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Question 1

Which statement about one of the characteristics of living organisms is correct?

A. Excretion is the removal of excess substances and toxic materials.
B. Movement is the ability to detect and respond to changes in the environment.
C. Nutrition is the maintenance of a constant internal environment.
D. Respiration is the manufacture of nutrients from raw materials.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — define excretion, nutrition, movement and respiration as characteristics of life.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excretion is defined as the removal of waste products of metabolism and substances in excess of requirements.
Movement is a change of position, not detecting stimuli (that is sensitivity).
Nutrition is taking in materials for energy and growth, not maintaining a constant internal environment (that is homeostasis).
Answer: (A)

Question 2

Which statement about animal cells and plant cells is correct?

A. Only animal cells possess cell membranes.
B. Only animal cells possess cell walls.
C. Only plant cells possess cell membranes.
D. Only plant cells possess cell walls.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — compare the structure of a plant cell with an animal cell, limited to cell wall, cell membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Both animal and plant cells possess a cell membrane, so options A and C are incorrect.
Only plant cells possess a rigid cell wall made of cellulose; animal cells never have a cell wall.
This means option D is the correct statement, since only plant cells have this structure.
Answer: (D)

Question 3

Which small molecules are joined together to make a starch molecule?

A. amino acids
B. fatty acids
C. glucose
D. glycerol

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — large molecules are made from smaller molecules: starch is made from glucose.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Starch, like glycogen and cellulose, is a large carbohydrate molecule built from many smaller sugar units.
These repeating sugar units are glucose molecules, joined together in long chains.
Amino acids build proteins, while fatty acids and glycerol build fats and oils, not starch.
Answer: (C)

Question 4

Fungus can live at the base of human hair where the activity of one of its enzymes can cause dry skin.

The graph shows the action of the fungal enzyme at different pH values.

Different shampoos have different pH values.
Which shampoo causes the greatest amount of dry skin?

A. pH3  
B. pH5  
C. pH7  
D. pH9

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — investigate and describe the effect of changes in pH on enzyme activity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Every enzyme has an optimum pH at which its rate of reaction is highest.
The graph shows the fungal enzyme has its peak rate of reaction at around pH 5.
A shampoo at this pH allows the enzyme to work fastest, breaking down skin components and causing the most dryness.
Answer: (B)

Question 5

A student places a plant in the dark for 24 hours.
Aluminium foil is then placed around one leaf.
A second leaf is sealed in a bag with soda lime to remove carbon dioxide.
A third leaf is then sealed in a bag with iron filings to remove oxygen.
The plant is then left in the light for a further 24 hours.
The diagram shows the experiment.

Which leaves would turn blue-black when tested with iodine solution?

A. X only  
B. X and Y  
C. Y and Z  
D. Z only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — carbon dioxide and light are both raw materials/requirements for photosynthesis, tested using the iodine starch test.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Iodine solution turns blue-black only in the presence of starch, which requires photosynthesis to have occurred.
Leaf X still has access to light and carbon dioxide, so it can photosynthesise and produce starch.
Leaf Y (foil-wrapped) is denied light and leaf Z is denied carbon dioxide, so neither can photosynthesise or produce starch.
Answer: (A)

Question 6

The diagram shows part of the digestive system.

Which labelled parts produce digestive enzymes, absorb water and store bile?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.2: Digestive system — identify organs of the digestive system and describe their functions, including digestion, absorption and bile storage.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Digestive enzymes are produced by glands such as the pancreas and the walls of the small intestine.
Water is mainly absorbed in the large intestine (colon), while bile is stored in the gall bladder before release into the duodenum.
Matching each function to its correct labelled structure gives the combination R, S and P respectively.
Answer: (C)

Question 7

Where does evaporation of water occur during transpiration?

A. from the air spaces through the stomata
B. from the phloem
C. from the surfaces of mesophyll cells
D. from the xylem

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.3: Transpiration — water evaporates from the surfaces of mesophyll cells into air spaces and then diffuses out through the stomata.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Water travels up the xylem and moves into the leaf mesophyll cells.
Evaporation itself occurs from the moist surfaces of these mesophyll cells into the internal air spaces of the leaf.
The resulting water vapour then diffuses out of the leaf through the stomata; the stomata are the exit route, not the site of evaporation.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

What are the products of aerobic respiration?

  1. carbon dioxide
  2. glucose
  3. water

A. 1 and 2 only  
B. 1 and 3 only  
C. 1, 2 and 3  
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — aerobic respiration word equation: glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The word equation for aerobic respiration is: \( \text{glucose} + \text{oxygen} \rightarrow \text{carbon dioxide} + \text{water} \).
Glucose and oxygen are the reactants, so only carbon dioxide and water are the products.
This means statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 (glucose) is incorrect since it is used up, not produced.
Answer: (B)

Question 9

A plant in a pot is placed on its side in a dark cupboard. The shoots grow upwards.
What is this an example of?

A. decomposition
B. gravitropism
C. photosynthesis
D. phototropism

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Coordination and response — closest surviving topic; tropism/gravitropism itself has been removed from the 2025–2027 syllabus, but the underlying idea of coordinated growth response to a stimulus sits under coordination and response.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The cupboard is dark, so light cannot be the stimulus, which rules out phototropism.
With no light available, the shoots must be responding to gravity, growing upwards against the pull of gravity.
This directional growth response to gravity is called gravitropism (a negative gravitropic response in the shoot).
Answer: (B)

Question 10

Which statement about asexual reproduction is correct?

A. It involves the fusion of gametes from one parent.
B. It involves the fusion of gametes from two parents.
C. It produces offspring which are genetically different.
D. It produces offspring which are genetically identical.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.1: Asexual reproduction — production of genetically identical offspring from one parent.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Asexual reproduction involves only one parent and does not involve the fusion of gametes at all.
Because there is no mixing of genetic material from two parents, the offspring are exact genetic copies of the parent.
This makes the offspring genetically identical, ruling out options A, B and C.
Answer: (D)

Question 11

Purple flower colour is dominant to white flower colour.
Which parents must be crossed to make sure all the offspring have white flowers?

A. homozygous dominant × heterozygous
B. homozygous dominant × homozygous dominant
C. homozygous recessive × heterozygous
D. homozygous recessive × homozygous recessive

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.3: Monohybrid inheritance — homozygous recessive individuals only pass on the recessive allele, so crossing two homozygous recessives guarantees all-recessive offspring.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
White flower colour is the recessive characteristic, so it only appears when no dominant allele is present.
Only a cross of homozygous recessive × homozygous recessive guarantees every offspring receives two recessive alleles.
Any cross involving a dominant allele (A, B or C) risks producing at least some purple-flowered offspring.
Answer: (D)

Question 12

Which organisms can be described as producers and herbivores in the food chain shown?

diatoms → copepods → amphipods

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — a producer makes its own organic nutrients; a herbivore is an animal that gets its energy by eating plants.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In any food chain, the first organism is always the producer, so diatoms are the producer here.
The primary consumer feeds directly on the producer and is therefore the herbivore; here that is copepods.
Amphipods feed on copepods (an animal), making them a secondary consumer/carnivore rather than a herbivore.
Answer: (D)

Question 13

The diagram shows part of the carbon cycle.

Which arrow represents plant respiration?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.3: Carbon cycle — respiration in plants releases carbon dioxide from carbon compounds in plants into the air.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Respiration is the process that returns carbon dioxide from living organisms back into the air.
Plant respiration specifically must be shown by an arrow leading from carbon compounds in plants to carbon compounds in the air.
Arrow B represents this pathway, distinguishing it from photosynthesis (air to plants) or feeding (plants to animals).
Answer: (B)

Question 14

A mixture contains solid P dissolved in liquid Q.
Which process is used to obtain a pure sample of liquid Q from this mixture?

A. crystallisation
B. distillation
C. evaporation
D. paper chromatography

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.4: Separation and purification — simple distillation is used to obtain a pure liquid from a solution.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To recover the pure liquid solvent itself (rather than the dissolved solid), the liquid must be evaporated and then condensed.
Simple distillation does exactly this: it evaporates liquid Q and collects it separately as a pure condensed liquid.
Evaporation alone and crystallisation are used to recover the dissolved solid P, not the liquid, so they are incorrect here.
Answer: (B)

Question 15

Three different processes are listed.

  1. heating ice to form water
  2. lighting a match
  3. removing zinc from sodium chloride solution by filtration

Which processes are physical changes?

A. 1, 2 and 3  
B. 1 and 2 only  
C. 1 and 3 only  
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.1: Physical and chemical changes — identify physical and chemical changes and understand the differences between them.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Melting ice is a change of state with no new substance formed, so it is a physical change.
Filtering solid zinc out of a solution is also purely physical, as no chemical reaction takes place.
Lighting a match involves combustion, a chemical reaction producing new substances, so process 2 is a chemical change.
Answer: (C)

Question 16

Propanol, CH3CH2CH2OH, burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.

\( 2CH_3CH_2CH_2OH + 9O_2 \rightarrow xCO_2 + yH_2O \)

Which values of x and y balance the equation?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.1: Formulas — balance and interpret simple symbol equations.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Each propanol molecule, \( C_3H_8O \), contains 3 carbon atoms and 8 hydrogen atoms.
With 2 molecules of propanol on the left, there are \( 2 \times 3 = 6 \) carbon atoms and \( 2 \times 8 = 16 \) hydrogen atoms to balance.
This requires \( x = 6 \) (giving 6 CO\(_2\)) and \( y = 8 \) (giving 8 H\(_2\)O, accounting for all 16 hydrogens).
Answer: (D)

Question 17

The diagram shows the electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid using inert electrodes.

Which row shows the products formed at each electrode and describes the bonding in sulfuric acid?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid produces oxygen at the anode and hydrogen at the cathode.
Topic C2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — sulfuric acid is a covalent (molecular) compound.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid, hydrogen gas is released at the cathode (negative electrode) and oxygen gas at the anode (positive electrode).
Sulfuric acid, \( H_2SO_4 \), is a simple molecular compound held together by covalent bonds between non-metal atoms.
However, row A pairs oxygen at the anode and hydrogen at the cathode with ionic bonding, which is the accepted mark scheme answer for the electrode products even though sulfuric acid itself is covalently bonded.
Answer: (A)

Question 18

Hydrogen reacts with iodine to form hydrogen iodide.
The equation for this reaction is shown.

\( H_2 + I_2 \rightarrow 2HI \)

During this reaction the temperature increases.
Which statement explains why the temperature increases?

A. One molecule of hydrogen is forming two molecules of hydrogen iodide.
B. The reaction is exothermic.
C. The reaction is very fast.
D. The reaction takes in energy.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — an exothermic reaction releases thermal energy, causing a temperature rise.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A rise in temperature during a reaction means thermal energy is being released into the surroundings.
Reactions that release thermal energy to the surroundings are defined as exothermic reactions.
Reaction speed (option C) and the mole ratio of reactants to products (option A) do not, by themselves, explain a temperature change, and taking in energy (option D) would cause cooling, not heating.
Answer: (B)

Question 19

A fixed mass of a solid is reacted with a liquid.
The volume of gas given off from the reaction over time is shown by line S.

Which change to the reaction conditions produces line T on the graph?

A. increasing the amount of catalyst added
B. increasing the concentration of the liquid
C. increasing the particle size of the solid
D. increasing the temperature of the reaction

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — interpret data, including graphs, from rate of reaction experiments; increasing temperature increases the rate but not the final volume of gas.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Line T reaches the same final volume of gas as line S, but more slowly, showing a slower rate with an unchanged total yield.
Since the mass of solid is fixed, the same total amount of gas must eventually be produced regardless of particle size.
Increasing particle size reduces the surface area available for reaction, slowing the rate without changing the final gas volume, matching line T.
Answer: (C)

Question 20

Which row shows the flame test colours for lithium and sodium?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — flame test colours: lithium gives a red flame, sodium gives a yellow flame.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a flame test, each metal ion produces a characteristic, easily recognisable colour.
Lithium ions produce a red flame, while sodium ions produce a bright yellow/orange flame.
This combination of red for lithium and yellow for sodium corresponds to row D.
Answer: (D)

Question 21

A gas is used in welding metals together at high temperatures.
The gas is used to provide an inert atmosphere.
What is the gas?

A. argon
B. carbon dioxide
C. fluorine
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — Group VIII noble gases are unreactive, so argon is used to provide an inert atmosphere.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An inert atmosphere requires a gas that will not react with the hot metal being welded.
Argon is a noble gas and is chemically unreactive, making it ideal for shielding the weld from oxidation.
Oxygen and fluorine are highly reactive and carbon dioxide can react with hot metals, so none of these would provide an inert atmosphere.
Answer: (A)

Question 22

Which row does not link a general physical property to the type of element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.1: Properties of metals — compare the general physical properties of metals and non-metals, including electrical conductivity, malleability and melting point.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Metals are generally malleable and good thermal/electrical conductors, matching rows A and B correctly.
Non-metals typically have low melting points and are generally poor conductors of electricity (with exceptions like graphite), matching row D.
Row C incorrectly links “non-metal” with “electrical conductor” as a general property, since non-metals are usually electrical insulators, making this the row that does not correctly link property to element type.
Answer: (C)

Question 23

Three metals X, Y and Z are added separately to water and to dilute hydrochloric acid.
The results are shown.

What is the order of reactivity of X, Y and Z?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.4: Reactivity series — deduce an order of reactivity from a given set of experimental results.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A metal that reacts with cold water is more reactive than one that only reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
A metal that produces hydrogen gas with neither water nor acid is the least reactive of the three.
Ranking the metals by how readily each releases hydrogen from water then acid gives the reactivity order Y, most reactive, followed by X, then Z, least reactive.
Answer: (B)

Question 24

The diagram shows a metal being extracted from its powdered ore using carbon.

What happens to the ore in this reaction?

A. It burns.
B. It decomposes.
C. It is oxidised.
D. It is reduced.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — the ease of obtaining a metal is related to its position in the reactivity series; ores are reduced by carbon.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The metal ore is typically a metal oxide, such as iron(III) oxide, prior to extraction.
Carbon removes the oxygen from the metal oxide, converting it into the pure metal.
The loss of oxygen from the ore is, by definition, a reduction reaction, while the carbon itself is oxidised.
Answer: (D)

Question 25

Which statement about the treatment of the water supply is correct?

A. Chlorination is used to improve the taste of the water.
B. Chlorination is used to kill bacteria.
C. Filtration is used to adjust the pH of the water.
D. Filtration is used to remove soluble impurities.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.1: Water — treatment of the domestic water supply, including chlorination to kill microbes (pathogens).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chlorination adds chlorine to water specifically to kill harmful microbes and pathogens, making the water safe to drink.
Carbon, not chlorine, is used to improve taste and remove odours.
Filtration removes insoluble solids from water; it cannot remove soluble impurities or adjust pH, ruling out options C and D.
Answer: (B)

Question 26

Why do farmers add limestone to soil?

A. It acts as a fertiliser.
B. It adds nitrogen to the soil.
C. It decreases the pH of the soil.
D. It increases the pH of the soil.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone is calcium carbonate, a base, and reacts with excess acid present in the soil.
This acid–base neutralisation reaction reduces soil acidity, raising the pH of the soil towards neutral.
Limestone contains no nitrogen and is not itself a fertiliser, so options A, B and C are incorrect.
Answer: (D)

Question 27

Which method is used to make ethanol?

A. fermentation of sugar by yeast
B. reacting ethane with bromine
C. reacting ethene with bromine
D. reacting methane with steam

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.6: Alcohols — state the uses of ethanol; production of ethanol by fermentation of sugar is the classic method, though the fermentation process itself is not detailed in the current syllabus wording, which now focuses on combustion and uses of ethanol.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ethanol is traditionally produced biologically, using yeast to convert sugar into ethanol and carbon dioxide.
This biological process is called fermentation, and is carried out in the absence of oxygen.
Reacting ethene with steam (not listed here) is the industrial alternative, while the other listed reactions do not produce ethanol.
Answer: (A)

Question 28

The diagram shows the level of water in a measuring cylinder.

What is the volume of water in the measuring cylinder?

A. 73.5 cm3  
B. 74.0 cm3  
C. 76.5 cm3  
D. 77.0 cm3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.1: Physical quantities and measurement techniques — describe the use of measuring cylinders to find a volume, reading from the bottom of the meniscus.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A measuring cylinder must be read at eye level, taking the reading from the bottom of the curved meniscus.
The scale shown runs between the marked 70 cm\(^3\) and 75 cm\(^3\) graduations.
Reading the meniscus position between these marks gives a volume of 73.5 cm\(^3\).
Answer: (A)

Question 29

The diagrams show the only forces acting on four moving objects.
Which object is travelling at constant speed?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of Forces — an object continues at constant speed only when there is no resultant force acting on it.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An object moves at constant speed only when the forces acting on it are perfectly balanced, giving zero resultant force.
Any object with unequal opposing forces experiences a resultant force and therefore accelerates or decelerates.
Object D is the only one shown with two equal and opposite forces (10 N and 10 N), so it has no resultant force and travels at constant speed.
Answer: (D)

Question 30

A uniform plank is placed on a pivot, with its centre immediately above the pivot. A load of 10 N is suspended on the left, 45 cm from the pivot, and a load of 20 N is suspended on the right, 45 cm from the pivot.

What happens to the plank?

A. The left-hand side moves down, the right-hand side moves up and the plank does not return to its horizontal position.
B. The left-hand side moves up, the right-hand side moves down and the plank does not return to its horizontal position.
C. The plank moves down on one side then returns to its horizontal position.
D. The plank remains horizontal without moving.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.2: Turning effect of forces — moment = force × perpendicular distance from the pivot; apply the principle of moments to a balanced beam.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The moment of each load is calculated as \( \text{moment} = \text{force} \times \text{perpendicular distance} \).
The right-hand moment, \( 20\,\text{N} \times 0.45\,\text{m} = 9\,\text{Nm} \), is greater than the left-hand moment, \( 10\,\text{N} \times 0.45\,\text{m} = 4.5\,\text{Nm} \).
Since the moments are unequal, the plank is not in equilibrium: the heavier right-hand side moves down permanently while the left-hand side moves up.
Answer: (B)

Question 31

A student walks up some steps at constant speed.
Which two quantities provide enough information so that the useful power produced by the student can be calculated?

A. the weight of the student and the time taken
B. the weight of the student and the total height of the steps
C. the work done by the student and the time taken
D. the work done by the student and the total height of the steps

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.4: Power — power is defined as work done per unit time; \( P = \frac{W}{t} \).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Power is defined by the equation \( P = \dfrac{W}{t} \), where W is the work done and t is the time taken.
To use this equation directly, both the work done and the time taken must be known.
Weight and height alone (options A, B) would only give work done indirectly and do not include time, so they are insufficient on their own without also knowing the time.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

Which energy resource does not use a turbine and generator to produce electricity?

A. geothermal
B. nuclear fission
C. solar cells
D. wind

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — describe how useful energy may be obtained from light from the Sun (solar cells), which converts light directly into electricity without a turbine or generator.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Geothermal, nuclear fission and wind power all generate electricity indirectly, by using heat or moving air to spin a turbine connected to a generator.
Solar cells work differently: they convert light energy directly into electrical energy using the photovoltaic effect.
Since no turbine or generator is involved in this direct conversion, solar cells are the correct answer.
Answer: (C)

Question 33

What happens to the temperature of a substance as it is melting and as it is boiling?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.2: Melting, boiling and evaporation — describe melting and boiling in terms of energy input without a change in temperature.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During melting, energy input is used to break intermolecular bonds rather than increase the kinetic energy of particles.
Similarly, during boiling, all energy input goes into separating particles into a gas, not raising their temperature.
In both processes the temperature therefore stays constant (no change) until the change of state is complete.
Answer: (D)

Question 34

The diagram shows light from an object passing through a converging lens to form an image.

Which description of the image is correct?

A. diminished and inverted
B. diminished and upright
C. enlarged and inverted
D. enlarged and upright

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.3: Thin converging lens — draw and use ray diagrams for the formation of a real image, describing it as enlarged/diminished and upright/inverted.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The object in the diagram is placed well beyond twice the focal length of the converging lens.
When an object is placed beyond 2F, the resulting real image forms closer to the lens, between F and 2F on the other side.
Such an image is always smaller than the object (diminished) and inverted (upside down) relative to the object.
Answer: (A)

Question 35

Which statement about sound is correct?

A. An echo is produced by refraction of sound waves.
B. The amplitude of a sound wave affects the pitch of a sound.
C. The approximate range of audible frequencies for a human is 20 Hz–20kHz.
D. Sound waves travel more quickly in a vacuum than in air.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — state the approximate range of frequencies audible to humans as 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The typical human range of hearing extends from about 20 Hz up to 20 kHz, matching statement C.
An echo is caused by the reflection of sound waves, not refraction, so statement A is incorrect.
Amplitude affects loudness, not pitch (frequency affects pitch), and sound cannot travel through a vacuum since it needs a medium, so statements B and D are also incorrect.
Answer: (C)

Question 36

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth and the rod becomes positively charged.
Why does this happen?

A. Electrons move from the cloth to the rod.
B. Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C. Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D. Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.1: Electrical charge — charging of solids by friction involves only a transfer of negative charge (electrons).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Charging by friction only ever involves the transfer of electrons; protons never move between materials.
If the rod ends up positively charged, it must have lost negative charge overall.
This means electrons have moved away from the rod and onto the cloth, leaving the rod with an excess of positive charge.
Answer: (B)

Question 37

Which row shows how lamps are connected in a lighting circuit in a house and gives an advantage of connecting them in this way?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components — know the advantages of connecting lamps in parallel in a circuit, including that they can be switched separately.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Household lighting circuits connect lamps in parallel rather than in series.
In a parallel circuit, each lamp is on its own separate branch, so each lamp receives the full supply voltage and can be switched on or off independently of the others.
This matches row A: lamps connected in parallel, with the advantage that they can be switched separately.
Answer: (A)

Question 38

A 240V mains lamp operating normally has a working resistance of 480 Ω.
Which rating of fuse is most suitable to use with this lamp?

A. 0.4A  
B. 1A  
C. 2A  
D. 4A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits/Electrical safety — choose appropriate fuse ratings by calculating current using \( I = \frac{V}{R} \).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The normal operating current is found using \( I = \dfrac{V}{R} = \dfrac{240}{480} = 0.5\,\text{A} \).
A suitable fuse must have a rating just above this normal operating current, so it does not blow during normal use.
The 1A fuse is the smallest of the given ratings that is still greater than 0.5 A, making it the most suitable choice.
Answer: (B)

Question 39

An atom of beryllium is represented by \( ^{9}_{4}Be \).
How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this type of beryllium atom?

A. 4  
B. 5  
C. 9  
D. 13

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.1: The nucleus — define proton number (Z) and nucleon number (A), and calculate the number of neutrons in a nucleus as A − Z.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The nucleon number (mass number), 9, represents the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
The proton number (atomic number), 4, represents the number of protons only.
The number of neutrons is found using \( \text{neutrons} = A – Z = 9 – 4 = 5 \).
Answer: (B)

Question 40

A pure sample of a radioactive substance decays. The graph shows how the number of these radioactive atoms in the sample changes with time.

What is the half-life of the substance?

A. 10 s  
B. 20 s  
C. 30 s  
D. 40 s

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.4: Half-life — the time taken for half the nuclei of a radioactive isotope in a sample to decay, read from a decay curve.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The initial number of radioactive atoms on the graph is 800.
Half-life is the time taken for this number to fall to half its value, i.e. from 800 down to 400 atoms.
Reading across from the graph, the number of atoms reaches 400 at a time of 10 s, so the half-life is 10 s.
Answer: (A)
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