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Question 1

The diagram shows how an aquatic carnivorous bladderwort plant reacts to tiny aquatic organisms that swim by.

Which characteristics of living organisms are shown by this plant?

A. excretion and growth
B. growth and sensitivity
C. nutrition and excretion
D. nutrition and sensitivity

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — sensitivity and nutrition defined.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The bladderwort detects a nearby swimming animal and traps it, showing sensitivity — the ability to detect and respond to a stimulus.
It then digests the trapped animal, absorbing nutrients from it, which shows nutrition — taking in materials for energy and growth.
No excretion or growth process is described in the diagram.
Answer: (D)

Question 2

Which description for the process of osmosis is correct?

A. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from a region of high water potential across a fully permeable membrane to a region of lower water potential.
B. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from a region of low water potential across a partially permeable membrane to a region of high water potential.
C. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from a region of high water potential across a partially permeable membrane to a region of lower water potential.
D. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from a region of low water potential across a fully permeable membrane to a region of high water potential.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B3.2: Osmosis — net movement of water molecules through a partially permeable membrane.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Osmosis is defined as the net movement of water molecules from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential.
This movement must occur through a partially permeable membrane, which allows water molecules through but restricts larger solute molecules.
Options with “fully permeable” or reversed water-potential direction are incorrect definitions.
Answer: (C)

Question 3

Tests are carried out on a colourless liquid. The results are shown.

Which food groups does the liquid contain?

A. protein and fat
B. protein and starch
C. reducing sugar and fat
D. starch and fat

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — food tests for proteins and fats.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A purple colour with the biuret test confirms the presence of protein.
A white emulsion with the ethanol test confirms the presence of fat.
Iodine staying brown (not blue-black) shows starch is absent.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

The graph shows the rate at which 10 g of starch is broken down by amylase at four different temperatures.

At which temperature does amylase work best to break down starch?

A. 10 °C
B. 25 °C
C. 40 °C
D. 70 °C

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — effect of temperature on enzyme activity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The graph shows starch mass falling fastest (steepest decline) at \( 40\,^\circ\text{C} \), meaning amylase is breaking it down quickest at that temperature.
At \( 10\,^\circ\text{C} \) and \( 25\,^\circ\text{C} \) the enzyme has low kinetic energy so the reaction is slow.
At \( 70\,^\circ\text{C} \) the enzyme is denatured, so little or no starch is broken down.
Answer: (C)

Question 5

Why are nitrate ions necessary for plant growth?

A. They are essential for producing starch.
B. They are found in the chloroplasts.
C. They are part of the cell sap.
D. They are used in making amino acids.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — importance of nitrate ions for making amino acids.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Nitrate ions are absorbed from the soil by plant roots.
They are combined with sugars produced in photosynthesis to make amino acids, which are then built into proteins.
Nitrate ions are not needed to make starch, are not found in chloroplasts, and are not part of the cell sap.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

The diagram shows the human alimentary canal, with organs labelled P, Q, R and S.

In which labelled organs are large insoluble molecules broken down into small soluble molecules?

A. P and R
B. R and S
C. S and Q
D. Q and P

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.3: Digestion — chemical digestion as the breakdown of large insoluble molecules into small soluble molecules.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chemical digestion breaks down large insoluble molecules (starch, protein, fat) into small soluble molecules using enzymes.
This happens mainly in the organs where digestive juices act on food, which in this diagram are labelled P and R.
Q and S represent regions such as the mouth/oesophagus or large intestine, where little or no chemical breakdown of this kind occurs.
Answer: (A)

Question 7

The arrows in the diagram represent blood vessels.
Which vessel is the pulmonary vein?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B9.3: Blood vessels — identifying the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein to and from the lungs.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart.
Veins carry blood towards the heart, so the correct vessel is the one with its arrow pointing from the lungs into the heart.
This corresponds to vessel B in the diagram.
Answer: (B)

Question 8

What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?

A. glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide
B. glucose → carbon dioxide + water
C. glucose → lactic acid
D. glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — anaerobic respiration as the release of energy from nutrient molecules without using oxygen.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Yeast respires anaerobically in the absence of oxygen, a process also called alcoholic fermentation.
The glucose is broken down to produce ethanol (alcohol) and carbon dioxide, releasing a small amount of energy.
This differs from anaerobic respiration in muscles, where glucose → lactic acid instead.
Answer: (A)

Question 9

Which statement explains how the iris responds to an increase in light intensity?

A. The circular muscles contract and radial muscles relax causing the pupil to decrease in size.
B. The circular muscles relax and radial muscles contract causing the pupil to decrease in size.
C. The circular muscles contract and radial muscles relax causing the pupil to increase in size.
D. The circular muscles relax and radial muscles contract causing the pupil to increase in size.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Coordination and response — sense organs responding to a specific stimulus (light) through reflex action.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In bright light, the pupil must become smaller to reduce the amount of light entering the eye and protect the retina.
This happens when the circular muscles of the iris contract while the radial muscles relax.
The combined effect narrows the central opening (pupil), reducing light entry.
Answer: (A)

Question 10

Which statement about reproduction is correct?

A. In asexual reproduction, a diploid offspring is formed after fusion of haploid gametes.
B. In asexual reproduction, a haploid offspring is formed after fusion of diploid gametes.
C. In sexual reproduction, a diploid offspring is formed after fusion of haploid gametes.
D. In sexual reproduction, a haploid offspring is formed after fusion of diploid gametes.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.2: Sexual reproduction — fusion of haploid gamete nuclei to form a diploid zygote.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of the nuclei of two gametes, each of which is haploid (one set of chromosomes).
This fusion restores the full chromosome number, producing a diploid zygote and offspring.
Asexual reproduction, by contrast, involves no gamete fusion at all, so options A and B are incorrect.
Answer: (C)

Question 11

In one area, two forms of peppered moth exist. One form is pale white with a black and grey pattern. The other form is completely black.

The diagram shows the changes in colour that have occurred in the peppered moth over a period of more than 200 years.

Which row shows what happened?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B17.1: Variation — mutation as a genetic change that forms new alleles.
Topic B17.2: Selection — natural selection as individuals better adapted to their environment surviving and reproducing.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The black form of the moth first appeared as the result of a mutation, a random genetic change producing a new allele.
No human breeding programme selected the moths, so the shift in proportions is due to natural selection, not artificial selection.
Black moths were better camouflaged and survived better on polluted, darker tree bark, and pale moths survived better once pollution decreased.
Answer: (D)

Question 12

The diagram shows the energy flow in part of an ecosystem.

Which group of organisms is X?

A. carnivores
B. decomposers
C. herbivores
D. producers

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — herbivores as animals that get their energy by eating plants.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Energy flows from the Sun to green plants (producers), which make their own food by photosynthesis.
X sits between the producers and the carnivores (animals), meaning it must eat the plants directly.
An organism that eats plants directly is a herbivore, making it the primary consumer in the chain.
Answer: (C)

Question 13

What is the correct sequence of events that occur during eutrophication following an increase of nitrate ions in water?

  1. increased aerobic respiration by decomposers
  2. death of producers
  3. rapid growth of producer organisms
  4. death of animals due to lack of oxygen

A. 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
B. 3 → 2 → 1 → 4
C. 3 → 1 → 2 → 4
D. 4 → 2 → 1 → 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — freshwater and marine pollution caused by excess nutrients.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excess nitrate ions first cause rapid growth of producers such as algae, blocking light to deeper plants.
Without light, deeper producers die, providing large amounts of organic matter for decomposers to break down.
Decomposers respire aerobically at a higher rate, using up dissolved oxygen, which then causes animals to die from lack of oxygen.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

A student adds excess copper oxide powder to warm dilute sulfuric acid.

Aqueous copper sulfate is formed.

Which method is used to remove the unreacted copper oxide?

A. chromatography
B. crystallisation
C. distillation
D. filtration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.4: Separation and purification — using filtration to remove an insoluble solid from a solution.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excess copper oxide is added so that all the sulfuric acid reacts, leaving unreacted solid copper oxide in the mixture.
Since copper oxide is insoluble, it can be separated from the aqueous copper sulfate solution by filtration, leaving the copper oxide as the residue.
Crystallisation would instead be used afterwards to obtain solid copper sulfate crystals from the filtrate.
Answer: (D)

Question 15

Which diagram represents molecules of a compound?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — recognising a compound as two or more different elements chemically combined.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A molecule of a compound must contain two or more different types of atom joined together in fixed proportions.
Diagrams showing only one type of atom (whether single or joined) represent an element, not a compound.
Diagram B shows molecules made of two different atom types bonded together, representing a compound.
Answer: (B)

Question 16

Which statements about the mole are correct?

  1. One mole of 12C contains twice as many atoms as one mole of 24Mg.
  2. One mole of 12C has a mass of 12 g.
  3. One mole of C contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
  4. One mole of oxygen gas at room temperature and pressure occupies 32 dm3.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.3: The mole and the Avogadro constant — one mole of a substance contains \(6.02 \times 10^{23}\) particles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Statement 2 is correct: one mole of any element has a mass in grams equal to its relative atomic mass, so one mole of \(^{12}\text{C}\) has a mass of 12 g.
Statement 3 is correct: one mole of any substance, including carbon, contains the Avogadro constant, \(6.02 \times 10^{23}\) particles.
Statement 1 is wrong (equal moles of any element contain the same number of atoms) and statement 4 is wrong (one mole of any gas at r.t.p. occupies 24 dm3, not 32 dm3).
Answer: (C)

Question 17

Dilute aqueous potassium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

Which substance is produced at the cathode?

A. chlorine
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. potassium

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — products formed at the electrodes during electrolysis of aqueous solutions using inert electrodes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In dilute aqueous potassium chloride, the ions present are K⁺, Cl⁻, H⁺ and OH⁻ (from water).
At the cathode, the least reactive positive ion is discharged; since potassium is more reactive than hydrogen, H⁺ ions are discharged instead of K⁺.
This means hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode, while potassium remains in solution.
Answer: (B)

Question 18

Which process is exothermic?

A. boiling water
B. cracking a long chain alkane
C. decomposition of limestone
D. identification of hydrogen using a lighted splint

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — an exothermic reaction transfers thermal energy to the surroundings.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Testing for hydrogen gas with a lighted splint produces a “pop” sound, caused by the rapid combustion of hydrogen with oxygen.
Combustion reactions release thermal energy to the surroundings, so this is an exothermic process.
Boiling water and thermal decomposition of limestone or cracking of alkanes all require a continuous input of heat, making them endothermic instead.
Answer: (D)

Question 19

Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with calcium carbonate.

\(2HCl + CaCO_3 \rightarrow CaCl_2 + H_2O + CO_2\)

The effect of concentration of the acid on the rate of this reaction is investigated.

The volume of gas produced over time is measured for two different concentrations of the acid.

The results for experiments 1 and 2 are shown.

Which row shows the reaction that has the higher rate of reaction and explains why?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — explaining the effect of concentration on rate using collision theory.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The steeper graph reaches its final gas volume more quickly, showing experiment 1 has the higher rate of reaction.
Increasing acid concentration means more acid particles in the same volume, so collisions between reacting particles happen more frequently.
Activation energy is a property of the reaction itself and does not change between the two experiments, so it cannot be the reason.
Answer: (B)

Question 20

In which equation is the underlined zinc an oxidising agent?

A. Zn + Cl2 → ZnCl2
B. Zn + 2H+ → Zn2+ + H2
C. Zn2+ + Mg → Zn + Mg2+
D. 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — identifying oxidation and reduction, and oxidising/reducing agents, in redox reactions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An oxidising agent is a species that is itself reduced while causing another species to be oxidised.
In \(Zn^{2+} + Mg \rightarrow Zn + Mg^{2+}\), the zinc ion gains electrons to become zinc metal — it is reduced — while magnesium is oxidised.
In all the other equations, zinc itself loses electrons (is oxidised), meaning it acts as the reducing agent, not the oxidising agent.
Answer: (C)

Question 21

A student makes lists of acidic oxides and basic oxides.

Which oxides are not in the correct list?

A. carbon dioxide and sodium oxide
B. potassium oxide and sulfur dioxide
C. nitrogen dioxide and sulfur dioxide
D. potassium oxide and calcium oxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.2: Oxides — classifying oxides as acidic or basic based on metallic/non-metallic character.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Potassium is a metal, so potassium oxide is a basic oxide, not an acidic oxide as listed.
Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide, so it is an acidic oxide, not a basic oxide as listed.
Carbon dioxide is correctly acidic and sodium oxide is correctly basic, so only potassium oxide and sulfur dioxide are misplaced.
Answer: (B)

Question 22

The diagram shows overlapping circles into which different chemical formulae can be placed.

Which formula can be placed in the shaded area because it has all three properties?

A. Br2
B. CO
C. Cu
D. Na

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.4: Transition elements — transition metals such as copper form coloured compounds and basic oxides.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Copper is an element, it forms coloured ions (blue \( \text{Cu}^{2+} \) solutions), and its oxide, CuO, is a basic oxide.
Br2 and Na do not form coloured ions or basic oxides, and CO is a compound rather than an element.
Only copper satisfies all three overlapping properties.
Answer: (C)

Question 23

Why are the elements in Group VIII of the Periodic Table unreactive?

A. They are gaseous elements.
B. They are monatomic elements.
C. They have full inner shells of electrons.
D. They have full outer shells of electrons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — unreactivity explained in terms of electronic configuration.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Group VIII noble gases have a full outer shell of electrons.
This stable electron arrangement means they have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons, so they do not readily react.
Being gaseous or monatomic is a physical description, not the reason for their unreactivity.
Answer: (D)

Question 24

Which metal cannot be extracted from its ore by heating with carbon?

A. aluminium
B. copper
C. iron
D. zinc

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — ease of obtaining metals from their ores related to reactivity series position.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A metal can be extracted by heating with carbon only if it is less reactive than carbon, allowing carbon to displace it from its oxide.
Aluminium is more reactive than carbon, so carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide — aluminium must instead be extracted by electrolysis.
Copper, iron and zinc are all less reactive than carbon and can be extracted by carbon reduction.
Answer: (A)

Question 25

Four watch-glasses contain solid salts as shown.

Water is added to each salt.
Which statement describes the salt solutions that form?

A. They are blue or pink only.
B. They are white or blue only.
C. They are all pink.
D. They are all blue.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.1: Water — chemical tests for water using anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride and anhydrous copper(II) sulfate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Adding water to anhydrous (white) copper(II) sulfate turns it blue, and hydrated (blue) copper(II) sulfate simply dissolves to give a blue solution.
Adding water to anhydrous (blue) cobalt(II) chloride turns it pink, and hydrated (pink) cobalt(II) chloride dissolves to give a pink solution.
So every watch-glass, once water is added, ends up as either a blue or a pink solution.
Answer: (A)

Question 26

Hydrocarbon X has two carbon atoms in each molecule. It does not decolourise bromine water.

Hydrocarbon Y has three carbon atoms in each molecule. It does decolourise bromine water.

What is the difference in the number of hydrogen atoms in the molecules of X and Y?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.5: Alkenes — distinguishing saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons using bromine water.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
X does not decolourise bromine water, so it is a saturated alkane; with 2 carbons this is ethane, \(C_2H_6\).
Y decolourises bromine water, so it is an unsaturated alkene; with 3 carbons this is propene, \(C_3H_6\).
Comparing hydrogen atoms: X has 6 and Y has 6, so the difference is \(6 – 6 = 0\).
Answer: (A)

Question 27

During fermentation, an organic liquid and a colourless gas are produced.

Which row identifies a use for the liquid and describes the result of a test on the colourless gas?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.6: Alcohols — ethanol produced by fermentation and used as a solvent.
Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — carbon dioxide turns limewater milky.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fermentation of glucose produces ethanol (the organic liquid) and carbon dioxide gas.
Ethanol is widely used as a solvent, not as a monomer for addition polymerisation.
Carbon dioxide gas turns limewater milky, which is the standard test for this gas.
Answer: (C)

Question 28

Which diagram shows the distance–time graph for an object moving with constant speed?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — interpreting distance–time graphs for constant speed.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An object moving with constant speed covers equal distances in equal time intervals.
This is represented by a distance–time graph that is a straight line with a constant, non-zero gradient.
Graph A shows this straight-line pattern, matching constant speed motion.
Answer: (A)

Question 29

Four objects with different masses have different forces applied to them, as shown.

Which object has the greatest acceleration?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — recall and use (F = ma) to calculate acceleration from resultant force and mass.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For each object, the resultant force is the difference between the two opposing forces, and acceleration is found using \(a = \frac{F}{m}\).
For A: \(\frac{80-10}{10} = 7\ \text{m/s}^2\).
For B: \(\frac{240-90}{15} = 10\ \text{m/s}^2\).
For C: \(\frac{160-100}{12} = 5\ \text{m/s}^2\).
For D: \(\frac{150-60}{20} = 4.5\ \text{m/s}^2\).
Comparing all four values, object B has the largest resultant acceleration.
Answer: (B)

Question 30

Which source of energy is non-renewable?

A. chemical energy in a fossil fuel
B. energy in tides
C. geothermal energy
D. wind energy

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — comparing renewable and non-renewable sources for generating useful energy.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fossil fuels such as coal, oil and natural gas formed over millions of years and are being used up far faster than they can form.
Because they cannot be replenished within a human timescale, they are classed as non-renewable.
Tides, geothermal heat and wind are naturally replenished and are therefore renewable energy resources.
Answer: (A)

Question 31

Some gas is put in a sealed metal container of constant volume. The gas is now cooled.

What happens to the average speed of the gas molecules, and what happens to the pressure of the gas?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.1.3: Pressure changes — effect of a change of temperature at constant volume on gas pressure, in terms of particles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cooling a gas reduces the kinetic energy of its molecules, so the average speed of the molecules decreases.
Slower-moving molecules collide with the container walls less often and with less force per collision.
Fewer, gentler collisions per unit area mean the pressure of the gas decreases.
Answer: (A)

Question 32

Four liquid-in-glass thermometers are made with different bulb sizes and different tube diameters.

Which thermometer is the most sensitive?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.1: Thermal expansion — everyday applications of thermal expansion of liquids, such as thermometer sensitivity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A large bulb holds more liquid, so a given temperature rise causes a bigger volume expansion, giving a larger response.
A narrow tube means that same volume of expanded liquid has to travel further up the tube, producing a longer, more visible column movement.
Combining a large bulb with a narrow tube therefore gives the greatest, most easily read change for a small temperature change — the most sensitive thermometer.
Answer: (B)

Question 33

A water wave passes point Y.

A student counts how many wave crests pass point Y in 30 seconds.

Using only this information, what can the student calculate?

A. the amplitude of the wave
B. the frequency of the wave
C. the speed of the wave
D. the wavelength of the wave

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.1: General properties of waves — features of a wave, including frequency.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Frequency is defined as the number of complete waves (crests) passing a point per second.
Counting the number of crests passing in 30 seconds and dividing by 30 gives exactly this value.
Amplitude, wavelength and speed all require additional measurements (such as distance) that were not given here.
Answer: (B)

Question 34

The diagram shows a ray of light passing from air into a transparent medium.

What is the refractive index of the medium?

A. 0.50
B. 0.61
C. 2.4
D. 2.8

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of light — calculating refractive index from angle of incidence and angle of refraction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Refractive index is calculated using \(n = \frac{\sin(\text{angle of incidence})}{\sin(\text{angle of refraction})}\).
Substituting the given angles: \(n = \frac{\sin 70°}{\sin 35°} = \frac{0.940}{0.574}\).
This gives \(n \approx 2.4\).
Answer: (C)

Question 35

The diagram is a displacement–time graph for the molecules in air as a sound wave passes.

The graphs below are drawn to the same scale.
Which graph represents a quieter sound with a higher pitch?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — effect of amplitude and frequency on loudness and pitch.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A quieter sound has a smaller amplitude, while a higher pitch has a shorter wavelength (more oscillations in the same time, i.e. a higher frequency).
The graph needed must show a smaller peak height than the original combined with more wave cycles squeezed into the same time period.
Graph D is the only one drawn to scale showing both a reduced amplitude and an increased frequency compared with the original.
Answer: (D)

Question 36

A wire of length l and cross-sectional area X has resistance R.

Which wire has resistance 4R?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — resistance directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to cross-sectional area.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Resistance is directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to cross-sectional area: \(R \propto \frac{l}{X}\).
Doubling the length doubles resistance, and halving the area also doubles resistance, so doing both multiplies resistance by \(2 \times 2 = 4\).
This matches a wire of length 2l and cross-sectional area ½X, giving resistance 4R.
Answer: (B)

Question 37

There is a current of 3.0 A in a resistor. The potential difference across the resistor is 3.0 V.

How much electrical energy is transferred to other forms in 3.0 minutes?

A. 3.0 J
B. 9.0 J
C. 540 J
D. 1620 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power — calculating energy transferred using power and time.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Electrical power is calculated as \(P = VI = 3.0 \times 3.0 = 9.0\ \text{W}\).
Time must be converted to seconds: \(3.0\ \text{minutes} = 180\ \text{s}\).
Energy transferred is \(E = Pt = 9.0 \times 180 = 1620\ \text{J}\).
Answer: (D)

Question 38

The current in an electric heater is 10 A when in normal use. The heater circuit contains a fuse.
What is the purpose of the fuse and what is a suitable rating for the fuse?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — operation of fuses and choosing appropriate fuse ratings.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse protects a circuit by melting and breaking the circuit if the current becomes dangerously high, preventing overheating and fire — it does not maintain a constant current.
The fuse rating must be just above the normal operating current of 10 A, so a 13 A fuse is suitable (a 9 A fuse would blow immediately during normal use).
This matches “protects from overheating” with a 13 A rating.
Answer: (D)

Question 39

The diagram shows a wire carrying a current, lying in a magnetic field between two magnetic poles (N on the left, S on the right). The arrow on the wire shows the direction of the current.

What is the direction of the magnetic field and what is the direction of the force on the wire?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.4: Force on a current-carrying conductor — relative directions of force, magnetic field and current.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Magnetic field lines run from the north pole to the south pole, so with N on the left, the field points to the right.
Using the given current direction together with the field direction and applying the left-hand (motor) rule for force, field and current.
This combination produces a resultant force acting downwards on the wire.
Answer: (C)

Question 40

The diagram shows γ-rays travelling in a straight line. They enter a magnetic field that is directed into the page.

In which direction are the γ-rays deflected by the magnetic field, if at all?

A. They are deflected out of the page.
B. They are deflected towards the bottom of the page.
C. They are deflected towards the top of the page.
D. They are not deflected.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission — nature of alpha, beta and gamma radiation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A magnetic field only exerts a force on a moving charged particle.
Gamma rays are electromagnetic radiation, not particles, and carry no electric charge.
With no charge, gamma rays experience no magnetic force and travel straight through the field undeflected.
Answer: (D)
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