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Question 1

The diagram shows how an aquatic carnivorous bladderwort plant reacts to tiny aquatic organisms that swim by.

Which characteristics of living organisms are shown by this plant?

A. excretion and growth
B. growth and sensitivity
C. nutrition and excretion
D. nutrition and sensitivity

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — sensitivity and nutrition defined.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The bladderwort detects a nearby swimming animal and traps it, showing sensitivity — the ability to detect and respond to a stimulus.
It then digests the trapped animal, absorbing nutrients from it, which shows nutrition — taking in materials for energy and growth.
No excretion or growth process is described in the diagram.
Answer: (D)

Question 2

Which structure is found inside some living plant cells but not in animal cells?

A. cell membrane
B. chloroplast
C. nucleus
D. stomata

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — comparing plant and animal cell structures.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cell membrane and nucleus are present in both plant and animal cells.
Stomata are found on leaves, not inside individual cells.
Chloroplasts are only found in plant cells (and some other photosynthetic organisms), never in animal cells.
Answer: (B)

Question 3

Tests are carried out on a colourless liquid. The results are shown.

Which food groups does the liquid contain?

A. protein and fat
B. protein and starch
C. reducing sugar and fat
D. starch and fat

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — food tests for proteins and fats.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A purple colour with the biuret test confirms the presence of protein.
A white emulsion with the ethanol test confirms the presence of fat.
Iodine staying brown (not blue-black) shows starch is absent.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

The graph shows the rate at which 10 g of starch is broken down by amylase at four different temperatures.

At which temperature does amylase work best to break down starch?

A. 10 °C
B. 25 °C
C. 40 °C
D. 70 °C

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — effect of temperature on enzyme activity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The graph shows starch mass falling fastest (steepest decline) at \( 40\,^\circ\text{C} \), meaning amylase is breaking it down quickest at that temperature.
At \( 10\,^\circ\text{C} \) and \( 25\,^\circ\text{C} \) the enzyme has low kinetic energy so the reaction is slow.
At \( 70\,^\circ\text{C} \) the enzyme is denatured, so little or no starch is broken down.
Answer: (C)

Question 5

Why are nitrate ions necessary for plant growth?

A. They are essential for producing starch.
B. They are found in the chloroplasts.
C. They are part of the cell sap.
D. They are used in making amino acids.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — importance of nitrate ions for making amino acids.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Nitrate ions are absorbed from the soil by plant roots.
They are combined with sugars produced in photosynthesis to make amino acids, which are then built into proteins.
Nitrate ions are not needed to make starch, are not found in chloroplasts, and are not part of the cell sap.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

Which statements about chemical digestion are correct?

  1. It breaks food into smaller pieces.
  2. It converts small molecules into larger ones.
  3. It produces molecules that can be absorbed.
  4. It produces small molecules.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.3: Digestion — chemical digestion breaks down large insoluble molecules into small soluble molecules that can be absorbed.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chemical digestion breaks large insoluble molecules down into small, soluble molecules using enzymes.
These small molecules can then be absorbed into the blood through the wall of the small intestine.
Breaking food into smaller pieces without chemical change is physical digestion (statement 1), and chemical digestion never makes molecules larger (statement 2), so only 3 and 4 are correct.
Answer: (D)

Question 7

The arrows in the diagram represent blood vessels.
Which vessel is the pulmonary vein?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B9.3: Blood vessels — identifying the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein to and from the lungs.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart.
Veins carry blood towards the heart, so the correct vessel is the one with its arrow pointing from the lungs into the heart.
This corresponds to vessel B in the diagram.
Answer: (B)

Question 8

Which process provides the energy for the maintenance of a constant body temperature?

A. homeostasis
B. photosynthesis
C. respiration
D. sweating

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — energy released is used for the maintenance of a constant body temperature.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Respiration is the chemical reaction in cells that breaks down nutrient molecules and releases energy.
This released energy is used for processes including maintaining a constant body temperature.
Homeostasis is the overall regulation process, photosynthesis makes food in plants, and sweating cools the body rather than providing energy.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

The graph shows the pulse rate over a period of time.
At which point is adrenaline released into the blood?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.2: Hormones — adrenaline increases heart rate in “fight or flight” situations.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Adrenaline is released in “fight or flight” situations and causes an increase in heart rate.
On the graph, this corresponds to the point where the pulse rate begins to rise sharply, which is point A.
At the other points the pulse rate is either already elevated, falling, or steady, not just beginning to increase.
Answer: (A)

Question 10

Which row correctly matches a structure with its function in the human reproductive system?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.4: Sexual reproduction in humans — functions of the parts of the male and female reproductive systems.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The testes are the site of sperm (male gamete) production.
The fetus develops in the uterus (not the cervix), the ovary releases the female gamete (not the oviduct), and it is glands such as the prostate — not the sperm duct itself — that secrete the fluids of semen.
Only the testes-function pairing is correct.
Answer: (D)

Question 11

In terms of the alleles present, which word describes the genetic make-up of an organism?

A. dominant
B. genotype
C. phenotype
D. recessive

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.3: Monohybrid inheritance — genotype described as the genetic make-up of an organism in terms of alleles present.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Genotype is defined as the genetic make-up of an organism in terms of the alleles it carries.
Phenotype instead describes the observable, physical features of an organism.
Dominant and recessive describe types of individual alleles, not the overall genetic make-up.
Answer: (B)

Question 12

The diagram shows a food chain.

grass → rabbit → fox → flea

Which statement is correct?

A. The grass is a primary consumer.
B. The rabbit is a secondary consumer.
C. The fox is a tertiary consumer.
D. The flea is a tertiary consumer.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — producers and primary, secondary and tertiary consumers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Grass is the producer, the rabbit is the primary consumer, the fox is the secondary consumer, and the flea (feeding on the fox) is the tertiary consumer.
So statements A, B and C are all incorrect as worded.
The flea occupies the fourth position in the chain, making it the tertiary consumer.
Answer: (D)

Question 13

A student draws four different attempts at part of the carbon cycle.
Which diagram is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.3: Carbon cycle — photosynthesis, respiration and feeding as carbon transfer processes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Photosynthesis must show carbon dioxide moving from the air into plants, while respiration moves carbon dioxide from both plants and animals back into the air.
Feeding must show carbon moving from plants to animals only, in one direction.
Diagram A shows these three arrows going in the correct directions between air, plants and animals.
Answer: (A)

Question 14

A student adds excess copper oxide powder to warm dilute sulfuric acid.

Aqueous copper sulfate is formed.

Which method is used to remove the unreacted copper oxide?

A. chromatography
B. crystallisation
C. distillation
D. filtration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.4: Separation and purification — using filtration to remove an insoluble solid from a solution.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excess copper oxide is added so that all the sulfuric acid reacts, leaving unreacted solid copper oxide in the mixture.
Since copper oxide is insoluble, it can be separated from the aqueous copper sulfate solution by filtration, leaving the copper oxide as the residue.
Crystallisation would instead be used afterwards to obtain solid copper sulfate crystals from the filtrate.
Answer: (D)

Question 15

Which diagram represents molecules of a compound?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — recognising a compound as two or more different elements chemically combined.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A molecule of a compound must contain two or more different types of atom joined together in fixed proportions.
Diagrams showing only one type of atom (whether single or joined) represent an element, not a compound.
Diagram B shows molecules made of two different atom types bonded together, representing a compound.
Answer: (B)

Question 16

Potassium reacts with water.

potassium + water → ……1…… + ……2……

Which words complete the equation?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.2: Group I properties — reaction of potassium with water producing potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Group I alkali metals react vigorously with cold water to form a metal hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
The word equation is \( \text{potassium} + \text{water} \rightarrow \text{potassium hydroxide} + \text{hydrogen} \).
Potassium oxide and oxygen are not the products of this reaction.
Answer: (A)

Question 17

Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using the apparatus shown.

Which product forms at the cathode?

A. hydrogen
B. oxygen
C. sulfur dioxide
D. water vapour

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — products at the electrodes during electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The cathode is the negative electrode, where positive ions gain electrons in a reduction reaction.
In dilute sulfuric acid, the positive ions present are hydrogen ions, \( \text{H}^+ \), which are reduced to form hydrogen gas at the cathode.
Oxygen forms at the anode instead, and sulfur dioxide and water vapour are not products of this electrolysis.
Answer: (A)

Question 18

The initial and final temperatures in two experiments, X and Y, are shown.

Which row shows the types of change that take place in these two experiments?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — identifying reaction type from temperature change.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In experiment X the final temperature is higher than the initial temperature, so thermal energy is being transferred to the surroundings — this is an exothermic reaction.
In experiment Y the initial and final temperatures shown are equal, indicating no net thermal energy transfer typical of an endothermic reaction pathway in this context.
This combination of exothermic X and endothermic Y matches row C of the table.
Answer: (C)

Question 19

Which statement about rates of reaction is correct?

A. Catalysts never affect the rate of reaction.
B. Decreasing the temperature of a reaction increases the rate of reaction.
C. Increasing the concentration of a reacting solution decreases the rate of reaction.
D. Using smaller sized pieces of a solid increases the rate of reaction.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — effect of surface area, concentration, temperature and catalysts on rate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Using smaller pieces of a solid increases its surface area, giving more area for particle collisions and increasing the reaction rate.
Catalysts do increase reaction rate, decreasing temperature slows a reaction down, and increasing concentration increases rate rather than decreasing it.
Only the statement about surface area is correct.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

Which word equation represents a redox reaction?

A. calcium carbonate → calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
B. calcium oxide + hydrochloric acid → calcium chloride + water
C. copper oxide + carbon → copper + carbon dioxide
D. sodium oxide + water → sodium hydroxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — identifying redox reactions involving gain and loss of oxygen.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a redox reaction, one substance is oxidised (gains oxygen) while another is reduced (loses oxygen) at the same time.
Copper oxide loses its oxygen to become copper (reduction), while carbon gains oxygen to become carbon dioxide (oxidation).
The other equations are thermal decomposition or neutralisation reactions, not redox reactions.
Answer: (C)

Question 21

A student makes lists of acidic oxides and basic oxides.

Which oxides are not in the correct list?

A. carbon dioxide and sodium oxide
B. potassium oxide and sulfur dioxide
C. nitrogen dioxide and sulfur dioxide
D. potassium oxide and calcium oxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.2: Oxides — classifying oxides as acidic or basic based on metallic/non-metallic character.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Potassium is a metal, so potassium oxide is a basic oxide, not an acidic oxide as listed.
Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide, so it is an acidic oxide, not a basic oxide as listed.
Carbon dioxide is correctly acidic and sodium oxide is correctly basic, so only potassium oxide and sulfur dioxide are misplaced.
Answer: (B)

Question 22

The diagram shows overlapping circles into which different chemical formulae can be placed.

Which formula can be placed in the shaded area because it has all three properties?

A. Br2
B. CO
C. Cu
D. Na

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.4: Transition elements — transition metals such as copper form coloured compounds and basic oxides.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Copper is an element, it forms coloured ions (blue \( \text{Cu}^{2+} \) solutions), and its oxide, CuO, is a basic oxide.
Br2 and Na do not form coloured ions or basic oxides, and CO is a compound rather than an element.
Only copper satisfies all three overlapping properties.
Answer: (C)

Question 23

Why are the elements in Group VIII of the Periodic Table unreactive?

A. They are gaseous elements.
B. They are monatomic elements.
C. They have full inner shells of electrons.
D. They have full outer shells of electrons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — unreactivity explained in terms of electronic configuration.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Group VIII noble gases have a full outer shell of electrons.
This stable electron arrangement means they have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons, so they do not readily react.
Being gaseous or monatomic is a physical description, not the reason for their unreactivity.
Answer: (D)

Question 24

Pieces of four metals are added separately to test-tubes containing dilute hydrochloric acid.

The results are shown:

What is the order of reactivity of the metals from most to least reactive?

A. 2 → 1 → 4 → 3
B. 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
C. 3 → 1 → 4 → 2
D. 3 → 4 → 1 → 2

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.4: Reactivity series — deducing an order of reactivity from experimental results with dilute acid.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A more reactive metal produces bubbles of hydrogen gas more vigorously and quickly with dilute acid.
Vigorous bubbling (metal 3) shows the most reactive metal, followed by steady bubbling (metal 4), then slow bubbling (metal 1), and no reaction (metal 2) shows the least reactive metal.
This gives the reactivity order 3 → 4 → 1 → 2.
Answer: (D)

Question 25

Four watch-glasses contain solid salts as shown.

Water is added to each salt.
Which statement describes the salt solutions that form?

A. They are blue or pink only.
B. They are white or blue only.
C. They are all pink.
D. They are all blue.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.1: Water — chemical tests for water using anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride and anhydrous copper(II) sulfate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Adding water to anhydrous (white) copper(II) sulfate turns it blue, and hydrated (blue) copper(II) sulfate simply dissolves to give a blue solution.
Adding water to anhydrous (blue) cobalt(II) chloride turns it pink, and hydrated (pink) cobalt(II) chloride dissolves to give a pink solution.
So every watch-glass, once water is added, ends up as either a blue or a pink solution.
Answer: (A)

Question 26

What is a use of the naphtha fraction obtained by the fractional distillation of petroleum?

A. bottled gas for heating
B. feedstock for making chemicals
C. fuel for diesel engines
D. road surfaces

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.3: Fuels — uses of the fractions obtained from fractional distillation of petroleum.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The naphtha fraction from fractional distillation of petroleum is mainly used as a chemical feedstock.
It provides the starting hydrocarbons used to manufacture other chemicals, such as through cracking.
Bottled gas, diesel fuel and road surfaces come from the refinery gas, diesel/gas oil, and bitumen fractions respectively, not naphtha.
Answer: (B)

Question 27

Which substance is an unsaturated compound?

A. ethane
B. ethanol
C. ethene
D. methane

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.1: Formulas and terminology — saturated and unsaturated compounds.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An unsaturated compound contains one or more carbon–carbon bonds that are not single bonds.
Ethene, \( \text{C}_2\text{H}_4 \), contains a carbon–carbon double bond, so it is unsaturated.
Ethane, ethanol and methane all have only single carbon–carbon (or no carbon–carbon) bonds, making them saturated.
Answer: (C)

Question 28

Which diagram shows the distance–time graph for an object moving with constant speed?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — interpreting distance–time graphs for constant speed.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An object moving with constant speed covers equal distances in equal time intervals.
This is represented by a distance–time graph that is a straight line with a constant, non-zero gradient.
Graph A shows this straight-line pattern, matching constant speed motion.
Answer: (A)

Question 29

A parachutist and his parachute have a combined weight W. The parachutist falls vertically towards the Earth’s surface. The force of air resistance R opposes his motion.
The speed of the parachutist is constant.

Which statement about the forces on the parachutist is correct?

A. W and R are both equal to zero.
B. W is equal to R and greater than zero.
C. W is greater than R.
D. W is less than R.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — an object at constant speed has no resultant force acting on it.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An object moving at constant speed has no resultant force acting on it, so the downward weight W and upward air resistance R must be balanced.
Since the parachutist is still falling (not stationary), both W and R must have a real, non-zero value.
This means W is equal to R, and both are greater than zero.
Answer: (B)

Question 30

What is a suitable unit for the moment of a force?

A. N kg
B. N / kg
C. N m
D. N / m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.2: Turning effect of forces — moment = force × perpendicular distance from the pivot.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The moment of a force is calculated using \( \text{moment} = \text{force} \times \text{perpendicular distance from the pivot} \).
Force is measured in newtons (N) and distance is measured in metres (m), so the unit of moment is the product of these, N m.
N/kg is the unit for gravitational field strength, and N kg and N/m do not correspond to any standard physical quantity here.
Answer: (C)

Question 31

A machine takes a certain time to do a certain quantity of work.
Which pair of changes must increase the power of the machine?

A. decreasing the work done and decreasing the time taken
B. decreasing the work done and increasing the time taken
C. increasing the work done and decreasing the time taken
D. increasing the work done and increasing the time taken

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.4: Power — power defined as work done per unit time.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Power is calculated using \( P = \dfrac{W}{t} \), where W is work done and t is time taken.
Increasing the work done (numerator) while decreasing the time taken (denominator) both act to increase the value of power.
Any option that decreases work done or increases time taken would decrease or fail to guarantee an increase in power.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

Which source of energy is non-renewable?

A. chemical energy in a fossil fuel
B. energy in tides
C. geothermal energy
D. wind energy

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — renewability of fossil fuels, tides, geothermal and wind resources.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fossil fuels formed over millions of years from ancient organic matter and are being used up far faster than they can reform.
This makes chemical energy in fossil fuels a non-renewable energy resource.
Tides, geothermal heat and wind are all continuously replenished by natural processes, making them renewable resources.
Answer: (A)

Question 33

A hot water tank is fitted with two identical heaters P and Q. Heater P is fitted above heater Q, as shown. The tank is full of cold water.

When only heater Q is switched on, it takes a long time to heat the tank of water to 60 °C.
What happens to the cold water when only heater P is switched on?

A. All the water reaches 60 °C in less time.
B. All the water reaches 60 °C in the same time.
C. The water below heater P reaches 60 °C in less time.
D. The water above heater P reaches 60 °C in less time.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.2: Convection — water heated near the top of a tank cannot set up a convection current through the whole tank.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Heating water lowers its density, so it rises above cooler, denser water rather than sinking to set up a convection current.
Since heater P is near the top, the water it heats simply stays above it and does not circulate down to warm the water below.
So only the water directly above heater P heats up quickly, reaching 60 °C in less time, while the water below stays cold.
Answer: (D)

Question 34

A water wave passes point Y.
A student counts how many wave crests pass point Y in 30 seconds.
Using only this information, what can the student calculate?

A. the amplitude of the wave
B. the frequency of the wave
C. the speed of the wave
D. the wavelength of the wave

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.1: General properties of waves — frequency as the number of wave crests passing a point per unit time.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Frequency is the number of wave crests (or complete oscillations) passing a fixed point per second.
Counting the crests passing Y over a known 30-second interval lets the student calculate this frequency directly.
Amplitude, wave speed and wavelength all require additional measurements (such as distance) that are not given here.
Answer: (B)

Question 35

The diagram is a displacement–time graph for the molecules in air as a sound wave passes.

The graphs below are drawn to the same scale.
Which graph represents a quieter sound with a higher pitch?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — effect of amplitude and frequency on loudness and pitch.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A quieter sound has a smaller amplitude, while a higher pitch has a shorter wavelength (more oscillations in the same time, i.e. a higher frequency).
The graph needed must show a smaller peak height than the original combined with more wave cycles squeezed into the same time period.
Graph D is the only one drawn to scale showing both a reduced amplitude and an increased frequency compared with the original.
Answer: (D)

Question 36

Which diagram shows the pattern and direction of the magnetic field near the S pole of a bar magnet?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism — magnetic field pattern and direction around a bar magnet.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Magnetic field lines always point in the direction a free N pole would move if placed at that point, meaning they run from the N pole into the S pole outside the magnet.
So field lines must curve into (point towards) the S pole, and the lines are closer together (denser) nearer the pole where the field is strongest.
Diagram C correctly shows field lines curving into the S pole with the arrows pointing inward.
Answer: (C)

Question 37

A 2.0 Ω resistor and a 3.0 Ω resistor are connected in series with a 10 V battery.

What is the current in the circuit?

A. 0.50 A
B. 2.0 A
C. 5.0 A
D. 50 A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — calculating combined resistance of resistors in series.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In series, resistances simply add together: \( R_{\text{total}} = 2.0 + 3.0 = 5.0\,\Omega \).
Using \( I = \dfrac{V}{R} \), the current is \( I = \dfrac{10}{5.0} = 2.0\,\text{A} \).
The same current flows through every component in a series circuit.
Answer: (B)

Question 38

The current in an electric heater is 10 A when in normal use. The heater circuit contains a fuse.
What is the purpose of the fuse and what is a suitable rating for the fuse?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — operation of fuses and choosing appropriate fuse ratings.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse protects a circuit by melting and breaking the circuit if the current becomes dangerously high, preventing overheating and fire — it does not maintain a constant current.
The fuse rating must be just above the normal operating current of 10 A, so a 13 A fuse is suitable (a 9 A fuse would blow immediately during normal use).
This matches “protects from overheating” with a 13 A rating.
Answer: (D)

Question 39

The nucleus of an isotope of gold contains 79 protons and 118 neutrons. The symbol for gold is Au.
What is the nuclide symbol for this isotope?

A. \( ^{79}_{118}\text{Au} \)
B. \( ^{79}_{197}\text{Au} \)
C. \( ^{118}_{79}\text{Au} \)
D. \( ^{197}_{79}\text{Au} \)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.1: The nucleus — nuclide notation \( ^A_Z X \) using proton number and nucleon number.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The proton number (bottom number) is the number of protons, which is 79 for gold.
The nucleon number (top number) is the total number of protons and neutrons: \( 79 + 118 = 197 \).
So the correct nuclide symbol is \( ^{197}_{79}\text{Au} \), with 197 on top and 79 on the bottom.
Answer: (D)

Question 40

The isotope of americium used in a smoke detector has a half-life of 430 years. A sample of this isotope emits 36 000 particles per minute.
At which rate does it emit particles 1290 years later?

A. 4500 counts per minute
B. 9000 counts per minute
C. 12 000 counts per minute
D. 18 000 counts per minute

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.4: Half-life — calculating activity remaining after a given number of half-lives.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
1290 years is exactly \( \dfrac{1290}{430} = 3 \) half-lives.
The count rate halves with each half-life: \( 36\,000 \rightarrow 18\,000 \rightarrow 9000 \rightarrow 4500 \).
After 3 half-lives, the count rate is 4500 counts per minute.
Answer: (A)
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