Home / 0654_s22_qp_23

Question 1

During a sunny day, stomata are open to allow gas exchange. Oxygen moves out of the plant through the stomata.

Which characteristic of living things is described?

A. excretion
B. movement
C. reproduction
D. respiration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — Define excretion as the removal of waste products of metabolism and substances in excess of requirements.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Oxygen is a waste product of photosynthesis in the plant’s metabolism.
Its removal from the body through the stomata fits the definition of excretion.
This is not respiration (chemical breakdown of nutrients for energy) or movement.
Answer: (A)

Question 2

Which statement about cells is correct?

A. Cell membranes are found only in animal cells.
B. Cell membranes are found only in plant cells.
C. Cell walls are found only in animal cells.
D. Cell walls are found only in plant cells.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — Describe and compare the structure of a plant cell with an animal cell, limited to: cell wall, cell membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm, chloroplasts, ribosomes, mitochondria, vacuoles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cell membranes are present in both animal and plant cells, so A and B are incorrect.
Cell walls are a structural feature unique to plant cells (and not present in animal cells).
This rules out C and confirms D as the correct statement.
Answer: (D)

Question 3

Large biological molecules are made from smaller molecules joined together.

Which large molecule is correctly matched with its smaller molecule?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — State that large molecules are made from smaller molecules, limited to: starch, glycogen and cellulose from glucose; proteins from amino acids; fats and oils from fatty acids and glycerol.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Glycogen is a storage polysaccharide built from many glucose molecules joined together.
Fats are made from fatty acids and glycerol, not amino acids, so A is wrong.
Starch is made from glucose (not fatty acid), and protein is made from amino acids (not glycerol), so C and D are wrong.
Answer: (B)

Question 4

The graph shows the effect of temperature on the time taken for a protease to digest protein.

At which point on the graph is the greatest frequency of effective collisions between enzyme and substrate?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — Explain the effect of changes in temperature on enzyme activity in terms of kinetic energy, shape and fit, frequency of effective collisions and denaturation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The greatest frequency of effective collisions occurs at the enzyme’s optimum temperature, where kinetic energy and shape/fit of the active site are ideal.
This corresponds to the shortest digestion time on the graph, since the reaction proceeds fastest at that point.
Beyond this temperature, the enzyme begins to denature and collisions become less effective.
Answer: (C)

Question 5

Which graph shows the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis, if all other factors are kept constant?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — Understand and describe the effects of varying light intensity, carbon dioxide concentration and temperature on the rate of photosynthesis.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As light intensity increases from zero, the rate of photosynthesis rises steadily because light is the limiting factor.
At higher light intensities, another factor (such as \(CO_2\) concentration or temperature) becomes limiting, so the rate levels off into a plateau.
The correct graph starts at the origin, rises, then flattens out at a maximum rate.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

The diagram shows part of the digestive system.

Which labelled parts produce digestive enzymes, absorb water and store bile?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.2: Digestive system — Identify in diagrams and images the main organs of the digestive system and describe their functions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the diagram, R represents the pancreas, which produces digestive enzymes.
S represents the large intestine (colon), which absorbs water from undigested food.
P represents the gall bladder, which stores bile produced by the liver.
Answer: (C)

Question 7

Students investigate the effect of exercise on heart rate.

The graph shows the results.

How long does it take for the heart rate to decrease to the resting rate after the student stops exercising?

A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 7.5 minutes
D. 9 minutes

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic 9.1: Circulatory system — Interpret data on the effects of physical activity on pulse/heart rate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The student stops exercising at \(t = 6\) minutes, where the heart rate is 100 beats per minute.
The heart rate falls back to the resting rate of 60 beats per minute at \(t = 9\) minutes.
So the time taken to return to resting rate is \(9 – 6 = 3\) minutes.
Answer: (A)

Question 8

What is the relative concentration of glucose, lactic acid and oxygen in the muscles immediately after extreme exercise?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — Describe anaerobic respiration in muscles during vigorous exercise: \( \text{glucose} \rightarrow \text{lactic acid} \), and state that lactic acid builds up causing an oxygen debt.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During extreme exercise, glucose is used up rapidly by respiring muscle cells, so its concentration is low.
Oxygen supply cannot keep pace with demand, so muscles switch to anaerobic respiration, meaning oxygen concentration is also low.
Anaerobic respiration produces lactic acid as a by-product, which builds up to a high concentration.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

Which statement about temperature control is correct?

A. Vasoconstriction near the skin surface and shivering will cool the body down.
B. Vasoconstriction near the skin surface and sweating will warm the body up.
C. Vasodilation near the skin surface and shivering will warm the body up.
D. Vasodilation near the skin surface and sweating will cool the body down.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.3: Homeostasis — Describe the maintenance of a constant internal body temperature in terms of insulation, sweating, shivering, and vasodilation/vasoconstriction of arterioles supplying skin surface capillaries.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Vasodilation widens skin arterioles, bringing more blood to the surface where heat can be lost, warming or cooling depending on the accompanying process.
Sweating cools the body because heat is used to evaporate sweat from the skin surface.
Vasodilation combined with sweating therefore both act together to cool the body down, matching option D.
Answer: (D)

Question 10

The diagram shows the life cycle of a marine organism called a hydrozoan.

Which statements about the life cycle of hydrozoa are correct?

  1. Hydrozoa reproduce asexually.
  2. Hydrozoa reproduce sexually.
  3. Fusion of haploid gametes produces a diploid zygote.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.1 & B15.2: Asexual and sexual reproduction — Describe asexual reproduction as production of genetically identical offspring from one parent, and sexual reproduction as fusion of gamete nuclei (haploid) to form a zygote (diploid).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The polyp produces genetically identical polyps by mitosis (budding), which is asexual reproduction, so statement 1 is correct.
The medusa stage produces egg and sperm which fuse at fertilisation, which is sexual reproduction, so statement 2 is correct.
Gametes are haploid (from meiosis) and their fusion produces a diploid zygote, so statement 3 is also correct.
Answer: (D)

Question 11

Which diagram about haploid and diploid cells in humans is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.1: Chromosomes and genes — Describe a haploid nucleus as containing a single set of chromosomes, and a diploid nucleus as containing two sets, with 23 pairs (46 total) in a human diploid cell.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Human body cells are diploid, containing 46 chromosomes (23 pairs), while gametes are haploid, containing 23 chromosomes (a single set).
Only diagram B correctly matches “diploid” with body cells at 46 chromosomes and “haploid” with gametes at 23 chromosomes.
The other diagrams either mislabel which cell type is haploid/diploid or attach the wrong chromosome numbers to each.
Answer: (B)

Question 12

Which organisms obtain energy directly from every trophic level?

A. carnivores
B. decomposers
C. herbivores
D. producers

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — Describe a decomposer as an organism that gets its energy from dead or waste organic material, which can originate from any trophic level.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carnivores, herbivores and producers each feed at, or occupy, only one specific trophic level in a food chain.
Decomposers break down dead or waste organic material from producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers and any other trophic level.
This means decomposers obtain energy directly from every trophic level, not just one.
Answer: (B)

Question 13

How does deforestation change the concentrations of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the atmosphere?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — State the undesirable effects of deforestation, including an increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fewer trees means less photosynthesis occurring overall, so less carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere and less oxygen is released.
Cleared vegetation is often burned, which directly adds more \(CO_2\) to the atmosphere through combustion.
Together, these effects cause carbon dioxide levels to rise and oxygen levels to fall.
Answer: (A)

Question 14

Information about the solubility in water of some calcium compounds is listed.

  • Calcium hydroxide is soluble.
  • Calcium carbonate is insoluble.
  • Calcium chloride is soluble.

Which method is used to prepare pure calcium chloride?

A. Add excess calcium hydroxide to dilute hydrochloric acid, filter, then crystallise.
B. Add excess calcium carbonate to dilute hydrochloric acid, filter, then crystallise.
C. Add excess dilute hydrochloric acid to calcium hydroxide, filter, then crystallise.
D. Add excess dilute hydrochloric acid to calcium carbonate, filter, then crystallise.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe the preparation, separation and purification of soluble salts by reaction of an acid with excess insoluble carbonate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To ensure all the acid reacts and none remains in the final product, an excess of the insoluble solid reactant is used.
Calcium carbonate is insoluble, so excess unreacted solid can simply be filtered off, leaving pure calcium chloride solution.
Crystallisation of the filtrate then yields pure solid calcium chloride: \(CaCO_3 + 2HCl \rightarrow CaCl_2 + H_2O + CO_2\).
Answer: (B)

Question 15

Which process is a chemical change?

A. boiling
B. dissolving
C. melting
D. neutralisation

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.1: Physical and chemical changes — Identify physical and chemical changes, and understand the differences between them.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Boiling, dissolving and melting are physical changes because no new substance is formed and the change is generally reversible.
Neutralisation involves an acid reacting with a base to form new substances: a salt and water.
Since new chemical substances are produced, this is a chemical change.
Answer: (D)

Question 16

Sodium phosphate, \(Na_3PO_4\), contains sodium ions, \(Na^+\).

Aluminium sulfate, \(Al_2(SO_4)_3\), contains sulfate ions, \(SO_4^{2-}\).

What is the formula of aluminium phosphate?

A. \(AlPO_4\)
B. \(Al(PO_4)_2\)
C. \(Al_2(PO_4)_3\)
D. \(Al_3(PO_4)_2\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.1: Formulas — Deduce the formula of an ionic compound from the relative numbers of the ions present or from the charges on the ions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
From \(Na_3PO_4\), the phosphate ion must have a charge of \(3-\), giving \(PO_4^{3-}\).
From \(Al_2(SO_4)_3\), balancing charges shows the aluminium ion is \(Al^{3+}\).
Combining \(Al^{3+}\) with \(PO_4^{3-}\) requires a 1:1 ratio, since the charges already balance, giving \(AlPO_4\).
Answer: (A)

Question 17

Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using carbon electrodes.

Which row describes the observations and products at each electrode during this process?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — Identify the products formed at the electrodes and describe the observations during electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate using carbon/graphite electrodes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
With inert carbon electrodes, copper(II) ions are discharged at the cathode, depositing an orange-brown solid layer of copper metal.
At the anode, hydroxide ions from water are discharged in preference to sulfate ions, producing bubbles of oxygen gas.
Since carbon electrodes don’t dissolve, there’s no “anode decreases in size” observation, ruling out A and D.
Answer: (C)

Question 18

Magnesium reacts with chlorine to form magnesium chloride.

\(Mg(s) + Cl_2(g) \rightarrow MgCl_2(s)\)

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A. The magnesium is being reduced.
B. The oxidising agent is chlorine.
C. The reaction involves oxidation but not reduction.
D. There is no oxygen involved so there is no oxidation.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — Define redox reactions as involving simultaneous oxidation and reduction; identify oxidation and reduction in redox reactions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Magnesium loses electrons to form \(Mg^{2+}\), meaning it is oxidised, so A is incorrect and the reaction does involve both oxidation and reduction, ruling out C.
Chlorine gains electrons to form \(Cl^-\), meaning it is reduced; the substance that is reduced acts as the oxidising agent.
Oxidation and reduction can occur without oxygen, as it is really about electron transfer, so D is incorrect.
Answer: (B)

Question 19

Which substance changes the colour of damp red litmus?

A. \(CO_2\)
B. \(Cl_2\)
C. \(H_2\)
D. \(SO_2\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe acids in terms of their effect on the indicator litmus.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chlorine gas dissolves in the moisture on damp litmus paper and acts as a bleaching agent.
This bleaching action turns the damp red litmus white, rather than simply changing its colour due to acidity.
\(CO_2\) and \(SO_2\) are acidic gases but only turn blue litmus red, not red litmus, and \(H_2\) has no effect on litmus.
Answer: (B)

Question 20

A gas is used in welding metals together at high temperatures. The gas is used to provide an inert atmosphere.

What is the gas?

A. argon
B. carbon dioxide
C. fluorine
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — Describe the Group VIII noble gases as unreactive, monatomic gases, explained in terms of electronic configuration.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An inert atmosphere is needed during welding to stop the hot metal reacting with gases in the air, such as oxygen.
Argon is a noble gas with a full outer electron shell, making it very unreactive and safe to surround the weld.
Carbon dioxide, fluorine and oxygen can all react chemically at high temperatures, so they are unsuitable.
Answer: (A)

Question 21

Which row does not link a general physical property to the type of element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.1: Properties of metals — Compare the general physical properties of metals and non-metals, including thermal conductivity, electrical conductivity, malleability and ductility, and melting/boiling points.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Metals are generally malleable and good thermal conductors, so rows A and B are correctly linked.
Non-metals generally have low melting points (compared with metals) and are typically poor electrical conductors, since they lack the delocalised electrons found in metals.
Row C wrongly links non-metals with being electrical conductors, so this is the row that does not correctly match.
Answer: (C)

Question 22

Which metal oxide is reduced when heated with magnesium powder?

A. calcium oxide
B. copper oxide
C. magnesium oxide
D. sodium oxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.1: Properties of metals — Describe the general chemical properties of metals, including reactivity, and reduction of less reactive metal oxides by more reactive metals.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A more reactive metal can displace and reduce the oxide of a less reactive metal.
Magnesium is more reactive than copper, so it can remove oxygen from copper oxide, reducing it to copper metal.
Calcium and sodium are both more reactive than magnesium, and magnesium oxide is already the oxide of magnesium itself, so these cannot be reduced by magnesium.
Answer: (B)

Question 23

Zinc is used to galvanise iron.

Which statements about galvanising are correct?

  1. Iron is more reactive than zinc.
  2. Zinc oxidises instead of iron.
  3. Galvanised iron rusts if the zinc coating is scratched.
  4. Galvanising iron is an example of sacrificial protection.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.1: Properties of metals — Describe the general chemical properties of metals, limited to their reactions with dilute acids, cold water and steam, related to reactivity and corrosion protection.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Zinc is more reactive than iron, not the other way round, so statement 1 is incorrect.
Because zinc is more reactive, it oxidises in preference to iron, protecting the iron underneath — this is sacrificial protection, so statements 2 and 4 are correct.
As long as any zinc coating remains nearby, it continues to protect the iron even if scratched, so statement 3 is incorrect.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Which equation does not represent a reaction that occurs in the Contact process?

A. \(2S + 3O_2 \rightarrow 2SO_3\)
B. \(2SO_2 + O_2 \rightleftharpoons 2SO_3\)
C. \(H_2SO_4 + SO_3 \rightarrow H_2S_2O_7\)
D. \(H_2S_2O_7 + H_2O \rightarrow 2H_2SO_4\)

▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the Contact process, sulfur dioxide (not sulfur itself) is burned/formed and then catalytically oxidised to sulfur trioxide, so burning solid sulfur directly to \(SO_3\) as shown in A is not a genuine step.
\(2SO_2 + O_2 \rightleftharpoons 2SO_3\) is the key catalytic step of the process, so B does occur.
\(SO_3\) is dissolved in concentrated sulfuric acid to form oleum (\(H_2S_2O_7\)), which is then diluted with water to form sulfuric acid, so C and D both occur.
Answer: (A)

Question 25

Why do farmers add limestone to soil?

A. It acts as a fertiliser.
B. It adds nitrogen to the soil.
C. It decreases the pH of the soil.
D. It increases the pH of the soil.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Applying that bases neutralise acids; limestone (calcium carbonate) acts as a base to reduce soil acidity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone is calcium carbonate, which acts as a base and can neutralise excess acidity in soil.
Neutralising acid raises the soil’s pH, making it less acidic and more suitable for crop growth.
Limestone does not supply nitrogen and is not itself classed as a fertiliser, so A, B and C are incorrect.
Answer: (D)

Question 26

Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons which is separated into fractions by fractional distillation.

Which statements describe the fraction collected at the bottom of the fractionating column?

  1. It contains the smallest molecules.
  2. It has the weakest forces between molecules.
  3. It is the most viscous.
  4. It is the least flammable.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.3: Fuels — Describe the separation of petroleum into useful fractions by fractional distillation, and how the properties of fractions change from the bottom to the top of the fractionating column (decreasing chain length, lower boiling points).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The bottom fraction contains the largest hydrocarbon molecules, which have the strongest intermolecular forces, so statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Larger molecules make the fraction thick and syrupy (most viscous), and their strong intermolecular forces mean they need more energy to vaporise, making them harder to ignite (least flammable).
This means statements 3 and 4 correctly describe the bottom fraction.
Answer: (D)

Question 27

The structure of a monomer is shown.

Which structure represents the addition polymer formed by this monomer?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — Deduce the structure or repeat unit of an addition polymer from a given alkene monomer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In addition polymerisation, the \(C{=}C\) double bond in the monomer opens up and forms a single bond linking each monomer unit into a long chain.
All the atoms and side groups attached to the monomer’s carbons are carried over unchanged into the repeat unit of the polymer.
The correct structure repeats this exact monomer unit joined end-to-end by single carbon–carbon bonds, with no atoms gained or lost.
Answer: (C)

Question 28

Which speed–time graph represents an object travelling at constant speed?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — Interpret speed–time graphs, recognising that a horizontal line represents constant speed (zero acceleration).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
On a speed–time graph, constant speed means the speed value does not change over time.
This is represented by a flat, horizontal line, since the gradient (which represents acceleration) is zero.
Any line that slopes upward or downward shows the speed changing, meaning the object is accelerating or decelerating instead.
Answer: (C)

Question 29

A parachutist falls vertically at constant speed.

Which statement about the resultant force on the parachutist is correct?

A. The resultant force on the parachutist acts vertically downwards.
B. The resultant force on the parachutist acts vertically upwards.
C. The resultant force on the parachutist is equal to his weight.
D. The resultant force on the parachutist is equal to zero.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — Understand that an object moving at constant velocity has balanced (zero resultant) forces acting on it, applying Newton’s first law.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Constant speed means there is no acceleration, so by Newton’s first law the forces acting on the parachutist must be balanced.
The parachutist’s weight acting downwards is exactly balanced by air resistance (drag) acting upwards.
Since these forces cancel out, the resultant (net) force on the parachutist is zero.
Answer: (D)

Question 30

An object moving at speed \(v\) has kinetic energy \(E\).

What is the speed of the object when its kinetic energy is \(4.0E\)?

A. \(0.25v\)
B. \(2.0v\)
C. \(4.0v\)
D. \(16v\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.1: Energy  — Use the equation \( E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \) to calculate the kinetic energy of a moving object.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Kinetic energy is given by \( E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \), so kinetic energy is proportional to the square of the speed.
If kinetic energy increases by a factor of 4, then \(v^2\) must also increase by a factor of 4, since mass stays constant.
Taking the square root of 4 gives a speed increase factor of 2, so the new speed is \(2.0v\).
Answer: (B)

Question 31

What is the name of the process by which energy is released in the Sun?

A. background radiation
B. chemical reaction
C. nuclear fission
D. nuclear fusion

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.1: The nucleus — Describe nuclear fusion as the joining of small nuclei to form a larger nucleus, releasing energy, as in the Sun.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The Sun’s energy comes from small nuclei, mainly hydrogen, joining together to form larger nuclei such as helium.
This joining process is called nuclear fusion, and it releases huge amounts of energy.
Nuclear fission is the splitting of large nuclei (used in nuclear power stations), which is a different process from what powers the Sun.
Answer: (D)

Question 32

What happens to the temperature of a substance as it is melting and as it is boiling?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.2: Melting, boiling and evaporation — Describe melting and boiling in terms of energy input without a change in temperature.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During melting, energy supplied is used to break the bonds/forces holding particles in a fixed lattice, not to increase particle kinetic energy.
Similarly, during boiling, energy input overcomes intermolecular forces to separate particles into a gas, rather than raising temperature.
In both cases, temperature stays constant (at the melting point or boiling point) throughout the change of state.
Answer: (D)

Question 33

A loudspeaker produces a sound wave that has a frequency of 3300 Hz. The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s.

What is the wavelength of the sound wave?

A. 0.10 m
B. 1.0 m
C. 11 m
D. \(1.1 \times 10^6\) m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.1: General wave properties — Use the wave speed equation \( v = f\lambda \) to calculate speed, frequency or wavelength.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The wave speed equation is \( v = f\lambda \), which rearranges to \( \lambda = \frac{v}{f} \).
Substituting the values gives \( \lambda = \frac{330}{3300} \).
This works out to \( \lambda = 0.10 \) m.
Answer: (A)

Question 34

A lens is used as a magnifying glass to form a magnified image of some writing on a page.

Which statements are correct?

  1. The lens is a converging lens.
  2. The writing is closer to the lens than one focal length of the lens.
  3. The magnified image is a virtual image.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.3: Thin converging lens — Describe the use of a single converging lens as a magnifying glass, and draw/use ray diagrams for the formation of a virtual image.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Only a converging lens can produce a magnified, upright image suitable for use as a magnifying glass, so statement 1 is correct.
For a converging lens to magnify in this way, the object must be placed closer to the lens than its focal length, so statement 2 is correct.
This arrangement always produces a virtual image, which is why the image appears larger but cannot be projected onto a screen, so statement 3 is correct.
Answer: (D)

Question 35

An iron bar XY is brought near to a magnet. Magnetic poles are induced in the iron bar.

What are the magnetic poles induced at X and Y?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism — Describe induced magnetism, including the fact that unlike poles attract and an induced pole is always opposite to the pole inducing it.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When an unmagnetised iron bar is brought near a magnet, it becomes magnetised by induction, with the nearer end always taking the opposite polarity to the pole facing it.
Since the magnet’s South pole faces end Y, end Y is induced to become a North pole, so that it is attracted to the magnet.
The opposite end, X, is then induced to become a South pole.
Answer: (C)

Question 36

A battery with an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 6.0 V is connected to a 30 Ω resistor.

How much charge flows through the battery in 5.0 s?

A. 1.0 C
B. 25 C
C. 36 C
D. 900 C

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.2: Electric current — Use the equations \( I = \frac{V}{R} \) and \( Q = It \) to calculate current and charge.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
First find the current using \( I = \frac{V}{R} = \frac{6.0}{30} = 0.2 \) A.
Charge is found using \( Q = It \), where \(t\) is the time in seconds.
Substituting gives \( Q = 0.2 \times 5.0 = 1.0 \) C.
Answer: (A)

Question 37

Which row shows how lamps are connected in a lighting circuit in a house and gives an advantage of connecting them in this way?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — Describe the advantages of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit, including that each device receives full supply voltage and can be switched on/off independently.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
House lighting circuits connect lamps in parallel, so each lamp receives the full supply voltage and works independently of the others.
This means each lamp can have its own switch, allowing it to be turned on or off separately without affecting the rest.
In a series circuit, lamps would share the voltage and all switch off together if one fails, which is not how house lighting works.
Answer: (A)

Question 38

A transformer increases the voltage from a power station in order to transfer electricity along transmission cables.

How does increasing the voltage affect the current in the cables and how does it affect the efficiency of energy transfer?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.6: The transformer — Explain why a high-voltage transmission system is more efficient, using \( P = IV \) and reduced current for a given power leading to less energy loss as heat.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For a fixed power output, \( P = IV \) shows that increasing the voltage means the current must decrease proportionally.
Energy is lost as heat in the cables according to \( P_{loss} = I^2R \), so a lower current greatly reduces this wasted energy.
Less energy wasted as heat means a greater proportion of the power reaches its destination, so efficiency increases.
Answer: (B)

Question 39

An atom of beryllium is represented by \(^{9}_{4}Be\).

How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this type of beryllium atom?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 9
D. 13

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.1: The nucleus — Define proton number (Z) and nucleon number (A), and calculate the number of neutrons in a nucleus.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The nucleon number (mass number), 9, is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
The proton number (atomic number), 4, tells us there are 4 protons.
The number of neutrons is found using \( \text{neutrons} = A – Z = 9 – 4 = 5 \).
Answer: (B)

Question 40

Three different types of ionising radiation X, Y and Z pass between two charged plates.

Which row identifies X, Y and Z?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission — Identify alpha, beta and gamma emissions by recalling their nature and relative ionising/penetrating properties (charge and deflection behaviour).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Gamma radiation has no charge, so it passes straight through the electric field undeflected — this must be X.
Beta particles are negatively charged and light, so they deflect strongly towards the positive plate — this must be Y.
Alpha particles are positively charged but much heavier, so they deflect less sharply, and towards the negative plate — this must be Z.
Answer: (B)
Scroll to Top