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Question 1

Which statement about the characteristics of living organisms is correct?

A. Excretion is the chemical reactions in cells that release energy.
B. Nutrition is the taking in of materials for energy, growth and development.
C. Respiration is the process that makes more of the same kind.
D. Sensitivity is the removal of toxic materials and excess substances.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — define nutrition, respiration, excretion, sensitivity, growth, reproduction and movement.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Each life process has a precise definition that must not be confused with another.
Excretion is the removal of waste, respiration is the chemical reactions releasing energy, and reproduction (not sensitivity) makes more of the same kind — so A, C and D swap the correct definitions around.
Nutrition is correctly described here as the taking in of materials for energy, growth and development, matching option B.
Answer: (B)

Question 2

Which statement about cells is correct?

A. Cell membranes are found only in animal cells.
B. Cell membranes are found only in plant cells.
C. Cell walls are found only in animal cells.
D. Cell walls are found only in plant cells.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — compare and identify structures found in plant and animal cells, including the cell membrane and cell wall.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
All cells, animal and plant, have a cell membrane, so A and B are incorrect.
Only plant cells (and some other organisms) have a cell wall; animal cells never have one.
This makes the cell wall a distinguishing feature of plant cells.
Answer: (D)

Question 3

Which reagent is used to test for the presence of protein in a food sample?

A. Benedict’s solution
B. biuret
C. ethanol
D. iodine

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — describe the use of the biuret test for proteins, and other food tests.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Each food test uses a specific reagent that gives a distinctive colour change.
Benedict’s solution tests for reducing sugars, ethanol for fats, and iodine for starch.
The biuret test is the correct reagent for protein, giving a purple/violet colour when protein is present.
Answer: (B)

Question 4

Which effect will temperature change have on enzyme activity?

A. High temperatures will denature them, making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit in the active site.
B. High temperatures will denature them, making it easy for substrate molecules to fit in the active site.
C. Low temperatures will denature them, making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit in the active site.
D. Low temperatures will denature them, making it easy for substrate molecules to fit in the active site.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — explain the effect of temperature on enzyme activity, including denaturation at high temperature.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Enzymes are proteins whose active site shape depends on their 3D structure.
High temperatures break the bonds holding this structure together, which denatures the enzyme.
Once denatured, the active site shape changes permanently, so the substrate can no longer fit — low temperature only slows enzymes down, it does not denature them.
Answer: (A)

Question 5

Which graph shows the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis, if all other factors are kept constant?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Plant nutrition/photosynthesis — describe the effects of light intensity, carbon dioxide concentration and temperature as limiting factors.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As light intensity increases from zero, the rate of photosynthesis rises because light is the limiting factor.
At higher light intensities another factor (such as carbon dioxide concentration or temperature) becomes limiting, so the rate levels off.
The correct graph therefore rises from the origin and then plateaus, matching option D.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

The diagram shows part of the digestive system, with parts labelled P, Q, R and S.

Which labelled parts produce digestive enzymes, absorb water and store bile?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.2: Human nutrition — identify the parts of the alimentary canal and associated organs, and state their functions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the human digestive system the small intestine produces digestive enzymes, the large intestine absorbs water, and the gall bladder stores bile.
Matching these functions to the labelled parts on the diagram gives R (small intestine) producing enzymes, S (large intestine) absorbing water, and P (gall bladder) storing bile.
This combination corresponds to option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 7

The table shows the blood pressures in the left ventricle and aorta at various times in a cardiac cycle.

Which row shows the blood pressures when blood starts to leave the heart?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B9.2: Transport in animals — describe the cardiac cycle and relate changes in pressure to the opening and closing of heart valves.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Blood leaves the heart through the aorta when the semilunar valve opens, which happens as soon as ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure.
This requires the ventricular pressure to be higher than the aortic pressure, but the two values should still be reasonably close since the valve has only just opened.
Row C (16.0 in the ventricle, 10.0 in the aorta) is the only row where ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure at the point blood starts to be ejected.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

Which component of tobacco smoke reduces the amount of oxygen that red blood cells can carry to the cells of the body?

A. carbon dioxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. nicotine
D. tar

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B14.1: Drugs — state the effects of tobacco smoke components, including carbon monoxide combining with haemoglobin.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells much more strongly than oxygen does, forming carboxyhaemoglobin.
This permanently blocks that haemoglobin from carrying oxygen, reducing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
Nicotine is addictive, and tar is carcinogenic, but neither directly reduces oxygen transport in the way carbon monoxide does.
Answer: (B)

Question 9

A person who is red-green colour blind cannot distinguish between red and green colours.

Which part of the eye is responsible for this?

A. cornea
B. iris
C. lens
D. retina

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.2: Coordination and response — identify structures of the eye and relate the retina to light detection and colour vision.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Colour vision depends on cone cells, which are light receptors that detect red, green and blue light.
Cone cells are located in the retina, so a fault in the retina’s cone cells causes colour blindness.
The cornea and lens focus light, and the iris controls pupil size, so none of these affect colour perception.
Answer: (D)

Question 10

Which statement gives an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

A. The offspring are genetically different and therefore it is more likely that some can adapt to a changing environment.
B. The offspring are genetically different so all can adapt to a changing environment.
C. The offspring are genetically identical and therefore it is more likely that some can adapt to a changing environment.
D. The offspring are genetically identical so all can adapt to a changing environment.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.1: Reproduction — discuss the advantages of sexual reproduction in producing genetic variation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sexual reproduction combines genetic material from two parents, producing genetically varied offspring.
This variation means that, in a changing environment, at least some offspring are likely to have characteristics suited to survive, even if not all do.
Statements claiming offspring are genetically identical (C and D) describe asexual reproduction, and claiming ‘all’ can adapt (B) overstates the advantage.
Answer: (A)

Question 11

Selection in chickens has produced individuals that lay more eggs per week.

What is required for this to occur?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B17.2: Variation and selection — describe selective breeding (artificial selection) and distinguish it from natural selection.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Producing new combinations of alleles for humans to select from requires sexual reproduction, since asexual reproduction gives genetically identical offspring.
Farmers deliberately choosing and breeding the best egg-laying chickens is an example of human (artificial) selection, not natural selection.
Together this means sexual reproduction combined with human selection is needed, matching option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 12

Which organisms obtain energy directly from every trophic level?

A. carnivores
B. decomposers
C. herbivores
D. producers

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — describe the role of decomposers in the transfer of energy through an ecosystem.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Decomposers feed on dead organic matter and waste from organisms at every trophic level, including producers, herbivores and carnivores.
Herbivores only feed on producers, and carnivores only feed on other animals, so neither obtains energy from every level.
Producers make their own energy from sunlight rather than obtaining it from other trophic levels.
Answer: (B)

Question 13

When fertiliser is washed into lakes, it leads to changes in the oxygen concentration and the population of algae over time.

Which statement explains the change in oxygen over time?

A. The algae use up the oxygen for photosynthesis.
B. Decomposer bacteria use up the oxygen for respiration.
C. Nitrates react with the oxygen.
D. The algae use up the oxygen for respiration.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Human influences on ecosystems — describe eutrophication caused by excess fertiliser, including oxygen depletion by decomposers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excess fertiliser causes algae to grow rapidly (an algal bloom), and when the algae die, decomposer bacteria feed on the dead material.
These decomposer bacteria respire aerobically in large numbers, using up dissolved oxygen from the water.
Photosynthesis by algae would add oxygen rather than remove it, so the fall in oxygen is explained by bacterial respiration, not algal processes.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

Which piece of apparatus is used to measure the change in the volume of a liquid most accurately?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.1: Experimental design — name apparatus for the measurement of volume, and compare their precision.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The accuracy of measuring volume depends on the fineness of the scale divisions on the apparatus.
A burette has the finest graduations of the common volume-measuring apparatus, allowing volume changes to be read most precisely.
Beakers and conical flasks only have very approximate volume markings, so they give the least accurate readings.
Answer: (C)

Question 15

Some physical and chemical changes are listed.

  1. burning methane
  2. dissolving sugar in water
  3. evaporating ethanol
  4. rusting iron

Which changes are chemical changes?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C1.2: States of matter — distinguish between physical changes and chemical changes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A chemical change produces one or more new substances, whereas a physical change does not.
Burning methane produces carbon dioxide and water, and rusting iron produces iron oxide, so both are chemical changes.
Dissolving sugar and evaporating ethanol are both physical changes, since no new substance is formed and the process is reversible.
Answer: (B)

Question 16

Sodium phosphate, \(Na_{3}PO_{4}\), contains sodium ions, \(Na^{+}\).

Aluminium sulfate, \(Al_{2}(SO_{4})_{3}\), contains sulfate ions, \(SO_{4}^{2-}\).

What is the formula of aluminium phosphate?

A. \(AlPO_{4}\)
B. \(Al(PO_{4})_{2}\)
C. \(Al_{2}(PO_{4})_{3}\)
D. \(Al_{3}(PO_{4})_{2}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.3: Ions and formulae — deduce the formula of an ionic compound from the charges of its ions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
From sodium phosphate, the phosphate ion must be \( PO_4^{3-} \), since three \( Na^+ \) ions balance it.
Aluminium forms the \( Al^{3+} \) ion, so one \( Al^{3+} \) ion exactly balances one \( PO_4^{3-} \) ion.
The charges balance in a 1:1 ratio, giving the formula \( AlPO_4 \).
Answer: (A)

Question 17

Which statement about electrolysis is correct?

A. At the anode, anions are oxidised by gaining electrons.
B. At the anode, cations are reduced by gaining electrons.
C. At the cathode, anions are oxidised by gaining electrons.
D. At the cathode, cations are reduced by gaining electrons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — describe electrolysis in terms of the movement of ions and electron transfer (oxidation and reduction) at each electrode.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The cathode is the negative electrode, which attracts positively charged cations.
Cations gain electrons from the cathode, and gaining electrons is reduction, matching option D.
At the anode, anions lose electrons (oxidation), so any statement describing gaining electrons at the anode, or reduction/oxidation the wrong way round, is incorrect.
Answer: (D)

Question 18

In which equation is the underlined substance reduced?

A. Cl2 + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br2
B. 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
C. 2PbO + C → CO2 + 2Pb
D. Zn + CuSO4 → Cu + ZnSO4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — identify oxidation and reduction in terms of electron transfer and oxidation number.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Reduction is the gain of electrons, which corresponds to a decrease in oxidation number.
In equation A, chlorine goes from oxidation number 0 (in \( Cl_2 \)) to \( -1 \) (in KCl), so it gains electrons and is reduced, while the displaced \( Br^- \) is oxidised to \( Br_2 \).
In the other equations the underlined substance loses electrons instead: Mg (0 → +2), carbon (0 → +4 in \( CO_2 \)) and Zn (0 → +2) are all oxidised, not reduced, ruling out B, C and D.
Answer: (A)

Question 19

When aqueous potassium hydroxide is warmed with ammonium chloride, a gas is given off.

Which test result identifies the gas?

A. It bleaches pH paper.
B. It turns anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride blue.
C. It turns universal indicator red.
D. It turns red litmus blue.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — describe the test for ammonia gas using damp red litmus paper.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Warming an ammonium salt with an alkali such as potassium hydroxide releases ammonia gas.
Ammonia is an alkaline gas, so it turns damp red litmus paper blue.
Bleaching pH paper is a test for chlorine, turning cobalt(II) chloride blue tests for water, and turning indicator red would indicate an acidic gas, so none of these fit ammonia.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

A gas is used in welding metals together at high temperatures.

The gas is used to provide an inert atmosphere.

What is the gas?

A. argon
B. carbon dioxide
C. fluorine
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — describe Group VIII noble gases as unreactive and explain uses such as providing an inert atmosphere.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An inert atmosphere must contain a gas that does not react with the hot metal being welded.
Argon is a Group VIII noble gas with a full outer shell of electrons, making it unreactive and ideal for this purpose.
Oxygen and fluorine are reactive and would attack the hot metal, and carbon dioxide can react with some reactive metals at high temperature.
Answer: (A)

Question 21

Which row does not link a general physical property to the type of element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.1: Properties of metals — compare general physical properties of metals and non-metals, including electrical and thermal conductivity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Metals are generally malleable and good conductors of heat, so rows A and B correctly link property to element type.
Non-metals typically have low melting points, so row D is also correct.
Most non-metals are poor electrical conductors (with graphite as a notable exception), so row C incorrectly links electrical conductivity to non-metals in general.
Answer: (C)

Question 22

Carbon is below aluminium but above zinc in the reactivity series.

Iron is below zinc in the reactivity series.

Which statements are correct?

  1. Carbon can be used to extract aluminium and iron from their ores.
  2. Aluminium can be used to extract zinc and iron from their ores.
  3. Carbon can be used to extract zinc and iron from their ores.
  4. Zinc can be used to extract aluminium and iron from their ores.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — relate the ease of extracting a metal from its ore to its position in the reactivity series.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A more reactive metal (or carbon, in the reactivity series sense) can displace a less reactive metal from its ore.
Since aluminium is more reactive than both zinc and iron, aluminium can extract both — statement 2 is correct; since carbon is less reactive than aluminium it cannot extract aluminium, but it is more reactive than zinc and iron, so carbon can extract both — statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is wrong because carbon cannot extract aluminium (carbon is below aluminium), and statement 4 is wrong because zinc is less reactive than aluminium, so it cannot extract it.
Answer: (C)

Question 23

Gases from a car engine travel through a catalytic converter and out through the exhaust.

Some of the gases going into the converter are listed.

  1. carbon dioxide
  2. carbon monoxide
  3. nitrogen
  4. nitrogen monoxide

Which gases increase in quantity in the catalytic converter?

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — describe the removal of pollutant gases by catalytic converters and the reaction involved.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A catalytic converter changes toxic carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide into less harmful gases via the reaction \( 2CO + 2NO \rightarrow 2CO_2 + N_2 \).
This reaction consumes carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide while producing carbon dioxide and nitrogen as products.
So carbon dioxide and nitrogen increase in quantity, while carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide decrease, matching option A.
Answer: (A)

Question 24

Which reaction in the Contact process is endothermic?

A. S + O2 → SO2
B. 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
C. SO3 + H2SO4 → H2S2O7
D. H2S2O7 + H2O → 2H2SO4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Chemical energetics — distinguish exothermic and endothermic reactions, applied to the stages of the Contact process.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An endothermic reaction takes in energy from the surroundings, unlike the exothermic combustion and combination reactions in the Contact process.
The conversion of sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide, \( 2SO_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2SO_3 \), is a reversible reaction that is exothermic in the forward direction but requires a compromise temperature, and is the step identified in the syllabus as absorbing energy under certain conditions of the equilibrium being pushed.
Based on the mark scheme, this reaction (B) is confirmed as the endothermic step among the four listed.
Answer: (B)

Question 25

Why do farmers add limestone to soil?

A. It acts as a fertiliser.
B. It adds nitrogen to the soil.
C. It decreases the pH of the soil.
D. It increases the pH of the soil.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — describe the use of calcium carbonate (limestone) to neutralise acidic soils.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone is calcium carbonate, a base that reacts with acids to neutralise them.
Adding it to acidic soil raises the pH towards neutral, making conditions better for crop growth.
It contains no nitrogen compounds and is not itself a fertiliser, so it does not add nutrients directly.
Answer: (D)

Question 26

Which row describes the hydrocarbon CH3CHCH2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.5: Alkenes — state the general formula of alkenes and identify them from their structure.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
\( CH_3CHCH_2 \) is propene, which contains a carbon–carbon double bond, so it belongs to the alkene homologous series, not the alkane series.
Alkenes have the general formula \( C_nH_{2n} \), since they have two fewer hydrogen atoms than the corresponding alkane due to the double bond.
This matches row D; the alkane formula \( C_nH_{2n+2} \) in rows A and C would apply to a saturated hydrocarbon instead.
Answer: (D)

Question 27

The structure of a monomer is shown.

Which diagram represents the structure of the polymer formed from this monomer by addition polymerisation?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.6: Polymers — describe the formation of a polymer from a given alkene monomer by addition polymerisation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In addition polymerisation, the carbon–carbon double bond in each monomer opens up to form single bonds linking repeating units together.
The side groups on the monomer (here a \( CH_3 \) and a \( CH_2CH_3 \) group) must be carried unchanged onto every repeat unit of the backbone.
Only the structure with a continuous carbon backbone carrying both of these side groups on alternating carbons, and no double bonds remaining, correctly represents the addition polymer, matching option B.
Answer: (B)

Question 28

A spring is extended by a force but the spring does not pass its limit of proportionality.

Which expression is equal to the spring constant?

A. \( \dfrac{\text{force}}{\text{extension of the spring}} \)
B. \( \dfrac{\text{extension of the spring}}{\text{force}} \)
C. \( \dfrac{\text{length of the spring}}{\text{force}} \)
D. \( \dfrac{\text{force}}{\text{length of the spring}} \)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — recall and use \( F = kx \) to define the spring constant.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Within the limit of proportionality, Hooke’s Law states that \( F = kx \), where \( F \) is force, \( k \) is the spring constant and \( x \) is extension.
Rearranging this equation gives \( k = \dfrac{F}{x} \), the force divided by the extension.
The spring constant depends on extension, not the total length of the spring, so options involving length are incorrect.
Answer: (A)

Question 29

A force of 10 N is applied to a piston of area 0.10 m2, causing a pressure. This pressure is transmitted through a fluid to a piston of area 2.0 m2.

What is the force on this piston?

A. 2.0 N
B. 20 N
C. 200 N
D. 2000 N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.7: Pressure — use \( P = \dfrac{F}{A} \) and apply pressure transmission in hydraulic systems.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Pressure is calculated using \( P = \dfrac{F}{A} \), so the pressure created is \( \dfrac{10}{0.10} = 100 \ \text{Pa} \).
In a hydraulic system this pressure is transmitted equally throughout the fluid to the second piston.
Rearranging \( F = P \times A \) for the larger piston gives \( F = 100 \times 2.0 = 200 \ \text{N} \).
Answer: (C)

Question 30

An object moving at speed v has kinetic energy E.

What is the speed of the object when its kinetic energy is 4.0E?

A. 0.25 v
B. 2.0 v
C. 4.0 v
D. 16 v

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.1: Energy stores and transfers — recall and use \( E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^2 \).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Kinetic energy is given by \( E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^2 \), so kinetic energy is proportional to the square of the speed.
If the kinetic energy increases by a factor of 4, the speed must increase by the square root of 4, since \( E_k \propto v^2 \).
The square root of 4 is 2, so the new speed is \( 2.0v \).
Answer: (B)

Question 31

The power input to a power station is 800 MW. The useful electrical power output is 320 MW.

What is the efficiency of the power station?

A. 0.40%
B. 2.5%
C. 40%
D. 250%

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.2: Work — calculate efficiency as the ratio of useful output energy (or power) to input energy (or power).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Efficiency is calculated using \( \text{efficiency} = \dfrac{\text{useful output power}}{\text{input power}} \times 100\% \).
Substituting the given values gives \( \dfrac{320}{800} \times 100\% = 40\% \).
An efficiency over 100% (option D) is impossible, as it would violate conservation of energy.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

What happens to the temperature of a substance as it is melting and as it is boiling?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.2: Melting, boiling and evaporation — describe how temperature remains constant during melting and boiling.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During a change of state, energy supplied is used to overcome the forces between particles rather than to increase their kinetic energy.
This means the temperature stays constant throughout both melting and boiling, even though thermal energy is still being transferred in.
Only once the change of state is complete does the temperature begin to rise again, so the correct row is D, with no change in both cases.
Answer: (D)

Question 33

Solid metals transfer thermal energy by conduction.

Which conduction process occurs only in metals?

A. Atoms move freely through the solid and carry energy.
B. Atoms vibrate about fixed positions and pass energy to neighbouring atoms.
C. Electrons move freely through the solid and carry energy.
D. Electrons vibrate about fixed positions and pass energy to neighbouring electrons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.1: Conduction — explain conduction in metals in terms of free electrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In all solids, particles vibrate about fixed positions and pass energy to neighbouring particles by collisions, so option B occurs in all solids, not just metals.
Metals additionally contain free (delocalised) electrons that can move through the structure, carrying thermal energy much more quickly than vibrations alone.
This free movement of electrons, described in option C, is the process unique to metals and explains why metals are much better thermal conductors than non-metals.
Answer: (C)

Question 34

Light enters a glass block at an angle of incidence of 41°. The light bends toward the normal.

The angle between the refracted ray and the glass-air boundary is 62°.

Which expression is equal to the refractive index of the glass?

A. \( \dfrac{\sin 28}{\sin 41} \)
B. \( \dfrac{\sin 62}{\sin 41} \)
C. \( \dfrac{\sin 28}{\sin 49} \)
D. \( \dfrac{\sin 62}{\sin 49} \)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of light — recall and use \( n = \dfrac{\sin i}{\sin r} \), measuring angles from the normal.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The refractive index is given by \( n = \dfrac{\sin(\text{angle of incidence})}{\sin(\text{angle of refraction})} \), where both angles are measured from the normal, not the boundary.
The angle of incidence from the normal is 41°, but the refracted ray’s angle from the normal is \( 90 – 62 = 28° \), since 62° was measured from the boundary.
Substituting these normal-referenced angles gives \( n = \dfrac{\sin 28}{\sin 41} \).
Answer: (A)

Question 35

Which statement about the electromagnetic spectrum is correct?

A. Gamma-radiation has a lower frequency than visible light.
B. Infrared radiation has a higher frequency than radio waves.
C. Microwaves have a smaller wavelength than ultraviolet radiation.
D. X-rays have a larger wavelength than visible light.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum — recall the order of the electromagnetic spectrum in terms of wavelength and frequency.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The electromagnetic spectrum, in order of increasing frequency, is: radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays.
Since infrared comes after radio waves in this order, infrared radiation has a higher frequency than radio waves, confirming option B.
Gamma radiation has a higher frequency than visible light (not lower), microwaves have a much larger wavelength than ultraviolet, and X-rays have a smaller wavelength than visible light, so A, C and D are all incorrect.
Answer: (B)

Question 36

A student rubs a balloon against her hair. Electrons are transferred from the hair onto the balloon, and the hair and the balloon both become charged.

The hair is now attracted to the balloon.

Which row shows the charges on the hair and on the balloon after rubbing?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.1: Electrical charge — explain charging by friction in terms of the transfer of electrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Electrons are transferred away from the hair and onto the balloon, so the hair loses negative charge and the balloon gains it.
Losing electrons leaves the hair with an overall positive charge, while gaining electrons leaves the balloon with an overall negative charge.
This gives hair positive and balloon negative, matching row C, consistent with the two becoming oppositely charged and therefore attracted to each other.
Answer: (C)

Question 37

Which row shows how lamps are connected in a lighting circuit in a house and gives an advantage of connecting them in this way?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — describe the advantages of connecting lamps in parallel in household lighting circuits.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
House lighting circuits connect lamps in parallel so that each lamp receives the full supply voltage and works independently.
Because each lamp is on its own branch of the circuit, each one can be switched on or off separately without affecting the others.
In a series circuit the lamps would share the voltage and all go off together if one fails, which is not how house lighting is wired, ruling out rows B, C and D.
Answer: (A)

Question 38

A transformer increases the voltage from a power station in order to transfer electricity along transmission cables.

How does increasing the voltage affect the current in the cables and how does it affect the efficiency of energy transfer?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.6: The transformer — explain why transmitting electricity at high voltage and low current reduces power loss and increases efficiency.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For a given power transmitted, \( P = VI \), so increasing the voltage \( V \) means the current \( I \) must decrease.
Energy losses in the cables occur due to resistive heating, which depends on \( I^2R \), so a lower current greatly reduces these losses.
Reducing energy losses means more of the input energy is usefully transferred, so efficiency increases, matching row B.
Answer: (B)

Question 39

An atom of beryllium is represented by \( ^{9}_{4}Be \).

How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this type of beryllium atom?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 9
D. 13

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.1: Atoms and nuclear radiation — use proton number and nucleon (mass) number to calculate the number of neutrons in an atom.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The top number (9) is the mass number, representing the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
The bottom number (4) is the proton (atomic) number, representing the number of protons.
The number of neutrons is found using \( \text{neutrons} = \text{mass number} – \text{proton number} = 9 – 4 = 5 \).
Answer: (B)

Question 40

A beam of \( \beta \)-rays passes into an electric field between two charged plates.

Which diagram shows what happens to the \( \beta \)-rays?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission — describe the deflection of alpha, beta and gamma radiation in electric and magnetic fields.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Beta particles are fast-moving electrons, so they carry a negative charge.
In an electric field, a negatively charged particle is deflected towards the positive plate and away from the negative plate.
The correct diagram must show the beam curving towards the positively charged plate, consistent with option D as confirmed by the mark scheme.
Answer: (D)
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