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Question 1

Which statement about one of the characteristics of living organisms is correct?

A. Excretion is the removal of excess substances and toxic materials.
B. Movement is the ability to detect and respond to changes in the environment.
C. Nutrition is the maintenance of a constant internal environment.
D. Respiration is the manufacture of nutrients from raw materials.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — the seven life processes and their correct definitions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excretion is defined as the removal of toxic materials, the waste products of metabolism, and substances in excess of requirements.
Movement actually describes response to stimuli via sensitivity, not movement itself.
Nutrition is the process of obtaining nutrients, not maintaining a constant internal environment (that’s homeostasis).
Respiration releases energy from nutrients rather than manufacturing them.
Answer: (A)

Question 2

Which statement about cells is correct?

A. Cell membranes are found only in animal cells.
B. Cell membranes are found only in plant cells.
C. Cell walls are found only in animal cells.
D. Cell walls are found only in plant cells.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — differences between plant and animal cells, including the presence of a cell wall.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cell membranes are present in both plant and animal cells, so options A and B are incorrect.
Cell walls are a rigid structure made of cellulose that surrounds plant cells only.
Animal cells never have a cell wall, so option C is incorrect.
Answer: (D)

Question 3

Which small molecules are joined together to make a starch molecule?

A. amino acids
B. fatty acids
C. glucose
D. glycerol

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — starch is a carbohydrate polymer built from glucose monomer units.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Starch is a carbohydrate, so it is built from sugar monomers rather than amino acids, fatty acids, or glycerol.
Amino acids are the monomers of proteins, not carbohydrates.
Fatty acids and glycerol are the components of lipids (fats), not starch.
Many glucose molecules join together through condensation reactions to form the long-chain polymer starch.
Answer: (C)

Question 4

The graph shows the effect of increasing temperature on an enzyme-controlled reaction.

What are the correct labels for the y-axis and the x-axis?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — effect of temperature on enzyme-controlled reaction rate, interpreting graphs.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Enzyme-activity graphs plot the dependent variable, rate of reaction, on the y-axis.
The independent variable being changed, temperature, is plotted on the x-axis.
The curve typically rises to an optimum then falls sharply as the enzyme denatures at high temperature.
Answer: (A)

Question 5

Which graph shows the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis, if all other factors are kept constant?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — effect of light intensity as a limiting factor on the rate of photosynthesis.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As light intensity increases from zero, the rate of photosynthesis rises proportionally at first.
Eventually another factor, such as carbon dioxide concentration or temperature, becomes limiting.
Beyond this point the rate levels off and stays constant even as light intensity keeps increasing, giving a curve that rises then plateaus.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

The diagram shows part of the digestive system.

Which labelled parts produce digestive enzymes, absorb water and store bile?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.2: Digestive system — structure and function of organs including their roles in enzyme production, water absorption, and bile storage.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the digestive system diagram, R is the labelled part corresponding to the small intestine, which secretes digestive enzymes.
S corresponds to the large intestine, which absorbs water from undigested food.
P corresponds to the gall bladder, which stores bile produced by the liver before it is released into the small intestine.
Answer: (C)

Question 7

Where does evaporation of water occur during transpiration?

A. from the air spaces through the stomata
B. from the phloem
C. from the surfaces of mesophyll cells
D. from the xylem

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.3: Transpiration — the process of transpiration, including where water evaporates within the leaf.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Water moves from the xylem into the mesophyll cells inside the leaf.
It evaporates from the moist surfaces of these mesophyll cells into the internal air spaces of the leaf.
The water vapour then diffuses out of the leaf through the stomata into the surrounding air, which is the final exit step rather than the evaporation site itself.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

Which row is correct about the components of tobacco smoke and their effects?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B14.1: Drugs — effects of tobacco smoke components on health, including carcinogens and addictive substances.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carbon monoxide reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood rather than being addictive.
Nicotine is the addictive component of tobacco smoke, not a carcinogen.
Smoke particles and tar together are linked to lung damage, with tar specifically identified as a carcinogen that can cause cancer.
Answer: (D)

Question 9

The graph shows the changes in blood glucose concentration during two hours of exercise.

What causes the change in blood glucose concentration between 30 and 60 min?

  1. increased adrenaline release
  2. increased glucagon release
  3. increased insulin release

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.3: Homeostasis — hormonal control of blood glucose concentration by adrenaline, glucagon, and insulin.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Between 30 and 60 minutes the graph shows blood glucose concentration rising back up during continued exercise.
Adrenaline released during exercise stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose, raising blood glucose levels.
Increased insulin release would lower blood glucose rather than raise it, so option 3 does not fit the observed rise.
Answer: (A)

Question 10

The diagram shows a wind-pollinated flower.

Which structure is adapted to receive pollen?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.3: Sexual reproduction in plants — flower structure and adaptations of wind-pollinated flowers, including the feathery stigma.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The stigma is the structure that receives pollen grains during pollination.
In wind-pollinated flowers, the stigma is typically large, feathery, and exposed outside the flower to catch airborne pollen.
This is distinct from the anther, which produces pollen, and the ovary, which contains the ovules.
Answer: (B)

Question 11

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease caused by a recessive allele.

What is the genetic composition of the parents?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.3: Monohybrid inheritance — interpreting family pedigree diagrams to deduce genotypes for a recessive genetic disease.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive allele, so an affected child must inherit one recessive allele from each parent.
If both unaffected parents in the pedigree have an affected child, both parents must carry the recessive allele while showing the unaffected phenotype.
This means both parents are heterozygous, i.e. carriers, for the cystic fibrosis allele.
Answer: (A)

Question 12

Which organisms obtain energy directly from every trophic level?

A. carnivores
B. decomposers
C. herbivores
D. producers

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.1: Energy flow — the role of decomposers in obtaining energy from dead organisms and waste at every trophic level.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carnivores obtain energy only from other animals, and herbivores only from producers, so neither draws from every trophic level.
Producers make their own energy from sunlight and don’t feed on other organisms at all.
Decomposers break down dead matter and waste from producers, herbivores, and carnivores alike, so they obtain energy from organisms at every trophic level.
Answer: (B)

Question 13

Which flowchart correctly shows the stages of eutrophication?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.2: Conservation — the process of eutrophication caused by excess nitrate fertiliser runoff.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Eutrophication starts with increased nitrates entering water, usually from fertiliser runoff, which causes producers such as algae to increase rapidly.
This algal bloom blocks light, causing plant death and increased decomposition as decomposers respire aerobically to break down the extra dead matter.
This increased aerobic respiration by decomposers depletes dissolved oxygen, leading to the death of aquatic organisms such as fish.
Answer: (D)

Question 14

A mixture contains solid P dissolved in liquid Q.

Which process is used to obtain a pure sample of liquid Q from this mixture?

A. crystallisation
B. distillation
C. evaporation
D. paper chromatography

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.4: Separation and purification — choosing the correct method to obtain a pure solvent from a solution.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Crystallisation and evaporation are used to obtain the dissolved solid, P, not the pure liquid solvent.
Paper chromatography separates dissolved substances based on solubility differences, and doesn’t isolate a pure liquid either.
Distillation heats the mixture so liquid Q evaporates and is then condensed and collected separately, leaving solid P behind, giving a pure sample of Q.
Answer: (B)

Question 15

Three different processes are listed.

  1. heating ice to form water
  2. lighting a match
  3. removing zinc from sodium chloride solution by filtration

Which processes are physical changes?

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.1: Physical and chemical changes — distinguishing reversible physical changes from irreversible chemical reactions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Heating ice to form water is a change of state, which is reversible and involves no new substance, so it is physical.
Lighting a match is a combustion reaction that produces new substances such as carbon dioxide and water, so it is a chemical change.
Removing zinc from sodium chloride solution by filtration only physically separates an insoluble solid from a solution without forming new substances, so it is physical.
Answer: (C)

Question 16

Sodium phosphate, \(\text{Na}_3\text{PO}_4\), contains sodium ions, \(\text{Na}^+\).

Aluminium sulfate, \(\text{Al}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3\), contains sulfate ions, \(\text{SO}_4^{2-}\).

What is the formula of aluminium phosphate?

A. \(\text{AlPO}_4\)
B. \(\text{Al(PO}_4)_2\)
C. \(\text{Al}_2(\text{PO}_4)_3\)
D. \(\text{Al}_3(\text{PO}_4)_2\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.4: Ions and formulae — deducing ionic charges from given compounds and constructing formulae for new ionic compounds.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since \(\text{Na}_3\text{PO}_4\) balances three \(\text{Na}^+\) ions, the phosphate ion must carry a charge of \(\text{PO}_4^{3-}\).
Aluminium ions carry a charge of \(\text{Al}^{3+}\), deduced from \(\text{Al}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3\) balancing two \(\text{Al}^{3+}\) against three \(\text{SO}_4^{2-}\).
Since \(\text{Al}^{3+}\) and \(\text{PO}_4^{3-}\) have equal and opposite charges, they combine in a 1:1 ratio, giving the formula \(\text{AlPO}_4\).
Answer: (A)

Question 17

Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

Which statement about this electrolysis is correct?

A. Copper ions are attracted to the cathode.
B. Electrons move from the cathode to the anode.
C. Electrolyte ions are oxidised at the cathode.
D. Sulfate ions are reduced to sulfur dioxide.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — movement of ions and electrons, and identifying oxidation/reduction at each electrode.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Copper ions, \(\text{Cu}^{2+}\), are positively charged so they migrate towards the negative cathode, where they gain electrons and are reduced to copper metal.
Reduction, not oxidation, occurs at the cathode, ruling out option C.
Electrons flow through the external circuit from the anode to the cathode, not the reverse, and sulfate ions remain in solution rather than being reduced to sulfur dioxide.
Answer: (A)

Question 18

Sodium reacts with chlorine to form sodium chloride.

The equation is shown.

\(2\text{Na} + \text{Cl}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NaCl}\)

During the reaction, sodium atoms ……1…… electrons and chlorine molecules act as ……2…… .

Which row completes gaps 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — identifying oxidation and reduction in terms of electron transfer, and naming oxidising/reducing agents.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sodium atoms each lose one electron to form \(\text{Na}^+\) ions, since sodium is being oxidised in this reaction.
Chlorine molecules gain those electrons to form \(\text{Cl}^-\) ions, meaning chlorine is reduced.
A substance that is reduced (gains electrons) while causing another substance to be oxidised is called an oxidising agent, so chlorine acts as the oxidising agent.
Answer: (C)

Question 19

Which row shows the flame test colours for lithium and sodium?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Qualitative analysis — flame test colours for common metal ions, including lithium and sodium.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Lithium compounds produce a characteristic red flame colour in a flame test.
Sodium compounds produce a characteristic persistent yellow flame colour.
This rules out lilac (a potassium flame colour) and blue-green (a copper flame colour), leaving red and yellow as the correct pairing.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

A gas is used in welding metals together at high temperatures.

The gas is used to provide an inert atmosphere.

What is the gas?

A. argon
B. carbon dioxide
C. fluorine
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — properties and uses of noble gases, including argon’s inertness.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An inert atmosphere requires a gas that does not react with the hot metal being welded.
Argon is a noble gas with a full outer electron shell, making it extremely unreactive and ideal for this purpose.
Carbon dioxide, fluorine, and oxygen can all react chemically with hot metals, so they would not provide an inert atmosphere.
Answer: (A)

Question 21

Which row does not link a general physical property to the type of element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.1: Properties of metals — general physical properties that distinguish the two classes of elements.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Metals are generally malleable and good thermal conductors, so rows A and B correctly link property to element type.
Non-metals typically have low melting points compared to metals, so row D is also a correct link.
Non-metals are generally poor electrical conductors, not good ones (except graphite), so row C incorrectly links electrical conductor to non-metal.
Answer: (C)

Question 22

Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace.

Why is limestone added to the furnace?

A. It decreases the melting point of the mixture.
B. It increases the temperature inside the furnace.
C. It produces calcium oxide which removes acidic impurities.
D. It produces carbon dioxide which reduces the hematite.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — the role of limestone in removing acidic impurities during iron extraction in the blast furnace.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone, \(\text{CaCO}_3\), decomposes on heating to form calcium oxide, \(\text{CaO}\), and carbon dioxide.
The calcium oxide is a base that reacts with acidic impurities such as silica (\(\text{SiO}_2\)) in the ore to form molten slag.
This removes impurities from the iron rather than reducing the hematite itself, which is instead reduced by carbon monoxide.
Answer: (C)

Question 23

A piece of iron is coated with a layer of zinc.

Which statement explains why zinc prevents iron from rusting, even when the layer of zinc is damaged?

A. Iron is less reactive than zinc and zinc atoms lose electrons less easily than iron atoms.
B. Iron is less reactive than zinc and zinc atoms lose electrons more easily than iron atoms.
C. Iron is more reactive than zinc and zinc atoms lose electrons less easily than iron atoms.
D. Iron is more reactive than zinc and zinc atoms lose electrons more easily than iron atoms.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.5: Corrosion of metals — sacrificial protection of iron by a more reactive metal such as zinc.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Zinc is more reactive than iron, which means iron is less reactive than zinc.
Being more reactive means zinc atoms lose electrons more easily than iron atoms, forming ions more readily.
Because zinc loses electrons in preference to iron, it corrodes first and protects the iron even where the coating is scratched, a process called sacrificial protection.
Answer: (B)

Question 24

Sulfuric acid is produced in the Contact process.

Which substances react together in a reversible reaction in the Contact process?

A. \(\text{S}\) and \(\text{O}_2\)
B. \(\text{SO}_2\) and \(\text{O}_2\)
C. \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\) and \(\text{SO}_3\)
D. \(\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — the Contact process, including the key reversible reaction step.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the Contact process, sulfur is first burned in air to form sulfur dioxide, and this initial combustion step is not reversible.
The key reversible step is \(2\text{SO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3\), where sulfur dioxide reacts with oxygen to form sulfur trioxide over a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst.
The later steps converting \(\text{SO}_3\) into \(\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7\) and then into \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\) are not reversible reactions.
Answer: (B)

Question 25

Why do farmers add limestone to soil?

A. It acts as a fertiliser.
B. It adds nitrogen to the soil.
C. It decreases the pH of the soil.
D. It increases the pH of the soil.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — using limestone as a base to neutralise acidic soils and raise pH.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone, calcium carbonate, is a base that neutralises excess acidity commonly found in soil.
Neutralising acid raises the pH of the soil towards neutral, making it more suitable for growing crops.
Limestone contains no nitrogen and does not directly supply plant nutrients, so it does not act as a fertiliser.
Answer: (D)

Question 26

The same mass of five different alkanes are left to evaporate under identical conditions.

The mass lost by each alkane in one day is measured.

Which graph shows the mass lost against the number of carbon atoms in each alkane chain?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.4: Alkanes — the trend in volatility (rate of evaporation) with increasing chain length, linked to intermolecular forces.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Longer alkane chains have stronger intermolecular (van der Waals) forces due to a greater number of electrons and surface area of contact between molecules.
Stronger intermolecular forces mean more energy is needed for molecules to escape into the gas phase, so evaporation is slower.
This means mass lost through evaporation decreases steadily as the number of carbon atoms in the chain increases, giving a downward-sloping line.
Answer: (A)

Question 27

A section of a polymer made from two different monomers is shown.

Which monomers are used to make this polymer?

A. \(\text{HO}_2\text{CCH}_2\text{CO}_2\text{H}\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{NCH}_2\text{NH}_2\)
B. \(\text{HO}_2\text{CCH}_2\text{CO}_2\text{H}\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{NCH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{NH}_2\)
C. \(\text{HO}_2\text{CCH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CO}_2\text{H}\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{NCH}_2\text{NH}_2\)
D. \(\text{HO}_2\text{CCH}_2\text{NH}_2\) and \(\text{HO}_2\text{CCH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{NH}_2\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — condensation polymerisation, identifying monomer units from a repeat-unit structure.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The repeat unit shown contains amide (\(-\text{CONH}-\)) linkages joining carbon chains of different lengths on either side, so this is a condensation polymer formed from two different amino-acid-like monomers rather than a diamine-diacid pair.
Each monomer here contains both an amine group (\(-\text{NH}_2\)) and a carboxylic acid group (\(-\text{CO}_2\text{H}\)) on the same molecule, since the polymer alternates between two distinct amino-acid-type units of different chain lengths.
Options A, B, and C describe diamine + diacid monomer pairs (like nylon), which don’t match the mixed-length, single-monomer-type linkage pattern shown, whereas \(\text{HO}_2\text{CCH}_2\text{NH}_2\) and \(\text{HO}_2\text{CCH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{NH}_2\) fit the structure.
Answer: (D)

Question 28

What is the difference between speed and velocity?

A. Speed has magnitude and direction; velocity has magnitude only.
B. Speed has magnitude and direction; velocity has direction only.
C. Speed has magnitude only; velocity has magnitude and direction.
D. Speed has magnitude only; velocity has direction only.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — distinguishing scalar quantities (speed) from vector quantities (velocity).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Speed is a scalar quantity, meaning it only has magnitude (size) and no specified direction.
Velocity is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and a specified direction.
This distinction is why two objects can have the same speed but different velocities if they are moving in different directions.
Answer: (C)

Question 29

The diagram shows a car of mass 1000 kg travelling along a straight, horizontal road. The driving force from the car’s engine is 3000 N. The total resistive force acting on the car is 2500 N.

What is the acceleration of the car along the road?

A. 0.50 m/s²
B. 2.0 m/s²
C. 3.0 m/s²
D. 5.5 m/s²

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — calculating resultant force and using \(F = ma\) to find acceleration.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The resultant force is found by subtracting the resistive force from the driving force: \(3000 – 2500 = 500\ \text{N}\).
Using \(F = ma\), rearranged to \(a = \frac{F}{m}\), gives \(a = \frac{500}{1000} = 0.5\ \text{m/s}^2\).
This resultant force acts in the direction of motion, so the car accelerates forward at 0.50 m/s².
Answer: (A)

Question 30

An object moving at speed \(v\) has kinetic energy \(E\).

What is the speed of the object when its kinetic energy is \(4.0E\)?

A. \(0.25v\)
B. \(2.0v\)
C. \(4.0v\)
D. \(16v\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.1: Energy — the kinetic energy formula and how energy scales with the square of speed.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Kinetic energy is given by \(E = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\), so energy is proportional to the square of the speed.
If the new kinetic energy is \(4.0E\), then \(v’^2\) must be 4 times \(v^2\), since mass stays constant.
Taking the square root, the new speed \(v’\) is \(2.0\) times the original speed \(v\).
Answer: (B)

Question 31

A passenger lift (elevator) has a total weight of 4000 N, including the people inside it. The power output of the lift motor is 800 W.

How much time does it take for the lift to rise 12 m vertically?

A. 2.4 s
B. 6.0 s
C. 24 s
D. 60 s

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topics P1.6.2 & P1.6.4: Work and Power — calculating work done against gravity and using power to find time taken.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The work done lifting the lift is calculated using \(W = Fd = 4000 \times 12 = 48000\ \text{J}\).
Power is the rate of doing work, so \(P = \frac{W}{t}\), which rearranges to \(t = \frac{W}{P}\).
Substituting values gives \(t = \frac{48000}{800} = 60\ \text{s}\).
Answer: (D)

Question 32

What happens to the temperature of a substance as it is melting and as it is boiling?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.2: Melting, boiling and evaporation — energy input during a change of state goes into breaking bonds, not raising temperature.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During melting, energy supplied is used entirely to overcome the forces holding particles in a fixed arrangement, not to increase kinetic energy.
The same applies during boiling, where energy breaks intermolecular forces to separate particles into a gas.
Since none of the added energy increases particle kinetic energy during either process, temperature stays constant throughout both melting and boiling.
Answer: (D)

Question 33

The diagram shows how a thin, converging lens forms an image of an object. One principal focus of the lens is labelled F.

How is the image described?

A. enlarged, upright and real
B. enlarged, upright and virtual
C. diminished, inverted and real
D. diminished, inverted and virtual

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.3: Thin converging lens — image formation, describing images as real/virtual, upright/inverted, and enlarged/diminished.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
With the object placed close to the lens between the principal focus F and the lens itself, the rays diverge after passing through and don’t actually converge on the far side.
This means the image formed is virtual, since it can’t be projected onto a screen.
An object placed inside the focal length of a converging lens always produces an image that is enlarged and upright compared to the object.
Answer: (B)

Question 34

Which statement about sound is correct?

A. An echo is produced by refraction of sound waves.
B. The amplitude of a sound wave affects the pitch of a sound.
C. The approximate range of audible frequencies for a human is 20 Hz–20 kHz.
D. Sound waves travel more quickly in a vacuum than in air.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — properties of sound waves, including the human audible frequency range, and how sound requires a medium to travel.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An echo is produced by reflection of sound waves off a surface, not refraction.
Pitch is determined by frequency, while amplitude affects loudness, so option B pairs the wrong properties.
Sound waves need a medium of particles to travel through, so they cannot travel at all in a vacuum, ruling out option D; the typical human hearing range is approximately 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
Answer: (C)

Question 35

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth and the rod becomes positively charged.

Why does this happen?

A. Electrons move from the cloth to the rod.
B. Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C. Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D. Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.1: Electrical charge — charging by friction explained in terms of electron transfer between materials.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Charging by friction always involves the transfer of electrons, since protons are held tightly within the nucleus and cannot move between materials.
If the rod ends up positively charged, it must have lost negative charge overall.
This happens because electrons move from the rod to the cloth, leaving the rod with an excess of positive charge.
Answer: (B)

Question 36

The resistance of a wire is 20 Ω. A second wire is made of the same material. The second wire is four times as long and has half the cross-sectional area of the first wire.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

A. 10 Ω
B. 40 Ω
C. 80 Ω
D. 160 Ω

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — how resistance depends on the length and cross-sectional area of a wire.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Resistance is directly proportional to length, so increasing the length by 4 times increases resistance by a factor of 4.
Resistance is inversely proportional to cross-sectional area, so halving the area increases resistance by a further factor of 2.
Combining both factors, the new resistance is \(20 \times 4 \times 2 = 160\ \Omega\).
Answer: (D)

Question 37

Which row shows how lamps are connected in a lighting circuit in a house and gives an advantage of connecting them in this way?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — why lamps in a house are wired in parallel rather than in series.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
House lighting circuits connect lamps in parallel so that each lamp receives the full supply voltage independently.
Because each lamp is on its own separate branch, individual lamps can be switched on or off without affecting the others.
If lamps were connected in series instead, turning one lamp off would break the circuit and turn off all the other lamps too.
Answer: (A)

Question 38

A transformer increases the voltage from a power station in order to transfer electricity along transmission cables.

How does increasing the voltage affect the current in the cables and how does it affect the efficiency of energy transfer?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.6: The transformer — how step-up transformers reduce current and minimise energy loss during transmission.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since power equals voltage multiplied by current, increasing voltage for the same transmitted power means the current must decrease.
Energy lost as heat in the cables depends on current squared multiplied by resistance, so a lower current greatly reduces these losses.
Reducing energy losses in the cables increases the overall efficiency of energy transfer.
Answer: (B)

Question 39

An atom of beryllium is represented by \({}_{4}^{9}\text{Be}\).

How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this type of beryllium atom?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 9
D. 13

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.1: The nucleus — calculating the number of neutrons from mass number and atomic (proton) number.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The mass number, 9, represents the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
The atomic number, 4, represents the number of protons only.
Subtracting gives the number of neutrons: \(9 – 4 = 5\).
Answer: (B)

Question 40

A beam of α-particles and β-particles passes into an electric field between two horizontal parallel plates in a vacuum.

Which row shows what happens to the beam?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission — deflection of alpha and beta particles in an electric field based on their charge.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The diagram shows the top plate positive and the bottom plate negative, so positive charges are pulled towards the bottom (negative) plate.
Alpha particles are positively charged, so they are deflected downwards towards the negative plate.
Beta particles are negatively charged, so they are deflected in the opposite direction, upwards towards the positive plate.
Answer: (A)
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