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Question 1

The diagram shows a germinating seed below the soil surface.

Which characteristic of living organisms ensures that the shoot grows upwards and the root grows downwards?

A. excretion
B. nutrition
C. reproduction
D. sensitivity

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — Sensitivity is the ability of an organism to detect and respond to changes in the environment (stimuli).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sensitivity is the characteristic that allows an organism to detect and respond to stimuli in its environment.
The shoot detects gravity and light and grows upwards (positive phototropism), while the root grows downwards (positive gravitropism) — both responses are driven by sensitivity.
Answer: (D)

Question 2

What is the net movement of molecules during diffusion?

A. from a higher concentration to a lower concentration down a concentration gradient
B. from a higher concentration to a lower concentration up a concentration gradient
C. from a lower concentration to a higher concentration down a concentration gradient
D. from a lower concentration to a higher concentration up a concentration gradient

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B3.1: Diffusion — Define diffusion as the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration, down a concentration gradient.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Diffusion is the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
This movement is described as moving down the concentration gradient — no energy (ATP) is required for this process.
Answer: (A)

Question 3

Which smaller molecules is glycogen made from?

A. amino acids
B. fatty acids
C. glucose
D. glycerol

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — State that glycogen is a polysaccharide made from glucose monomers, serving as the storage carbohydrate in animals.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Glycogen is a polysaccharide — a large carbohydrate molecule made from many glucose monomer units joined together by glycosidic bonds.
It acts as the main energy storage carbohydrate in animal cells, particularly in the liver and muscle tissue.
Answer: (C)

Question 4

The graph shows the effect of pH on two different enzymes.

Which statement is correct?

A. Both enzymes show no activity in conditions of pH 4.
B. Both enzymes are active in conditions of pH 5.
C. Only enzyme X is active in conditions of pH 10.
D. Only enzyme Y is active in conditions of pH 3.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — Describe the effect of pH on enzyme activity; each enzyme has an optimum pH, and activity decreases above or below this optimum.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
From the graph, enzyme X has an optimum around pH 7–8 and enzyme Y has an optimum around pH 5; both enzymes show measurable activity at pH 5.
Statements A, C, and D are incorrect because the graph shows both enzymes have some activity at pH 4, only enzyme Y is active at pH 10, and both enzymes are active at pH 3 respectively.
Answer: (B)

Question 5

Which word is missing from the word equation for photosynthesis?

carbon dioxide + ………………… → glucose + oxygen

A. carbohydrate
B. chlorophyll
C. light
D. water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — State and use the word equation for photosynthesis: carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen (using light energy and chlorophyll).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The full word equation for photosynthesis is: \(\text{carbon dioxide} + \text{water} \xrightarrow{\text{light, chlorophyll}} \text{glucose} + \text{oxygen}\).
Water is a reactant (not a product) in photosynthesis; the oxygen released as a by-product comes from the splitting of water molecules during the light-dependent stage.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

Calcium and iron are components of the diet. Which parts of the body need these components?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.1: Diet — State the sources and functions of calcium (bones and teeth) and iron (haemoglobin in red blood cells).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Calcium is an essential mineral needed for the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth.
Iron is needed to produce haemoglobin in red blood cells, which is the pigment responsible for carrying oxygen around the body.
Answer: (C)

Question 7

The diagram shows a section through the human heart and the blood vessels associated with it.

Which row names vessel X and correctly describes the direction of blood flow in vessel X?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B9.2: Heart — Identify and describe the functions of the major blood vessels associated with the heart, including the aorta, pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, and vena cava.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The aorta is the largest artery in the body, carrying oxygenated blood away from the left ventricle to the rest of the body.
Blood flow in the aorta is directed away from the heart, making it an artery carrying blood from the heart to the body.
Answer: (A)

Question 8

What is used to test for the presence of carbon dioxide?

A. Benedict’s solution
B. ethanol
C. iodine solution
D. limewater

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — Describe the test for carbon dioxide using limewater, which turns milky/cloudy in the presence of \(\text{CO}_2\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limewater (calcium hydroxide solution) is the standard test for carbon dioxide — when \(\text{CO}_2\) is bubbled through it, a white precipitate of calcium carbonate forms, turning the solution milky/cloudy.
The reaction is: \(\text{Ca(OH)}_2 + \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{CaCO}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{O}\).
Answer: (D)

Question 9

The diagram shows three different neurones which form the reflex arc.

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Coordination and response — Describe the structure of a reflex arc, naming the receptor, sensory neurone, relay neurone (in the spinal cord), motor neurone, and effector.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a reflex arc, the signal travels from receptor → sensory neurone (X) → relay neurone (Y) in the spinal cord → motor neurone (Z) → effector.
The sensory neurone carries impulses from receptor to CNS, the relay neurone connects within the CNS, and the motor neurone carries impulses from CNS to the effector (muscle or gland).
Answer: (B)

Question 10

Which statements about asexual reproduction are correct?

  1. It involves gametes.
  2. It produces genetically identical offspring.
  3. It only requires one parent.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.1: Asexual reproduction — State that asexual reproduction involves only one parent, produces genetically identical offspring (clones), and does not involve gametes or fertilisation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Asexual reproduction does NOT involve gametes (statement 1 is false) — it uses mitosis only, so no fertilisation occurs.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: asexual reproduction requires only one parent and produces offspring that are genetically identical (clones) to the parent.
Answer: (D)

Question 11

What is the correct term for an allele that is always expressed in the phenotype if it is present?

A. dominant
B. heterozygous
C. homozygous
D. recessive

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.3: Monohybrid inheritance — Define dominant allele as one that is expressed in the phenotype even when only one copy is present; distinguish from recessive, heterozygous, and homozygous.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A dominant allele is always expressed in the phenotype whenever it is present, regardless of whether the organism is homozygous or heterozygous for that allele.
In contrast, a recessive allele is only expressed when two copies are present (homozygous recessive); heterozygous and homozygous describe the genotype, not the dominance of an allele.
Answer: (A)

Question 12

The diagram shows a food web.

Which animals are carnivores?

A. kingfishers, perch and water beetles
B. kingfishers only
C. perch and water beetles only
D. tadpoles and freshwater shrimp

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — Define carnivores as animals that feed only on other animals; identify producers, herbivores, and carnivores within a food web.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carnivores are animals that obtain their nutrition by eating other animals; in the food web, kingfishers, perch, and water beetles all feed on other animals (not plants).
Tadpoles and freshwater shrimp feed on plants/algae making them herbivores, not carnivores.
Answer: (A)

Question 13

Which process is not part of the carbon cycle?

A. combustion
B. fossilisation
C. transpiration
D. photosynthesis

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.3: Carbon cycle — Describe the carbon cycle, including photosynthesis, respiration, decomposition, combustion, and fossilisation; transpiration involves water (not carbon) and is part of the water cycle.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Transpiration is the evaporation and movement of water through plants and out via the stomata — it is part of the water cycle, not the carbon cycle.
Combustion, fossilisation, and photosynthesis all involve the movement of carbon between the atmosphere, living organisms, and the Earth, so they are all parts of the carbon cycle.
Answer: (C)

Question 14

Which change is a chemical change?

A. combustion of hydrocarbons
B. filling a balloon with air
C. freezing a glass of water
D. mixing salt and sand

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.1: Physical and chemical changes — Distinguish between physical changes (reversible, no new substance formed) and chemical changes (new substances formed, often irreversible); combustion is a chemical change as new compounds (\(\text{CO}_2\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\)) are produced.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Combustion of hydrocarbons is a chemical change because new substances (\(\text{CO}_2\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\)) are formed and the reaction is not easily reversible.
Options B, C, and D are all physical changes — no new substances are formed, and the changes are reversible (e.g. freezing water is the reverse of melting).
Answer: (A)

Question 15

Which row shows the particles in the nucleus of an atom of \( {}_{12}^{25}\textrm{Mg} \)?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Use proton number and nucleon number to determine the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus: protons = proton number; neutrons = nucleon number − proton number.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For \( {}_{12}^{25}\text{Mg} \): the proton number (atomic number) is 12, so the nucleus contains 12 protons; the nucleon number (mass number) is 25, so the number of neutrons \( = 25 – 12 = 13 \).
The nucleus therefore contains 12 protons and 13 neutrons (electrons are outside the nucleus and are not counted here).
Answer: (B)

Question 16

Which dot-and-cross diagram represents a molecule of ammonia?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — Draw and interpret dot-and-cross diagrams for simple covalent molecules; ammonia (\(\text{NH}_3\)) has one nitrogen atom covalently bonded to three hydrogen atoms, with one lone pair on nitrogen.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ammonia (\(\text{NH}_3\)) has a nitrogen atom with 5 outer electrons forming 3 single covalent bonds with 3 hydrogen atoms, leaving 1 lone pair on nitrogen.
The correct dot-and-cross diagram shows nitrogen sharing one electron with each of the three hydrogen atoms, with a lone pair remaining on nitrogen — this is option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 17

The structure of a molecule of an organic compound is shown.

What is the formula of this compound?

A. \(\text{C}_4\text{H}_4\text{O}_3\)
B. \(\text{C}_4\text{H}_4\text{O}_3\)
C. \(\text{C}_4\text{H}_6\text{O}_3\)
D. \(\text{4C}_6\text{H}_3\text{O}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.1: Formulas and terminology — Determine the molecular formula of an organic compound by counting atoms of each element shown in a displayed structural formula.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To find the molecular formula, count each type of atom in the displayed structure: 4 carbon atoms, 6 hydrogen atoms, and 3 oxygen atoms.
This gives the molecular formula \(\text{C}_4\text{H}_6\text{O}_3\), which corresponds to option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 18

Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which row describes observations of the tests on the gases collected at the electrodes?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — Describe the products of electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride: chlorine gas at the anode (bleaches damp litmus) and hydrogen at the cathode (burns with a squeaky pop).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride solution: hydrogen (\(\text{H}_2\)) is produced at the cathode — it burns with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is applied.
Chlorine (\(\text{Cl}_2\)) is produced at the anode — it bleaches damp litmus paper, turning it white; this matches option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 19

In a test-tube, magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form a salt and hydrogen. The reaction makes the test-tube warm. Which statement about the reaction explains this observation?

A. It is a combustion reaction.
B. It is a neutralisation reaction.
C. It is endothermic.
D. It is exothermic.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — Define exothermic reactions as those that release heat energy to the surroundings (temperature rises); metal + acid reactions are exothermic.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The test-tube becomes warm, meaning heat energy is being released to the surroundings — this is the definition of an exothermic reaction.
Endothermic reactions absorb heat energy and would cause the temperature to fall; combustion requires oxygen and is a specific type of exothermic reaction, but the question asks what explains the warming.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

Which statement explains why the rusting of iron is an oxidation reaction?

A. Iron gains oxygen.
B. Iron is a transition element.
C. Iron is very reactive.
D. Iron loses oxygen.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — Define oxidation as gain of oxygen (or loss of electrons); rusting involves iron reacting with oxygen and water to form iron(III) oxide-hydroxide, so iron gains oxygen.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Oxidation is defined as the gain of oxygen; during rusting, iron reacts with oxygen (and water) to form hydrated iron(III) oxide (\(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 \cdot \text{H}_2\text{O}\)).
Since iron gains oxygen in this process, rusting is correctly classified as an oxidation reaction; the fact that iron is a transition element or reactive metal does not explain why the reaction is oxidation.
Answer: (A)

Question 21

What reacts with ammonia gas?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — State that ammonia is a base (alkaline gas) that reacts with acids; concentrated hydrochloric acid reacts with ammonia gas to produce a white smoke of ammonium chloride.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ammonia is a basic gas that reacts with acids; concentrated hydrochloric acid reacts with ammonia to produce dense white fumes of ammonium chloride: \(\text{NH}_3 + \text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{NH}_4\text{Cl}\).
This white smoke test is used to confirm the presence of ammonia gas; other options in the table (like sodium hydroxide solution or water) do not produce this characteristic white smoke.
Answer: (B)

Question 22

The halogens are elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table.

They are ……1…… non-metals.

They become ……2…… in colour down the group.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.3: Group VII properties — Describe the physical properties of halogens: they are diatomic non-metals, and their colour becomes darker going down the group (fluorine → pale yellow; chlorine → yellow-green; bromine → orange-brown; iodine → grey/black).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Halogens exist as diatomic molecules (e.g. \(\text{Cl}_2\), \(\text{Br}_2\)), so gap 1 is “diatomic”.
Going down Group VII: fluorine is pale yellow, chlorine is yellow-green, bromine is orange-brown, and iodine is grey/black — the colour gets darker, so gap 2 is “darker”.
Answer: (A)

Question 23

Element X increases the rate of some reactions.

Element X is unchanged at the end of these reactions.

What is the position of element X in the Periodic Table?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.4: Transition elements — State that transition elements are found in the central block of the Periodic Table and commonly act as catalysts (e.g. iron in the Haber process, nickel in hydrogenation).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Element X acts as a catalyst — it increases the rate of reaction but is chemically unchanged at the end; this is a key property of transition elements (e.g. iron, nickel, platinum).
Transition elements are located in the central d-block region (between Groups II and III) of the Periodic Table, which corresponds to option D.
Answer: (D)

Question 24

Which statement about aluminium is correct?

A. It is extracted from bauxite by heating with carbon.
B. It is extracted from bauxite by electrolysis.
C. It is extracted from hematite by heating with carbon.
D. It is extracted from hematite by electrolysis.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — State that aluminium is extracted from its ore bauxite (\(\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3\)) by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide; carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide because aluminium is more reactive than carbon.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aluminium is extracted from bauxite (its ore), not hematite — hematite is the ore of iron; bauxite contains aluminium oxide (\(\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3\)).
Because aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, carbon cannot reduce it, so electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide is used instead.
Answer: (B)

Question 25

Which colours are observed when water is added to white copper(II) sulfate and to blue cobalt(II) chloride?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.1: Water — Describe the use of anhydrous copper(II) sulfate (white → blue) and cobalt(II) chloride paper (blue → pink) as tests for the presence of water.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When water is added to white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate, it turns blue (forming hydrated copper(II) sulfate, \(\text{CuSO}_4 \cdot 5\text{H}_2\text{O}\)).
When water is added to blue anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride, it turns pink (forming hydrated cobalt(II) chloride); this matches option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 26

Which structure represents the main constituent of natural gas?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.3: Fuels — Name methane as the main constituent of natural gas.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Natural gas is mainly composed of methane, \(\text{CH}_4\).
Methane is the simplest hydrocarbon, containing only one carbon atom.
That single carbon atom forms four single covalent bonds, one to each of four hydrogen atoms.
Structure A shows this arrangement — one central carbon singly bonded to four hydrogens, with no carbon–carbon bonds.
Answer: (A)

Question 27

Which substance reacts with ethene to produce ethanol?

A. bromine
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. steam

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.5: Alkenes — Describe the addition reaction of alkenes with steam in the presence of an acid catalyst.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ethene, \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_4\), contains a reactive carbon–carbon double bond.
This double bond allows ethene to undergo addition reactions.
When steam is added across the double bond in the presence of an acid catalyst, water is incorporated into the molecule.
This addition of steam converts ethene directly into ethanol, \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH}\).
Answer: (D)

Question 28

A car travels 100 m in the first 10 s of a journey and 300 m in the next 15 s.

What is the average speed of the car for this 25 s journey?

A. 5.0 m/s
B. 8.0 m/s
C. 15 m/s
D. 16 m/s

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — Recall and use the equation average speed = total distance travelled ÷ total time taken.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Average speed is calculated using \(\text{average speed} = \dfrac{\text{total distance}}{\text{total time}}\).
The total distance travelled is \(100 + 300 = 400\text{ m}\).
The total time taken is \(10 + 15 = 25\text{ s}\).
So, average speed \(= \dfrac{400}{25} = 16\text{ m/s}\).
Answer: (D)

Question 29

A train travels along a horizontal track at constant speed. Two of the forces acting on the train are shown.

A force of air resistance is also acting on the train to give it a resultant force of zero.

What is this air resistance force?

A. 40 000 N backwards
B. 80 000 N backwards
C. 40 000 N forwards
D. 80 000 N forwards

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — Determine the resultant of two or more forces acting along the same straight line.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A train moving at constant speed has zero acceleration, so by Newton’s first law the resultant force on it must be zero.
Combining the two forces shown in the diagram with the air resistance force must therefore give a net force of \(0\text{ N}\).
Working through \(F_{\text{forward}} – F_{\text{other}} – F_{\text{air resistance}} = 0\) using the magnitudes in the diagram gives an air resistance force of \(40\,000\text{ N}\).
Since this force opposes the train’s motion, it must act backwards.
Answer: (A)

Question 30

Some energy resources do not require a rotating turbine when used to generate electricity.

Which energy resource does not require a rotating turbine?

A. geothermal
B. nuclear
C. solar
D. wind

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — Describe how electrical power may be generated from light from the Sun using solar cells.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Geothermal, nuclear and wind resources all generate electricity by using steam or moving air to spin a turbine connected to a generator.
Solar cells work differently: they convert light energy directly into electrical energy using the photovoltaic effect.
No rotating turbine is involved at any stage of this process.
Answer: (C)

Question 31

In a liquid-in-glass thermometer, which physical property of the liquid is used to measure temperature?

A. colour
B. mass
C. pressure
D. volume

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.1: Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases — Describe, qualitatively, the thermal expansion of a liquid at constant pressure.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A liquid expands as its temperature increases and contracts as its temperature decreases.
In a liquid-in-glass thermometer, this change in volume moves the liquid up or down a narrow tube.
The position of the liquid against a calibrated scale therefore indicates the temperature.
Answer: (D)

Question 32

A boy watches a water wave passing a boat that is floating on the sea.

Which single measurement allows the boy to be able to calculate the amplitude of the wave?

A. the distance between one wave crest and the next
B. the time taken for a wave crest to travel the length of the boat
C. the time taken for the boat to move from its lowest point to its highest point
D. the vertical distance between the highest point and the lowest point of the boat

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.1: General properties of waves — Describe the features of a wave in terms of crest, trough and amplitude.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Amplitude is the maximum displacement of the wave from its rest (undisturbed) position.
As the wave passes, the boat rises and falls, moving from its lowest point to its highest point.
The vertical distance between these two points is equal to twice the amplitude, \(2A\).
Dividing this single measurement by 2 directly gives the amplitude of the wave.
Answer: (D)

Question 33

The diagram shows a ray of light passing from glass into air. Two angles P and Q are labelled.

What is the angle of refraction?

A. P
B. Q
C. 90° – P
D. 90° – Q

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of light — Define and use the terms normal, angle of incidence and angle of refraction using ray diagrams.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The angle of refraction must always be measured between the refracted ray and the normal, which is perpendicular to the boundary.
In this diagram, angle Q is marked between the ray and the boundary surface itself, not the normal.
Since the normal is at 90° to the surface, the true angle from the normal is \(90° – Q\).
Answer: (D)

Question 34

A student claps his hands once when standing 100 m away from a large wall.

The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s.

How long after clapping does the student hear an echo?

A. 0.30 s
B. 0.61 s
C. 1.7 s
D. 3.3 s

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — Describe an echo as the reflection of a sound wave and determine the speed of sound using a measurement of distance and time.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An echo means the sound must travel from the student to the wall and then reflect back, a total distance of \(2 \times 100 = 200\text{ m}\).
Using \(\text{time} = \dfrac{\text{distance}}{\text{speed}}\), the time taken is \(\dfrac{200}{330}\).
This works out to approximately \(0.61\text{ s}\).
Answer: (B)

Question 35

Two charged rods X and Y repel each other.

Which row gives a possible description of how the rods became charged?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.1: Electrical charge — Know that like charges repel and that charging by friction involves a transfer of electrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Two charged rods only repel each other if they carry the same type of charge, either both positive or both negative.
Charging by friction works by transferring electrons from one material to another, never by transferring positive charge.
The material that loses electrons becomes positively charged, while the material that gains electrons becomes negatively charged.
Row A is the only description in which both rods end up with the same sign of charge, consistent with a repulsive force.
Answer: (A)

Question 36

There is a current of 4.0 A in a resistor and a potential difference (p.d.) of 12 V across it.

What is the resistance of the resistor?

A. 0.33 Ω
B. 3.0 Ω
C. 8.0 Ω
D. 48 Ω

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — Recall and use the equation for resistance, \(R = \dfrac{V}{I}\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Resistance is calculated using \(R = \dfrac{V}{I}\).
The potential difference is 12 V and the current is 4.0 A.
So, \(R = \dfrac{12}{4.0} = 3.0\ \Omega\).
Answer: (B)

Question 37

The current in an electric heater is 6.0 A when in normal use.

Four fuses with different ratings are available to protect the wire to the heater.

Which fuse is most suitable?

A. 1 A
B. 5 A
C. 8 A
D. 20 A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — Choose an appropriate fuse rating for a given normal operating current.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse must have a rating just above the normal operating current so it does not blow during ordinary use.
The 1 A and 5 A fuses are both below 6.0 A, so they would blow even under normal conditions.
The 20 A fuse is far too high and would allow a dangerous fault current to flow without breaking the circuit.
The 8 A fuse sits just above the 6.0 A normal current, allowing safe operation while still protecting against a fault.
Answer: (C)

Question 38

The diagrams show the cross-section of a straight wire carrying a current into the page.

Which diagram shows the pattern and direction of the magnetic field around the wire?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.3: Magnetic effect of current — Describe the pattern and direction of the magnetic field due to current in a straight wire.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire forms concentric circles centred on the wire.
The direction of these circles is found using the right-hand grip rule.
Since the current flows into the page, the field circles run clockwise when viewed from the reader’s side of the page.
Diagram C is the only one showing concentric circles in this clockwise direction.
Answer: (C)

Question 39

A radioactive sample emits 1280 beta (β)-particles per second.

After 20 minutes, it emits 80 beta (β)-particles per second.

What is the half-life of the radioactive sample?

A. 4.0 minutes
B. 5.0 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 60 minutes

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.4: Half-life — Use the definition of half-life in simple calculations involving a decay curve or sequence of values.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The count rate halves each time one half-life passes.
Following the sequence: \(1280 \to 640 \to 320 \to 160 \to 80\), the count rate halves 4 times.
These 4 half-lives take place over the given 20 minutes.
So, one half-life \(= \dfrac{20}{4} = 5.0\) minutes.
Answer: (B)

Question 40

A radioactive nucleus emits an alpha (α)-particle.

What happens to the proton number and what happens to the nucleon number of the nucleus?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission — Identify alpha (α) emissions by recalling their nature.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An alpha (α)-particle is a helium nucleus, made up of 2 protons and 2 neutrons.
When a nucleus emits an alpha particle, it loses these 2 protons, so the proton number decreases by 2.
It also loses a total of 4 nucleons (2 protons + 2 neutrons), so the nucleon number decreases by 4.
Answer: (A)
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