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Question 1

Which quantities are both vectors?
A. acceleration and force
B. acceleration and pressure
C. density and force
D. density and pressure

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.1: Physical quantities and measurement techniques (Vector quantities have magnitude and direction)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

A vector quantity is defined as having both magnitude and direction. Acceleration is a vector because it is the rate of change of velocity, which includes direction. Force is also a vector as it is defined by its magnitude and the specific direction in which it acts, represented by $F = ma$. Conversely, density ($\rho = \frac{m}{V}$) and pressure ($p = \frac{F}{A}$) are scalar quantities because they only possess magnitude. Since Option A lists two quantities that both require direction to be fully described, it is the correct choice.

Question 2

How is the deceleration of an object calculated from a speed–time graph?
A. It is the area under the graph.
B. It is the gradient of the graph.
C. It is the difference between two readings on the horizontal (x) axis.
D. It is the difference between two readings on the vertical (y) axis.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.2: Motion (Calculate acceleration from the gradient of a speed-time graph; Know that a deceleration is a negative acceleration)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity per unit time, expressed as a= Δt Δv ​ .
On a speed-time graph, the vertical axis represents speed (v) and the horizontal axis represents time (t).
The gradient (slope) of the line is calculated as run rise ​ , which corresponds to Δtime Δspeed ​ .
Deceleration is simply negative acceleration, occurring when the gradient of the speed-time graph is negative.
Therefore, the magnitude of deceleration is determined by calculating the gradient of the graph.
Option A refers to distance travelled, while options C and D only represent changes in single variables.

Question 3

A space probe that has a mass of $600\text{ kg}$ is on the planet Mars. The acceleration of free fall on Mars is $4.0\text{ m/s}^{2}$. What is the weight of the space probe on Mars?
A. $60\text{ N}$
B. $150\text{ N}$
C. $2400\text{ N}$
D. $6000\text{ N}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.3: Mass and weight (Define gravitational field strength as force per unit mass; recall and use the equation $g = \frac{W}{m}$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Weight is the gravitational force acting on an object with mass. It is calculated using the formula $W = m \times g$, where $m$ is the mass and $g$ is the acceleration of free fall (gravitational field strength).
Given: Mass $m = 600\text{ kg}$ and acceleration of free fall on Mars $g = 4.0\text{ m/s}^{2}$.
Substituting the values into the equation: $W = 600\text{ kg} \times 4.0\text{ m/s}^{2} = 2400\text{ N}$.
Thus, the weight of the space probe on the surface of Mars is $2400\text{ N}$, which corresponds to option C.

Question 4

Students are asked to predict the order in which three liquids, P, Q and R, will float on each other. They are told that the liquids will not mix.
The diagrams show how the density of liquid P is determined.
The table shows the densities of Q and R.
The liquids are poured gently into a tall beaker and allowed to settle.
Which diagram shows the liquids settled in the correct order?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.4: Density (Determine whether one liquid will float on another liquid based on density data)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

First, calculate the density of liquid P using ρ= V m ​ . The mass of liquid P is 69.00 g−45.00 g=24.00 g and its volume is 20 cm 3 , giving ρ P ​ = 20 24.00 ​ =1.2 g/cm 3 .
Comparing all densities: ρ Q ​ =0.75 g/cm 3 , ρ R ​ =1.1 g/cm 3 , and ρ P ​ =1.2 g/cm 3 .
Liquids with lower density float above those with higher density.
The correct order from top to bottom (lowest to highest density) is Q, then R, then P.
This sequence matches diagram C.

Question 5

A force $F$ is applied to a spanner, as shown.
Which action increases the moment of $F$ about the centre of the nut?
A. applying the force $F$ to the right-hand end of the spanner handle
B. applying the force $F$ parallel to the spanner handle
C. spraying oil on the nut
D. using a shorter spanner

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.5.2: Turning effect of forces (Define the moment of a force as $moment = force \times perpendicular\ distance\ from\ the\ pivot$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The moment of a force is defined by the equation $M = F \times d$, where $d$ is the perpendicular distance from the pivot (the nut) to the line of action of the force.
To increase the moment while keeping the force $F$ constant, the distance $d$ must be increased.
Moving the force to the right-hand end of the handle maximizes this distance, thereby increasing the turning effect.
Option B results in zero moment because the force passes through the pivot ($d = 0$), and option D decreases $d$.
Option C affects friction but does not change the calculated moment of the applied force $F$.

Question 6

Diagram 1 shows a ball X of mass $0.15~kg$ travelling horizontally with a velocity of $2.1~m/s$ towards ball Y travelling at $0.4~m/s$ in the opposite direction.
Diagram 2 shows the velocities of the balls immediately after they collide.
What is the mass of ball Y?
A. $0.15~kg$
B. $0.19~kg$
C. $0.35~kg$
D. $0.79~kg$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.6: Momentum (Apply the principle of the conservation of momentum to solve simple problems in one dimension)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Using the principle of conservation of momentum, total initial momentum equals total final momentum: $m_x u_x + m_y u_y = m_x v_x + m_y v_y$.
Taking the right direction as positive: $m_x = 0.15~kg$, $u_x = 2.1~m/s$, $u_y = -0.4~m/s$, $v_x = -1.4~m/s$, and $v_y = 1.1~m/s$.
Substituting the values: $(0.15 \times 2.1) + (m_y \times -0.4) = (0.15 \times -1.4) + (m_y \times 1.1)$.
$0.315 – 0.4m_y = -0.21 + 1.1m_y$.
Rearranging gives $0.315 + 0.21 = 1.1m_y + 0.4m_y$, which simplifies to $0.525 = 1.5m_y$.
Solving for $m_y$: $m_y = \frac{0.525}{1.5} = 0.35~kg$.

Question 7

A mass is suspended from a vertical spring. The mass is pulled downwards causing the spring to extend further. The mass is held in this position and then released.
Which energy changes occur during the initial movement of the mass when the mass is released?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.1: Energy (Energy transferred between stores)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

When released from the lowest point, the mass moves upwards. Since the height $h$ increases, the gravitational potential energy ($\Delta E_{p} = mg\Delta h$) increases.
The mass accelerates from rest, so its velocity $v$ increases, causing the kinetic energy ($E_{k} = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$) to increase.
The spring’s extension $x$ decreases as it returns toward its equilibrium position, leading to a decrease in the elastic potential energy ($E_{e} = \frac{1}{2}kx^{2}$).
Therefore, the correct sequence of energy changes is GPE increases, KE increases, and EPE decreases, matching row D.

Question 8

Which energy resource stores kinetic energy?
A. coal
B. nuclear fission
C. solar
D. wind

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.7.1: Energy (Energy may be stored as kinetic)
TOPIC 1.7.3: Energy resources (Describe how electrical power is generated)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Kinetic energy is the energy an object possesses due to its motion, defined by $E_{k} = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$.
Wind is the movement of air masses; therefore, the energy resource itself consists of moving matter with velocity $v$.
In contrast, coal stores energy as chemical energy, and nuclear fission involves energy stored within the atomic nucleus.
Solar energy is transferred via electromagnetic radiation (light and infrared waves) rather than being stored as bulk motion.
Since wind is the only resource listed that is inherently defined by the motion of mass, it is the correct choice.
Therefore, Option D accurately identifies the resource that stores kinetic energy.

Question 9

Two beakers are filled to the same depth, one with water and one with oil.
The density of water is $1000~kg/m^{3}$. The density of oil is $920~kg/m^{3}$.
In which position is the pressure the greatest?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 1.8: Pressure (Recall and use the equation $\Delta p = \rho g \Delta h$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The pressure in a liquid is calculated using the formula $p = \rho g h$, where $\rho$ is density, $g$ is gravitational field strength, and $h$ is depth.
Pressure increases with depth, so positions B and D at the bottom of the beakers will have higher pressure than A and C.
Since both liquids have the same depth $h$, the pressure depends entirely on the density $\rho$ of the liquid.
Water has a higher density ($\rho_{water} = 1000~kg/m^{3}$) compared to oil ($\rho_{oil} = 920~kg/m^{3}$), leading to greater pressure.
Therefore, the pressure is greatest at the bottom of the water beaker, which is position B.

Question 10

The pressure of the air in a car tyre rises after a long journey. This is caused by a change in the average speed of the air particles and a change in the temperature of the air in the tyre.

Which row describes the changes that have caused the air pressure in the tyre to rise?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.2: Particle model (Relationship between motion of particles and temperature)
TOPIC 2.2.2: Specific heat capacity (Increase in temperature and average kinetic energies)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

According to the kinetic particle model, the temperature of a gas is a measure of the average kinetic energy ($E_{k} = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$) of its particles. During a long journey, friction between the tyre and the road transfers energy to the air inside, increasing its temperature. As temperature increases, the average speed $v$ of the air particles also increases. These faster-moving particles collide with the tyre walls more frequently and with greater force, resulting in an increase in pressure. Therefore, both the average speed and the temperature must increase to cause the observed rise in pressure.

Question 11

In which range of temperatures is water a liquid?
A. $0\text{ K}$ to $100\text{ K}$
B. $0\text{ K}$ to $273\text{ K}$
C. $100\text{ K}$ to $373\text{ K}$
D. $273\text{ K}$ to $373\text{ K}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.3: Gases and the absolute scale of temperature (Convert temperatures between kelvin and degrees Celsius)
TOPIC 2.2.3: Melting, boiling and evaporation (Know the melting and boiling temperatures for water)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Water exists as a liquid between its melting point ($0^{\circ}\text{C}$) and its boiling point ($100^{\circ}\text{C}$) at standard atmospheric pressure.
To convert these values to the Kelvin scale, we use the formula $T\text{ (in K)} = \theta\text{ (in }^{\circ}\text{C)} + 273$.
The melting point in Kelvin is $0 + 273 = 273\text{ K}$, and the boiling point is $100 + 273 = 373\text{ K}$.
Therefore, water is in the liquid state within the temperature range of $273\text{ K}$ to $373\text{ K}$.
Option D correctly identifies this specific interval on the absolute temperature scale.

Question 12

The diagram represents the particle arrangements in samples of three different substances, $P$, $Q$ and $R$.
The samples have equal volumes and the same temperature.
They are heated by the same temperature increase and no changes of state take place.
Which row shows possible percentage increases in volume for the three samples?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.1.2: Particle model (Particle structure of solids, liquids and gases)
TOPIC 2.2.1: Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases (Relative order of magnitudes of expansion)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Based on the particle diagrams, substance $Q$ is a solid (regularly arranged), $P$ is a liquid (randomly arranged but touching), and $R$ is a gas (widely spaced).
Gases expand significantly more than liquids, and liquids expand more than solids for the same temperature increase.
Therefore, the order of percentage increase in volume must be: $\text{Gas } (R) > \text{Liquid } (P) > \text{Solid } (Q)$.
Comparing the values: $7.2\% > 1.9\% > 0.066\%$.
This matches Row C, where $R = 7.2\%$, $P = 1.9\%$, and $Q = 0.066\%$.

Question 13

A cup contains $0.25$ kg of water at $60$ °C. Some time later, the water has cooled to $20$ °C.
How much energy has been transferred from the water to the surroundings?
(The specific heat capacity of water is $4200$ J / (kg °C).)
A. $21\,000$ J
B. $42\,000$ J
C. $63\,000$ J
D. $84\,000$ J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.2: Specific heat capacity (Recall and use the equation $\Delta E = mc\Delta\theta$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The energy transferred ($\Delta E$) during a temperature change is calculated using the formula $\Delta E = mc\Delta\theta$.
The mass of the water $m$ is $0.25$ kg, and the specific heat capacity $c$ is $4200$ J / (kg °C).
The change in temperature $\Delta\theta$ is the difference between the initial and final temperatures: $60$ °C $- 20$ °C $= 40$ °C.
Substituting these values into the equation: $\Delta E = 0.25 \times 4200 \times 40$.
This simplifies to $\Delta E = 1050 \times 40$, which equals $42\,000$ J.
Therefore, $42\,000$ J of thermal energy was transferred to the surroundings, matching option B.

Question 14

A pure substance is heated slowly. The temperature of the substance is measured as it starts to melt and when it finishes melting. Which statement is correct?
A. The temperature decreases slightly as the substance melts.
B. The temperature fluctuates as the substance melts.
C. The temperature increases as the substance melts.
D. The temperature stays the same as the substance melts.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.2.3: Melting, boiling and evaporation (Describe melting and boiling in terms of energy input without a change in temperature)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

When a pure solid reaches its melting point, the thermal energy provided is used to overcome the intermolecular forces holding the particles in a fixed lattice.
During this phase change, the internal potential energy of the particles increases, but their average kinetic energy remains constant.
Since temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles, the temperature does not rise during the transition from solid to liquid.
This plateau on a heating curve continues until the entire substance has finished melting.
Therefore, for a pure substance, the temperature remains at a constant value $T_{melt}$ throughout the melting process.
Consequently, statement D is the only correct description of this physical phenomenon.

Question 15

A lamp has a metal filament that glows when heated by an electric current.
The middle of the filament has a very high temperature. The ends of the filament are connected to the base of the lamp and are cooler.
Which statement is correct?
A. Some thermal energy is conducted to the base of the lamp.
B. The filament radiates energy equally at all points along its length.
C. The lamp transfers all of the input energy as visible light.
D. When the potential difference (p.d.) across the filament is halved, the power output is halved.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.3.1: Conduction (Thermal conduction in solids)
TOPIC 2.3.3: Radiation (Rate of emission depends on surface temperature)
TOPIC 4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power ($P = \frac{V^{2}}{R}$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Thermal energy naturally flows from regions of higher temperature to lower temperature via conduction through solids.
Since the middle of the filament is at a very high temperature and the ends are cooler, energy is conducted toward the base.
Option B is incorrect because the rate of radiation depends on temperature; therefore, the hotter middle radiates more energy than the cooler ends.
Option C is incorrect as energy is also transferred via infrared radiation (heat) and conduction, not just visible light.
Option D is incorrect because power is proportional to the square of the voltage, $P = \frac{V^{2}}{R}$.
If the potential difference $V$ is halved to $\frac{V}{2}$, the power output becomes $\frac{1}{4}$ of its original value, assuming resistance $R$ is constant.

Question 16

A liquid passes through pipes inside a refrigerator. The liquid warms as the inside of the refrigerator cools. The warm liquid is then passed through pipes on the outside of the refrigerator to cool it before it goes back through the refrigerator.
The diagrams show two designs for the outside cooling pipes. One design has copper rods, called fins, attached to the pipes.
The outside pipes and fins can be painted silver or black.
Which design of outside pipes will cool the liquid most quickly?
A. painted black with fins
B. painted black without fins
C. painted silver with fins
D. painted silver without fins

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 2.3.3: Radiation (Effect of surface colour and texture on emission)
TOPIC 2.3.4: Consequences of thermal energy transfer (Everyday applications)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

To cool the liquid quickly, the rate of thermal energy transfer to the surroundings must be maximized. Surface color significantly affects this; dull black surfaces are the best emitters of infrared radiation compared to shiny silver ones. Additionally, attaching copper fins increases the total surface area $A$ available for both radiation and convection. Since the rate of emission is directly proportional to the surface area, the design with fins provides a higher cooling rate. Therefore, the combination of a black surface for high emissivity and fins for increased area ensures the most rapid cooling.

Question 17

An earthquake-monitoring station records the arrival of 16 complete wavelengths of an earthquake wave in a time of 20 s.
The speed of the earthquake wave is 6.0 km/s.
What is the wavelength of the earthquake wave?
A. 1.3×10 −4 m
B. 2.1×10 −4 m
C. 4.8×10 3 m
D. 7.5×10 3 m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Recall and use the equation for wave speed v=fλ)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

First, determine the frequency f of the wave using the formula f= time taken number of waves ​ .
Given 16 waves in 20 s, f= 20 16 ​ =0.8 Hz.
Next, convert the wave speed v from km/s to m/s: v=6.0 km/s=6000 m/s.
Using the wave equation v=fλ, rearrange it to solve for wavelength: λ= f v ​ .
Substituting the values, λ= 0.8 6000 ​ =7500 m.
In scientific notation, this is expressed as 7.5×10 3 m, which matches option D.

Question 18

Which statement is correct?
A. Seismic S-waves are longitudinal.
B. Sound waves are longitudinal.
C. The amplitude is always greater than the wavelength in a longitudinal wave.
D. The vibration is at right-angles to the direction of propagation in a longitudinal wave.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.1: General properties of waves (Distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves)
TOPIC 3.4: Sound (Describe the longitudinal nature of sound waves)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

In a longitudinal wave, the vibration of particles is parallel to the direction of energy transfer (propagation).
Sound waves are the primary example of longitudinal waves as they consist of compressions and rarefactions.
Option A is incorrect because seismic S-waves are transverse, meaning vibrations occur at $90^{\circ}$ to propagation.
Option D is incorrect because it describes a transverse wave, not a longitudinal one.
Option C is a false generalization; amplitude and wavelength $\lambda$ are independent physical properties of a wave.
Therefore, statement B is the only scientifically accurate description provided.

Question 19

A water droplet is falling towards a horizontal plane mirror. At one moment, the droplet is a distance of $1.5 \text{ m}$ above the mirror and falling at a speed of $2.0 \text{ m/s}$.

What is the distance between the droplet and its image and what is the speed of the image at this moment?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.1: Reflection of light (Characteristics of an optical image formed by a plane mirror)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

In a plane mirror, the image is the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of it. Since the droplet is $1.5 \text{ m}$ above the mirror, the image is $1.5 \text{ m}$ below it, making the total distance $1.5 \text{ m} + 1.5 \text{ m} = 3.0 \text{ m}$. The speed of the image relative to the mirror is identical to the speed of the object relative to the mirror, which is $2.0 \text{ m/s}$. While the relative speed between the droplet and image is $4.0 \text{ m/s}$, the question asks for the “speed of the image,” which is measured relative to the mirror. Thus, the correct values are $3.0 \text{ m}$ and $2.0 \text{ m/s}$.

Question 20

Total internal reflection may occur when light reaches an air–glass boundary.
Under which conditions is light totally internally reflected?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.2: Refraction of light (Describe internal reflection and total internal reflection)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Total internal reflection (TIR) occurs only when light travels from an optically denser medium to a less dense medium, such as from glass to air.
For TIR to happen, the angle of incidence $i$ must be greater than the critical angle $c$ for that specific boundary, such that $i > c$.
In this scenario, glass is the denser medium ($n_{glass} \approx 1.5$) compared to air ($n_{air} \approx 1.0$).
If the light starts in air (options A and B), it is entering a denser medium and will only undergo refraction toward the normal.
Therefore, the light must be traveling in glass and the angle of incidence must exceed the critical angle.
This corresponds precisely to the conditions described in Row C.

Question 21

A long-sighted person cannot see objects clearly that are a short distance away because the image is blurred.
Where is the image formed relative to the retina and which type of lens is used to correct long-sightedness?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.3: Thin lenses (Describe the use of converging and diverging lenses to correct long-sightedness and short-sightedness)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

In a long-sighted eye, the lens system is too weak or the eyeball is too short, causing light rays from near objects to focus behind the retina.
To correct this, the overall refractive power of the eye must be increased to bring the focal point forward.
A converging lens (convex lens) is used because it provides additional refraction, bending the rays inward before they enter the eye.
This ensures that the light rays converge exactly on the retina, producing a sharp image for close-up vision.
Therefore, Row A correctly identifies both the image position and the required corrective lens type.

Question 22

What is the speed of infrared radiation in glass with a refractive index of 1.5?
A. 340 m/s
B. 2.0×10 8 m/s
C. 3.0×10 8 m/s
D. 4.5×10 8 m/s

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.2.2: Refraction of light (Define refractive index, n, as the ratio of the speeds of a wave in two different regions)
TOPIC 3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum (Speed of electromagnetic waves in a vacuum is 3.0×10 8 m/s)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Infrared radiation is an electromagnetic wave, which travels at the speed of light in a vacuum, c=3.0×10 8 m/s.
The refractive index n of a medium is defined by the ratio n= v c ​ , where v is the speed in the medium.
Rearranging the formula to solve for the speed in glass, we get v= n c ​ .
Substituting the given values, v= 1.5 3.0×10 8 m/s ​ .
This calculation yields v=2.0×10 8 m/s.
Therefore, option B is the correct speed of the radiation within the glass medium.

Question 23

Sound travels through air as a series of compressions and rarefactions. Which statement correctly compares a compression with a rarefaction?
A. In a compression, the wavelength is longer than in a rarefaction.
B. In a compression, the wavelength is shorter than in a rarefaction.
C. In a compression, the density of the air is greater than in a rarefaction.
D. In a compression, the density of the air is lower than in a rarefaction.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 3.4: Sound (Describe compression and rarefaction)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Sound is a longitudinal wave consisting of oscillations in the medium’s pressure and density.
A compression is a region where the particles are pushed closer together, resulting in high pressure and a higher density ($\rho$).
Conversely, a rarefaction is a region where the particles are spread further apart, leading to low pressure and a lower density.
Wavelength ($\lambda$) is defined as the distance between two successive compressions or rarefactions, not a property of a single region.
Thus, the density of air is greater in a compression than in a rarefaction, making option C the correct choice.

Question 24

Which statements about magnets are correct?
1. Permanent magnets are made of steel.
2. Electromagnets are temporary magnets.
3. A magnet can be used to induce magnetism in an iron bar.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism (Induced magnetism; Properties of temporary and permanent magnets)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Statement $1$ is correct because steel is a hard magnetic material used to make permanent magnets as it retains magnetism well. Statement $2$ is correct as electromagnets consist of a coil around a soft iron core, which only acts as a magnet when an electric current $I$ flows, making them temporary. Statement $3$ is correct because a process called magnetic induction allows a permanent magnet to align the magnetic domains in a nearby unmagnetised iron bar. Since all three statements are scientifically accurate according to the syllabus, the correct choice is $1, 2 \text{ and } 3$.

Question 25

In a circuit, two identical lamps are in parallel. The parallel pair of lamps is in series with a resistor and a battery.
The battery does $120\text{ J}$ of work moving $50\text{ C}$ of charge around the circuit in time $t$.
In each lamp, $40\text{ J}$ of work is done by the charge that passes through it in time $t$.
The electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery is $E$ and the potential difference (p.d.) across one lamp is $V$.
Which statement about $E$ and $V$ is correct?
A. $E$ is $2.4\text{ V}$ and $V$ is $0.80\text{ V}$
B. $E$ is $2.4\text{ V}$ and $V$ is $1.6\text{ V}$
C. $E$ is $4.8\text{ V}$ and $V$ is $2.4\text{ V}$
D. $E$ is $4.8\text{ V}$ and $V$ is $4.8\text{ V}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.3: Electromotive force and potential difference ($E=\frac{W}{Q}$ and $V=\frac{W}{Q}$)
TOPIC 4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits (p.d. across parallel branches)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The e.m.f. ($E$) is the work done per unit charge by the source: $E = \frac{W_{total}}{Q} = \frac{120\text{ J}}{50\text{ C}} = 2.4\text{ V}$.
To find the p.d. ($V$) across one lamp, we first determine the charge $Q_{L}$ passing through each lamp.
Since the lamps are identical and in parallel, the total charge $50\text{ C}$ splits equally, so $Q_{L} = \frac{50\text{ C}}{2} = 25\text{ C}$.
The p.d. across one lamp is the work done per unit charge through that lamp: $V = \frac{W_{lamp}}{Q_{L}} = \frac{40\text{ J}}{25\text{ C}} = 1.6\text{ V}$.
In a parallel arrangement, the p.d. across each branch is the same, so $V$ remains $1.6\text{ V}$ for the pair.
Thus, $E = 2.4\text{ V}$ and $V = 1.6\text{ V}$, which corresponds to option B.

Question 26

Two wires, $X$ and $Y$, are made from the same metal and have the same resistance. Which row identifies a possible pair of values for $X$ and for $Y$?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.2.4: Resistance (Relationship of the resistance of a metallic wire to its length and to its cross-sectional area)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

Resistance $R$ is proportional to length $L$ and inversely proportional to cross-sectional area $A$, where $A = \frac{\pi d^{2}}{4}$. Thus, $R \propto \frac{L}{d^{2}}$.
For wires $X$ and $Y$ to have the same resistance ($R_{X} = R_{Y}$), the ratio $\frac{L_{X}}{d_{X}^{2}}$ must equal $\frac{L_{Y}}{d_{Y}^{2}}$.
The length of $Y$ ($200\text{ cm}$) is $4$ times the length of $X$ ($50\text{ cm}$), so $L_{Y} = 4L_{X}$.
To keep resistance constant, $d_{Y}^{2}$ must also be $4$ times $d_{X}^{2}$, meaning $d_{Y} = \sqrt{4} \times d_{X} = 2d_{X}$.
Given $d_{X} = 0.40\text{ mm}$, the diameter of $Y$ must be $0.40\text{ mm} \times 2 = 0.80\text{ mm}$.
This matches the values provided in Row C.

Question 27

Which circuit contains a light-dependent resistor (LDR)?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components (LDR symbol and behavior)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

An LDR (light-dependent resistor) is represented by a standard rectangle symbol for a resistor with two incoming arrows pointing toward it, symbolizing light energy falling on the component.
In Circuit A, the diagonal arrow through the rectangle represents a variable resistor, where resistance is manually adjusted.
In Circuit B, the rectangle with a flat-bottomed diagonal line represents a thermistor, which changes resistance based on temperature.
In Circuit C, the rectangle with internal vertical bars represents a heater component.
Circuit D correctly displays the LDR symbol, indicating its resistance will decrease as the light intensity increases.
Therefore, Circuit D is the only diagram containing a light-dependent resistor as per the IGCSE standard symbols.

Question 28

A teacher asks three students to write down an equation to determine the combined resistance $R_{C}$ of resistors with resistances $R_{Y}$ and $R_{Z}$.

Which students are correct?
student 1: $\frac{1}{R_{C}} = \frac{1}{R_{Y}} + \frac{1}{R_{Z}}$
student 2: $\frac{1}{R_{C}} = \frac{1}{R_{Y} + R_{Z}}$
student 3: $R_{C} = \frac{1}{R_{Y}} + \frac{1}{R_{Z}}$
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits (Calculate the combined resistance of two resistors in parallel)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The diagram shows two resistors, $R_{Y}$ and $R_{Z}$, connected in a parallel arrangement.
For resistors in parallel, the reciprocal of the combined resistance $R_{C}$ is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.
This is mathematically expressed as $\frac{1}{R_{C}} = \frac{1}{R_{Y}} + \frac{1}{R_{Z}}$, which matches the equation provided by student 1.
Student 2 is incorrect because their equation suggests the reciprocal of the sum, which applies to neither standard circuit type.
Student 3 is incorrect because they equated the total resistance directly to the sum of reciprocals without taking the final reciprocal.
Therefore, only student 1 has provided the correct relationship for a parallel circuit.

Question 29

An electrical appliance has a symbol on it to indicate it is double-insulated. Which statement is correct?
A. A two-core, flexible cable with no earth wire is used to connect it to the mains supply.
B. It needs an earth wire that is connected to a fuse.
C. No fuse or circuit breaker is needed.
D. The cable should be connected to the live and earth connectors of the plug but not the neutral.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.4: Electrical safety (Explain why the outer casing of an electrical appliance must be either non-conducting (double-insulated) or earthed)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

Double-insulated appliances are designed with non-conducting outer casings, such as plastic, which act as a second layer of insulation.
Because the casing cannot become live even if an internal fault occurs, an earth wire is not required for safety.
Consequently, these appliances use a two-core cable containing only the live and neutral wires, with $0$ earth connection.
A fuse is still necessary in the live wire to protect the circuit from excess current, making option C incorrect.
Option D is incorrect because every appliance requires a neutral wire to complete the circuit and allow current to flow.
Thus, option A is the only statement that correctly describes the wiring of a double-insulated device.

Question 30

A length of wire moves across the space between the poles of a magnet. A voltmeter measures the electromotive force (e.m.f.) generated between the two ends of the wire.

What gives the highest reading on the voltmeter?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.1: Electromagnetic induction (State the factors affecting the magnitude of an induced e.m.f.)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

Electromagnetic induction occurs when a conductor cuts through magnetic field lines, inducing an $e.m.f.$.
The magnitude of this induced $e.m.f.$ is directly proportional to the rate at which the magnetic flux is cut.
Increasing the speed of the wire increases the rate of cutting, leading to a higher voltmeter reading.
Using a stronger magnet increases the density of field lines, meaning more lines are cut per second.
Therefore, the maximum $e.m.f.$ is generated when the wire moves fast through a strong magnetic field.
This makes Row B the correct choice for obtaining the highest reading.

Question 31

The diagram shows a simple a.c. generator.
What is connected to G and H so that alternating current can be provided to an external circuit?
A. cell
B. commutator
C. slip rings
D. soft iron core

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.3: Magnetic effort of a current (Describe a simple form of a.c. generator and the use of slip rings and brushes)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: C

Detailed solution:

A simple alternating current (a.c.) generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
As the coil rotates within the magnetic field, the magnetic flux linkage changes, inducing an electromotive force ($e.m.f.$).
To maintain an alternating output in the external circuit, the ends of the coil must stay connected to the same side of the circuit throughout the rotation.
This is achieved using slip rings, which allow the induced current to reverse direction every half-turn ($180^{\circ}$).
In contrast, a commutator is used in d.c. motors or generators to reverse connections and provide unidirectional current.
Therefore, slip rings must be connected at points $G$ and $H$ to provide an a.c. output.

Question 32

The diagrams show the coil in a d.c. electric motor in two positions. As the coil rotates through $180^{\circ}$, the direction of the current in the coil reverses from $PQRS$ to $SRQP$.
Which part of the motor is responsible for reversing the current?
A. the brushes
B. the coil
C. the magnets
D. the split-ring commutator

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 4.5.5: The d.c. motor (Describe the operation of an electric motor, including the action of a split-ring commutator and brushes)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

To ensure a d.c. motor continues to rotate in one direction, the force on the coil must be reversed every half-turn ($180^{\circ}$).
The split-ring commutator is the specific component designed to reverse the direction of the current in the coil at this interval.
As the coil passes the vertical position, the gaps in the split ring align with the brushes, momentarily breaking the circuit.
Upon further rotation, each half of the commutator connects with the opposite brush, reversing the current flow from $PQRS$ to $SRQP$.
This reversal maintains a constant direction of the turning effect (torque) acting on the coil.
While the brushes provide the electrical contact, the “splitting” mechanism of the commutator is what performs the actual reversal.

Question 33

The arrow shows the path of an $\alpha$-particle travelling towards the centre of a gold nucleus.
Which description of the path of the $\alpha$-particle after striking the gold nucleus is correct?
A. The $\alpha$-particle is deflected through a very small angle towards the top of the page.
B. The $\alpha$-particle is deflected back along its initial path.
C. The $\alpha$-particle carries on in a straight line with no deflection.
D. The $\alpha$-particle is captured by the nucleus and goes into orbit around it.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.1: The atom (Describe how the scattering of $\alpha$-particles supports the nuclear model)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

The $\alpha$-particle and the gold nucleus both possess a positive charge ($+2e$ and $+79e$ respectively).
As the $\alpha$-particle travels directly toward the center of the nucleus, it experiences a strong electrostatic force of repulsion.
Since the path is headed straight for the center, the repulsive force acts exactly opposite to the particle’s direction of motion.
This causes the particle to slow down, momentarily stop, and then be repelled directly backward ($180^{\circ}$ deflection).
Option B correctly describes this “back-scattering” effect observed in the Rutherford scattering experiment.
Other paths (A or C) would only occur if the particle was off-center or if the nucleus was not positively charged.

Question 34

A teacher writes the nuclide equation for a fusion reaction:
$$\text{}^{2}_{1}\text{H} + \text{}^{X}_{1}\text{H} \rightarrow \text{}^{4}_{2}\text{Q} + \text{}^{1}_{0}\text{n}$$

What is the missing number $X$ and the missing element $Q$?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.1.2: The nucleus (Use the nuclide notation and describe nuclear fusion)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

In a nuclear equation, the total nucleon number ($A$) and proton number ($Z$) must be conserved.
For the top numbers (nucleon number): $2 + X = 4 + 1$, which simplifies to $2 + X = 5$, giving $X = 3$.
For the bottom numbers (proton number): $1 + 1 = 2 + 0$, which is $2 = 2$, confirming the balance.
The element $Q$ has a proton number ($Z$) of $2$.
Since Helium ($\text{He}$) is the element with $Z = 2$, $Q$ must be $\text{He}$.
Therefore, the missing values are $X = 3$ and $Q = \text{He}$, matching Row D.

Question 35

Radon gas is a source of radiation that contributes to background radiation.
What does not contribute to background radiation?
A. electromagnetic rays
B. food and drink
C. rocks
D. seismic waves

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.1: Detection of radioactivity (Sources of background radiation)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: D

Detailed solution:

Background radiation refers to the low-level ionizing radiation constantly present in the environment from natural and artificial sources. Natural contributors include cosmic rays (high-energy electromagnetic rays and particles), food and drink containing radioactive isotopes like $K-40$, and rocks containing uranium or thorium. Radon gas, mentioned in the stem, is also a primary natural source. Conversely, seismic waves are mechanical waves that travel through the Earth’s layers due to geological activity; they do not involve nuclear decay or ionizing radiation. Therefore, seismic waves do not contribute to the detected count rate of background radiation.

Question 36

Two beams of radiation, P and S, enter an electric field, as shown.
Which types of radiation are P and S?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission (Describe the deflection of $\alpha$-particles, $\beta$-particles and $\gamma$-radiation in electric fields)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The direction of deflection in an electric field depends on the charge of the radiation. Beam P is deflected toward the positive $(+)$ plate, indicating it carries a negative charge; $\beta$-particles (electrons) are negatively charged and thus attracted to the positive plate. Beam S is deflected toward the negative $(-)$ plate, indicating a positive charge; $\alpha$-particles consist of two protons and two neutrons, giving them a $+2e$ charge. Notably, $\beta$-particles show a larger deflection than $\alpha$-particles because they have a much smaller mass. $\gamma$-radiation carries no charge and would travel straight through without any deflection.

Question 37

Which change takes place in the nucleus when it decays by beta ($\beta$) emission?
A. neutron + electron $\rightarrow$ proton
B. neutron $\rightarrow$ proton + electron
C. proton + electron $\rightarrow$ neutron
D. proton $\rightarrow$ neutron + electron

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 5.2.3: Radioactive decay (The following change in the nucleus occurs during $\beta$-emission: $neutron \rightarrow proton + electron$)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

In beta ($\beta^-$) decay, an unstable nucleus typically has an excess of neutrons.
To reach a more stable state, a neutron within the nucleus transforms into a proton.
During this process, a high-energy electron (the beta particle) is emitted from the nucleus.
The nuclear equation for this fundamental change is represented as: $n \rightarrow p + e^-$.
This results in the atomic number $Z$ increasing by $1$, while the nucleon number $A$ remains constant.
Therefore, the correct description of the change is $neutron \rightarrow proton + electron$.

Question 38

A space probe measures the gravitational field strength at four different distances from a planet. The point furthest from the planet is measured first and the point nearest the planet is measured last. In which order were the measurements taken?
A. $6.3\text{ N/kg}, 10\text{ N/kg}, 14\text{ N/kg}, 20\text{ N/kg}$
B. $10\text{ N/kg}, 14\text{ N/kg}, 6.3\text{ N/kg}, 20\text{ N/kg}$
C. $20\text{ N/kg}, 14\text{ N/kg}, 6.3\text{ N/kg}, 10\text{ N/kg}$
D. $20\text{ N/kg}, 14\text{ N/kg}, 10\text{ N/kg}, 6.3\text{ N/kg}$

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.1.2: The Solar System (Know that the strength of the gravitational field around a planet decreases as the distance from the planet increases)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

The gravitational field strength $g$ around a planet is inversely related to the distance from the planet’s center. As the distance increases, the value of $g$ decreases. The problem states the probe starts at the point furthest from the planet (lowest $g$) and moves toward the point nearest the planet (highest $g$). Consequently, the measured values must appear in increasing order. Comparing the options, only Option A shows a sequence where values rise from $6.3\text{ N/kg}$ to $20\text{ N/kg}$. Therefore, Option A correctly represents the order of measurements taken by the probe.

Question 39

The galaxy Draco II is a distance of 6.6×10 20 m from Earth.
What is this distance in light-years?
A. 1.4×10 4 light-years
B. 6.9×10 4 light-years
C. 1.4×10 6 light-years
D. 6.9×10 6 light-years

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.2: Stars (Define light-year; 1 light-year=9.5×10 15 m)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: B

Detailed solution:

To convert a distance from meters to light-years, we use the defined value for one light-year: 1 ly=9.5×10 15 m.
The distance d in light-years is calculated by dividing the total distance in meters by the value of one light-year.
Distance in ly= 9.5×10 15 m/ly 6.6×10 20 m ​ .
Performing the division: 9.5 6.6 ​ ≈0.6947 and 10 15 10 20 ​ =10 5 .
This results in 0.6947×10 5 , which simplifies in standard form to 6.9×10 4 light-years.
Therefore, Option B is the correct numerical value for this astronomical distance.

Question 40

What is a possible result of a supernova explosion?
A. a neutron star
B. a red giant star
C. a red supergiant star
D. a white dwarf star

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625):

TOPIC 6.2.2: Stars (Describe the life cycle of a star)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: A

Detailed solution:

A supernova occurs at the end of the life cycle of a high-mass star.
After a red supergiant exhausts its nuclear fuel, it collapses and explodes as a supernova.
This violent explosion leaves behind a dense remnant at the center.
Depending on the remaining mass, the remnant becomes either a neutron star or a black hole.
Options B and C are stages that occur before the explosion, while option D is the remnant of a low-mass star.
Thus, a neutron star is the only possible result of a supernova listed here.

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