description.

Question 40

What is the approximate diameter of the Milky Way?
A. $100$ light-years
B. $1000$ light-years
C. $10000$ light-years
D. $100000$ light-years

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.3: The Universe (Know that the Milky Way is one of many billions of galaxies making up the Universe and that the diameter of the Milky Way is approximately 100000 light-years)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To answer this, we need to look at the vast scale of our galaxy, the Milky Way. Our galaxy is a barred spiral galaxy containing hundreds of billions of stars and huge amounts of gas and dust. Astronomers have measured its size by tracking the movement of stars and the distribution of cosmic structures. The consensus in astrophysics is that the visible stellar disk spans roughly $100000$ light-years from one edge to the other. While some newer studies suggest the dark matter halo or outer gas may extend further, the standard textbook value for the diameter of the galactic disk is $10^5$ light-years. Therefore, Option D is the most accurate approximation for the Milky Way’s size.

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