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Question 1

Which term is used to describe the removal of toxic materials from living organisms?

A. excretion
B. nutrition
C. respiration
D. secretion

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — define excretion as the removal of waste products of metabolism and substances in excess of requirements.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excretion is defined as the removal of toxic materials, waste products of metabolism, and substances in excess of requirements from an organism.
Nutrition is taking in food, respiration is releasing energy from nutrients, and secretion is the release of useful substances (e.g. enzymes) made by a cell.
Only excretion matches the description of removing toxic waste.
Answer: (A)

Question 2

The diagrams show four different cells found in living organisms.

Which cell types have a large surface area for diffusion?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — identify cell structures and relate specialised cell shapes to their functions, including large surface area for diffusion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cells specialised for diffusion (such as root hair cells and alveolar cells) are flattened, elongated, or have projections that increase their surface area relative to volume.
Cells 1 and 4 in the diagram show this type of shape, unlike the more compact/rounded cells 2 and 3.
A larger surface area speeds up the rate of diffusion of substances into and out of the cell.
Answer: (B)

Question 3

Eggs contain fat, protein and water.

Which results are obtained from doing food tests on an egg?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — describe food tests for reducing sugars (Benedict’s), protein (biuret), fats (ethanol emulsion) and starch (iodine).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An egg contains protein and fat but no starch and no reducing sugar, so Benedict’s test stays blue (no sugar) and the iodine test stays yellow-brown/orange (no starch).
The biuret test turns purple because protein is present, and the ethanol emulsion test produces a white emulsion because fat is present.
Only row A shows this exact combination of results.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

During an enzyme-controlled reaction, the temperature is gradually lowered from the enzyme’s optimum temperature of \( 20\ ^{\circ}C \) to \( 5\ ^{\circ}C \).

Which changes occur as the temperature is lowered?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — describe the effect of temperature on enzyme activity, noting that the active site shape is not affected until denaturation occurs at high temperature.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Lowering the temperature below the optimum reduces the kinetic energy of enzyme and substrate molecules, so collisions happen less frequently.
This means the formation of product decreases, since fewer successful enzyme-substrate collisions occur.
The active site’s shape is unaffected by cooling (only high temperatures denature it), so it shows no change.
Answer: (A)

Question 5

The diagram shows some of the uses in a plant of the initial carbohydrate made by photosynthesis.

Which statement is correct?

A. X is a magnesium ion.
B. X is iron.
C. Y is starch.
D. Y is an oil molecule.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — describe how glucose is used in plants, e.g. combined to form starch for storage, or converted using added nitrate/nitrogen into amino acids.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Glucose molecules made in photosynthesis can be joined together to form starch, which is the plant’s main storage carbohydrate.
X represents the addition of a nitrogen-containing substance (such as nitrate ions) needed to convert glucose into amino acids, so X is not magnesium or iron.
Y, formed by joining many glucose molecules, is therefore starch and not an oil molecule.
Answer: (C)

Question 6

A person is unwell with the following symptoms.

  • swollen abdomen (belly)
  • red patches on their skin
  • loss of muscle mass

What is the likely condition that this person has?

A. iron deficiency
B. kwashiorkor
C. marasmus
D. scurvy

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.1: Diet — describe the effects of malnutrition, including deficiency diseases caused by an unbalanced diet.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Kwashiorkor is a protein deficiency disease that classically causes a swollen abdomen due to fluid retention, skin rashes/patches, and muscle wasting.
Marasmus, by contrast, causes overall severe wasting without the swollen belly, and iron deficiency or scurvy produce different symptoms (anaemia, or bleeding gums respectively).
The combination of symptoms described matches kwashiorkor specifically.
Answer: (B)

Question 7

Which cells lose water by evaporation from their surfaces during transpiration?

A. epidermis cells
B. guard cells
C. mesophyll cells
D. root hair cells

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.3: Transpiration — describe transpiration as the loss of water vapour from plant leaves, occurring by evaporation from mesophyll cell surfaces followed by diffusion through the stomata.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Water evaporates from the moist surfaces of mesophyll cells inside the leaf, forming water vapour in the air spaces.
This vapour then diffuses out through the stomata (guard cell pores), but it is the mesophyll cells, not the guard cells themselves, where evaporation occurs.
Epidermis and root hair cells are not the sites of this evaporation step in transpiration.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

Endothermic reactions use up more energy than they release while exothermic reactions release energy overall.

Which row describes the type of reaction that occurs in the process of photosynthesis and in the process of respiration?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — describe respiration as an exothermic process, contrasted with photosynthesis as an endothermic process requiring light energy.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Photosynthesis requires a continuous input of light energy to build glucose from carbon dioxide and water, so it is an endothermic process.
Respiration breaks down glucose and releases energy overall for the cell to use, making it exothermic.
Only row C shows respiration as exothermic and photosynthesis as endothermic.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

Which type of chemical is adrenaline?

A. enzyme
B. hormone
C. mineral salt
D. vitamin

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.2: Hormones — state that adrenaline is a hormone secreted by the adrenal glands, preparing the body for “fight or flight”.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Adrenaline is a chemical messenger secreted directly into the blood by the adrenal glands, which is the definition of a hormone.
It is not an enzyme (which catalyses reactions), a mineral salt, or a vitamin.
Adrenaline travels in the blood to target organs, increasing heart rate and preparing the body for action.
Answer: (B)

Question 10

The diagram shows a section through an insect-pollinated flower.

When pollination occurs, where must the pollen grains reach?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.3: Sexual reproduction in plants — define pollination as the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Pollination is defined as the transfer of pollen grains from the anther (male part) to the stigma (female part) of a flower.
In the diagram, this corresponds to the labelled structure representing the stigma, which is the receptive surface at the top of the carpel.
Reaching any other structure (ovary, ovule, ovary wall) would not count as pollination itself.
Answer: (B)

Question 11

A student writes down the statement shown.

‘Selective breeding by natural selection is carried out over many generations to improve crop plants and domesticated animals.’

The statement is not correct.

Which change makes the statement correct?

A. Change crop plants to flowering plants.
B. Change domesticated to wild.
C. Change generations to offspring.
D. Change natural to artificial.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B17.2: Selection — distinguish artificial selection (selective breeding by humans) from natural selection, which occurs without human intervention.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Selective breeding is a human-controlled process in which breeders choose parents with desirable characteristics, so it is called artificial selection, not natural selection.
Natural selection instead happens without human choice, driven by survival and reproduction in the wild.
Changing “natural” to “artificial” is the only edit that makes the statement scientifically accurate.
Answer: (D)

Question 12

The diagram shows a marine food web around a kelp (seaweed) forest.

Which organisms are secondary consumers and which organisms are tertiary consumers?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — identify trophic levels (producer, primary/secondary/tertiary consumer) within a food web.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Kelp is the producer, so organisms that eat kelp directly (like the sea urchin) are primary consumers, and organisms that eat those primary consumers are secondary consumers.
Tracing the web, the sea otter and large fish each eat primary consumers, making them secondary consumers, while the sea otter, killer whale and seal all feed at a level higher again in different branches, making them tertiary consumers too.
Only the combination in row C, “sea otter, large fish” as secondary and “sea otter, killer whale, seal” as tertiary, correctly reflects an organism occupying more than one trophic level in a web.
Answer: (C)

Question 13

What decreases as a result of eutrophication?

A. aerobic respiration by decomposers
B. decomposition of dead producers
C. dissolved oxygen in the water
D. growth of producers

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — describe the process and effects of eutrophication caused by excess nutrients (e.g. fertiliser run-off) entering waterways.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excess nutrients cause algae/producers to grow rapidly (an increase, not a decrease), and when they die, decomposers respire aerobically to break them down (also increasing).
This heavy aerobic respiration by decomposers uses up dissolved oxygen faster than it can be replaced.
As a result, dissolved oxygen in the water falls, which is the quantity that decreases.
Answer: (C)

Question 14

A mixture of solid sulfur and solid sodium chloride is added to water and stirred.

Sulfur is insoluble in water. Sodium chloride is soluble in water.

Which processes are used to obtain pure sodium chloride from the mixture?

A. distillation then chromatography
B. distillation then crystallisation
C. filtration then chromatography
D. filtration then crystallisation

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.4: Separation and purification — select appropriate techniques (filtration, crystallisation, chromatography, distillation) to separate and purify mixtures.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Filtration first separates the insoluble solid sulfur from the sodium chloride solution, since sulfur cannot pass through the filter paper.
The filtrate, a sodium chloride solution, is then heated to evaporate water until saturated, and cooled to allow crystals of sodium chloride to form — this is crystallisation.
Distillation and chromatography are not needed here, since the goal is to recover a dissolved solid, not to separate a liquid mixture or coloured substances.
Answer: (D)

Question 15

An atom of indium has the atomic number 49 and the nucleon number 115.

Which row shows the numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons in this atom?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — calculate the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in an atom from its atomic (proton) number and nucleon (mass) number.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The atomic number, \( 49 \), gives the number of protons, which for a neutral atom also equals the number of electrons.
The number of neutrons is found using \( \text{neutrons} = \text{nucleon number} – \text{atomic number} = 115 – 49 = 66 \).
So this atom has 49 protons, 66 neutrons and 49 electrons.
Answer: (A)

Question 16

Pentane, \( C_5H_{12} \), burns in a limited air supply to produce some carbon dioxide and some carbon monoxide.

What is a balanced equation for this reaction?

A. \( C_5H_{12} + 7O_2 \rightarrow 3CO_2 + 2CO + 6H_2O \)
B. \( C_5H_{12} + 9O_2 \rightarrow CO_2 + 4CO + 12H_2O \)
C. \( C_5H_{12} + 14O \rightarrow 3CO_2 + 2CO + 6H_2O \)
D. \( C_5H_{12} + 18O \rightarrow CO_2 + 4CO + 12H_2O \)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.4: Alkanes — describe the properties of alkanes as generally unreactive except in combustion, and construct/balance equations for their combustion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A correctly balanced equation must use molecular oxygen, \( O_2 \), not free oxygen atoms, which rules out options C and D.
Balancing carbon gives 5 carbon atoms split between \( CO_2 \) and \( CO \), and balancing hydrogen gives \( 6H_2O \); checking option A: \( 3CO_2 + 2CO + 6H_2O \) uses \( (3\times2)+2+6 = 14 \) oxygen atoms, matching \( 7O_2 \).
Option B does not balance oxygen atoms correctly, so it is incorrect.
Answer: (A)

Question 17

Copper is refined by electrolysis.

Which statements about this process are correct?

  1. Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is the electrolyte.
  2. Inert anodes are used.
  3. \( Cu^{2+} \) ions are reduced at the cathode.
  4. Pure copper is deposited at the anode.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — describe the electrolytic refining of copper using an impure copper anode, a pure copper cathode, and copper(II) sulfate solution as the electrolyte.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is indeed used as the electrolyte, so statement 1 is correct.
The anode in copper refining is impure copper itself, not an inert material, so statement 2 is wrong; and pure copper is deposited at the cathode, not the anode, so statement 4 is wrong.
At the cathode, \( Cu^{2+} + 2e^- \rightarrow Cu \), which is a gain of electrons, confirming statement 3 (reduction at the cathode) is correct.
Answer: (B)

Question 18

Which statement about chemical reactions is correct?

A. Endothermic reactions result in a temperature decrease.
B. Endothermic reactions result in a temperature increase.
C. Exothermic reactions always produce a large temperature rise.
D. Exothermic reactions always produce a small temperature rise.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — describe endothermic reactions as those taking in energy from the surroundings, causing a temperature decrease.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Endothermic reactions absorb energy from their surroundings, so the surroundings lose thermal energy and the temperature decreases.
Exothermic reactions release energy, but the size of the temperature rise depends on the amounts and concentrations reacting, so it cannot always be described as “large” or “small”.
Only the statement about endothermic reactions causing a temperature decrease is universally true.
Answer: (A)

Question 19

Which row describes the effect of increasing temperature on the collisions between particles in a chemical reaction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — describe collision theory in terms of the frequency and energy of collisions between particles, and how increasing temperature affects both.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Increasing temperature gives particles more kinetic energy, so they move faster and collide with each other more often, increasing the frequency of collisions.
The extra kinetic energy also means each collision happens with greater force, increasing the energy of the collisions.
Both frequency and energy of collisions increase with temperature, which is why reaction rate rises as temperature rises.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

Crystals of copper(II) sulfate, a soluble salt, are made by reacting excess copper(II) oxide with dilute sulfuric acid.

After filtering off the unreacted copper(II) oxide, the solution is heated until it is saturated. It is then left to cool.

Which statements about this preparation are correct?

  1. Excess copper(II) oxide is used in order to ensure a high yield is obtained.
  2. After filtering, the solution is heated to evaporate some of the water.
  3. When the saturated solution cools, crystals of copper(II) sulfate begin to appear.
  4. After cooling, the water is rapidly removed by evaporation.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.3: Preparation of salts — describe the preparation of a soluble salt from an insoluble base/oxide, including filtration, evaporation and crystallisation steps.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excess copper(II) oxide is used to ensure all the acid reacts, not specifically for “a high yield” phrasing — the true purpose is to guarantee no leftover acid contaminates the salt, so statement 1 is not the intended reason and is considered incorrect here.
After filtering, heating the solution does evaporate some water until saturation point is reached, making statement 2 correct.
Cooling a saturated solution lowers its solubility limit, so crystals of copper(II) sulfate begin forming as it cools, making statement 3 correct; statement 4 is wrong since crystallisation relies on slow cooling, not rapid evaporation after cooling.
Answer: (C)

Question 21

The first row of the transition elements is shown.

Which statement about transition elements is not correct?

A. They are often used as catalysts.
B. They always form colourless compounds.
C. They have high densities.
D. They have high melting points.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.4: Transition elements — describe transition elements as having high density and melting point, forming coloured compounds, and often acting as catalysts.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Transition elements are well known for forming brightly coloured compounds, such as blue copper(II) sulfate or purple potassium manganate(VII), not colourless ones.
They do have high densities, high melting points, and many act as catalysts (e.g. iron, nickel, platinum), so statements A, C and D are all correct.
The claim that they “always” form colourless compounds is the incorrect statement.
Answer: (B)

Question 22

Which equation represents a reaction that takes place in the catalytic converter of a car?

A. \( N_2 + 2O_2 \rightarrow 2NO_2 \)
B. \( 2NO \rightarrow N_2 + O_2 \)
C. \( N_2 + 3H_2 \rightarrow 2NH_3 \)
D. \( 2SO_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2SO_3 \)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — describe how catalytic converters remove oxides of nitrogen from car exhaust gases by converting them back to nitrogen and oxygen.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Catalytic converters are designed to remove pollutant gases such as nitrogen oxides from vehicle exhaust before they reach the atmosphere.
They achieve this by converting harmful nitrogen monoxide back into harmless nitrogen and oxygen gases, as shown by \( 2NO \rightarrow N_2 + O_2 \).
The other equations describe nitrogen oxide/ammonia/sulfur oxide formation reactions, which are not what happens inside a catalytic converter.
Answer: (B)

Question 23

The Haber process is used to make ammonia.

Which statement about the Haber process is not correct?

A. A vanadium(V) oxide catalyst is used.
B. The nitrogen used is obtained from the air.
C. The pressure used is 200 atmospheres.
D. The temperature used is \( 450\ ^{\circ}C \).

▶️ Answer/Explanation
The Haber process uses an iron catalyst, not vanadium(V) oxide — vanadium(V) oxide is instead the catalyst used in the separate Contact process for making sulfuric acid.
Nitrogen for the process is correctly obtained from the air, and the typical operating conditions are around 200 atmospheres pressure and \( 450\ ^{\circ}C \), so statements B, C and D are accurate.
The catalyst described in statement A is therefore the incorrect one.
Answer: (A)

Question 24

Four different reactions occur in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process.

Which substance is a reactant in one of these reactions and a product in another?

A. \( H_2O \)
B. \( O_2 \)
C. \( S \)
D. \( SO_3 \)

▶️ Answer/Explanation
The Contact process proceeds through several stages: sulfur burns to form \( SO_2 \), which is then catalytically oxidised to \( SO_3 \), and \( SO_3 \) is subsequently reacted further to eventually produce \( H_2SO_4 \).
\( SO_3 \) is therefore a product of the oxidation step but also a reactant in the next stage where it is converted onward towards sulfuric acid.
\( H_2O \), \( O_2 \) and \( S \) each appear only as reactants (or are not part of these particular equations) rather than as both a product and a reactant.
Answer: (D)

Question 25

When limestone is heated, it decomposes.

Which row about limestone and the decomposition is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — describe the thermal decomposition of limestone (calcium carbonate) into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide, as used in the blast furnace.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone is chemically known as calcium carbonate, \( CaCO_3 \), not calcium oxide.
On heating, it undergoes thermal decomposition according to \( CaCO_3 \rightarrow CaO + CO_2 \), producing both calcium oxide and carbon dioxide as products.
Only the row naming limestone as calcium carbonate and listing both products matches this correctly.
Answer: (B)

Question 26

Which fraction obtained from petroleum is used as a feedstock for making chemicals?

A. bitumen
B. gasoline
C. naphtha
D. refinery gas

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.3: Fuels — name the fractions obtained from fractional distillation of petroleum and their uses, including naphtha as a chemical feedstock.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Each petroleum fraction has a defined main use: refinery gas for heating/cooking, gasoline for car fuel, and bitumen for road-making.
Naphtha, however, is the fraction specifically used as a chemical feedstock, providing starting materials for the petrochemical industry (e.g. to make alkenes and polymers).
This makes naphtha the correct answer for a chemical feedstock fraction.
Answer: (C)

Question 27

What is the structure of the addition polymer formed from but-2-ene?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — deduce the repeat unit of an addition polymer from the structure of its alkene monomer, and vice versa.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
But-2-ene, \( CH_3-CH=CH-CH_3 \), has its double bond between carbons 2 and 3, with a methyl group attached to each of these carbons.
In addition polymerisation, the double bond opens up and the monomers join through single bonds, so the repeat unit must show a methyl group (\( CH_3 \)) branching off each backbone carbon in the chain.
Only the structure that keeps both methyl side-groups on adjacent backbone carbons correctly represents the polymer of but-2-ene.
Answer: (D)

Question 28

The speed–time graph represents the journey of a bicycle.

What is the total distance travelled by the bicycle?

A. 1.6 km
B. 2.0 km
C. 2.4 km
D. 3.2 km

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — determine the distance travelled from the area under a speed–time graph.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The distance travelled is equal to the total area under a speed–time graph.
The graph rises from \( 0 \) to \( 0.8 \) km/minute over the first minute, stays constant at \( 0.8 \) km/minute for the next two minutes, then falls back to \( 0 \) over the final minute, giving areas of \( 0.4 + 1.6 + 0.4 \) km.
Adding these together, \( 0.4 + 1.6 + 0.4 = 2.4 \) km.
Answer: (C)

Question 29

The diagram shows a cuboid box resting on the ground. The dimensions of the box are shown.

The pressure on the ground due to the weight of the box is \( 50\ Pa \).

What is the weight of the box?

A. 5.0 N
B. 10 N
C. 250 N
D. 500 N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.7: Pressure — recall and use the equation pressure = force ÷ area to relate the weight of an object to the pressure it exerts on a surface.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The base of the box in contact with the ground has an area \( A = 0.50\ m \times 0.40\ m = 0.20\ m^2 \).
Pressure is defined as \( P = \dfrac{F}{A} \), so rearranging gives \( F = P \times A \).
Substituting the values, \( F = 50\ Pa \times 0.20\ m^2 = 10\ N \), which is the weight of the box.
Answer: (B)

Question 30

Electricity can be generated in different types of power station.

Which statement about geothermal power and nuclear power is correct?

A. Geothermal power and nuclear power are both renewable.
B. Geothermal power and nuclear power are both non-renewable.
C. Geothermal power is renewable but nuclear power is not.
D. Nuclear power is renewable but geothermal power is not.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — give advantages and disadvantages of different energy resources, including renewability of geothermal and nuclear power.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Geothermal energy comes from heat continually generated within the Earth, so it is classed as a renewable energy resource that will not run out on a human timescale.
Nuclear power, in contrast, relies on a finite supply of uranium fuel that is mined and used up, making it a non-renewable resource.
So geothermal power is renewable while nuclear power is not.
Answer: (C)

Question 31

What is the definition of efficiency?

A. \( \dfrac{\text{useful energy output}}{\text{energy input}} \times 100\% \)
B. \( \dfrac{\text{wasted energy}}{\text{energy input}} \times 100\% \)
C. \( \dfrac{\text{energy input}}{\text{useful energy output}} \times 100\% \)
D. \( \dfrac{\text{energy input}}{\text{wasted energy}} \times 100\% \)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — define efficiency as useful energy (or power) output divided by total energy (or power) input, expressed as a percentage.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Efficiency measures how much of the energy supplied to a device is converted into a useful form, rather than wasted as heat or sound.
It is defined as \( \text{efficiency} = \dfrac{\text{useful energy output}}{\text{total energy input}} \times 100\% \).
The other options either invert the fraction or use “wasted energy” in place of “useful energy output”, which does not match the correct definition.
Answer: (A)

Question 32

The diagrams represent the arrangement of molecules in three states of matter. Arrows P and Q represent two changes of state.

Which row identifies the changes of state?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.1.1: States of matter — describe the arrangement and movement of particles in solids, liquids and gases, and name the changes of state between them.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Arrow P shows particles becoming more spread out and disordered, going from a closely packed regular arrangement to a widely spaced random one — this is evaporation, a change from liquid to gas.
Arrow Q shows particles becoming more ordered and closely packed, going from a disordered liquid arrangement to a fixed regular one — this is solidification, a change from liquid to solid.
Only the row pairing P with evaporation and Q with solidification matches the diagrams.
Answer: (B)

Question 33

A sound wave has a frequency of \( 16\ kHz \). The speed of sound is \( 320\ m/s \).

What is the wavelength of the wave?

A. 0.020 m
B. 0.050 m
C. 20 m
D. 50 m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — recall and use the wave speed equation \( v = f\lambda \) applied to sound waves.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The wave equation \( v = f\lambda \) relates speed, frequency and wavelength, so rearranging gives \( \lambda = \dfrac{v}{f} \).
First convert the frequency to hertz: \( 16\ kHz = 16000\ Hz \).
Substituting, \( \lambda = \dfrac{320}{16000} = 0.020\ m \).
Answer: (A)

Question 34

Light passes from air through a solid glass block and back into the air.

Which diagram shows the path of the light?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of light — describe how light bends towards the normal on entering a denser medium (air to glass) and away from the normal on leaving it (glass to air), emerging parallel to the original ray.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As light travels from the less dense air into the denser glass, it slows down and bends towards the normal at the first surface.
As it then leaves the glass and re-enters air at the second (parallel) surface, it speeds up again and bends away from the normal by the same angle.
This produces an emerging ray that is parallel to, but laterally displaced from, the original incident ray — only one diagram shows this correctly.
Answer: (A)

Question 35

The diagram shows an object at position P in front of a thin converging lens of focal length \( f \). The lens produces a real image of the object.

The object is moved to position Q. The image produced is now virtual.

What happens to the image?

A. It changes from a diminished image to an enlarged image.
B. It changes from an enlarged image to a diminished image.
C. It remains a diminished image.
D. It remains an enlarged image.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.3: Thin converging lens — describe the nature (real/virtual, magnified/diminished) of images formed by a converging lens for objects placed at different distances, including inside the focal length.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
At position P, between \( f \) and \( 2f \), a converging lens forms a real, enlarged image.
When the object moves to position Q, inside the focal length \( f \), the lens can no longer converge the rays to a real point, so a virtual image forms instead.
A virtual image formed by a converging lens with the object inside the focal length is always magnified, so the image remains enlarged throughout.
Answer: (D)

Question 36

A student measures the current in a resistor and the potential difference (p.d.) across it.

Which circuit shows an ammeter and a voltmeter both connected correctly?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components — draw and interpret circuits showing an ammeter connected in series and a voltmeter connected in parallel across a component.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An ammeter must be connected in series in the main circuit loop so that the full current flowing through the resistor also flows through it.
A voltmeter must be connected in parallel across the resistor, so it measures the potential difference between its two ends without diverting current from the main circuit.
Only one circuit diagram shows the ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel in this way.
Answer: (A)

Question 37

A \( 3.0\ \Omega \) resistor is connected to a \( 12\ V \) power supply.

How much electrical energy does the resistor transfer in \( 10\ s \)?

A. 3.6 J
B. 4.8 J
C. 360 J
D. 480 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power — recall and use the equations relating voltage, current, resistance, energy transferred and time.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
First find the current using \( I = \dfrac{V}{R} = \dfrac{12}{3.0} = 4.0\ A \).
Electrical power is given by \( P = VI = 12 \times 4.0 = 48\ W \).
Energy transferred is \( E = Pt = 48 \times 10 = 480\ J \).
Answer: (D)

Question 38

A solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field.

Which diagram shows the magnetic field pattern?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.3: Magnetic effect of current — sketch the magnetic field pattern produced by a current-carrying solenoid, including its resemblance to a bar magnet.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A current-carrying solenoid produces a magnetic field pattern very similar to that of a bar magnet, with field lines emerging from one end (north pole) and curving round to enter the other end (south pole).
Inside the solenoid, the field lines run parallel to the axis and are evenly spaced, showing a strong, uniform field.
Only one diagram correctly shows this bar-magnet-like pattern both inside and outside the coil.
Answer: (D)

Question 39

The diagram shows a motor. One part of the motor is labelled X.

What is the name of part X and how does it help the motor to work?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.5: The d.c. motor — describe the action of a split-ring commutator in reversing the current direction in the coil every half turn, keeping the motor turning continuously in one direction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Part X, in contact with the brushes, is the split-ring commutator, not a step-down transformer (which is an entirely different component used to change a.c. voltage).
Its role is to reverse the direction of current flowing through the coil every half turn.
This keeps the turning forces on each side of the coil acting in the same rotational direction, allowing the motor to spin continuously rather than oscillating back and forth.
Answer: (B)

Question 40

A radioactive source emits \( \alpha \)-particles and \( \beta \)-particles that pass into the space between two charged plates.

In which directions are the particles deflected as they pass between the plates and which particles are deflected more?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission — describe the relative charge, mass and deflection in electric/magnetic fields of alpha and beta particles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The positively charged \( \alpha \)-particles are attracted towards the negative (upper) plate, while the negatively charged \( \beta \)-particles are attracted towards the positive (lower) plate, so they deflect in opposite directions.
\( \beta \)-particles have a much smaller mass than \( \alpha \)-particles but carry a comparable magnitude of charge, so for the same field they experience a much greater deflection.
This means \( \beta \)-particles bend towards the lower plate and \( \alpha \)-particles towards the upper plate, with \( \beta \)-particles deflected more.
Answer: (D)
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