Home / 0654_s24_qp_11

Question 1

What is a characteristic of all living organisms?

A. excretion
B. digestion
C. photosynthesis
D. sexual reproduction

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — All living organisms share the seven life processes (MRSGREN): Movement, Respiration, Sensitivity, Growth, Reproduction, Excretion, Nutrition.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
All living organisms carry out excretion — the removal of metabolic waste products from the body.
Digestion only occurs in animals that ingest food; photosynthesis is exclusive to plants and algae; sexual reproduction is not universal (some organisms reproduce asexually).
Answer: (A)

Question 2

The diagram shows a typical plant cell.

Which row is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — Plant cells contain structures absent in animal cells: cell wall (made of cellulose), chloroplasts, and a large permanent vacuole.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cell membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus are found in both plant and animal cells.
The cell wall (made of cellulose) is a structure present only in plant cells, providing rigidity and structural support.
Answer: (D)

Question 3

Which smaller molecules make up larger fat molecules?

A. glucose and amino acids
B. glucose and fatty acids
C. glycerol and amino acids
D. glycerol and fatty acids

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — Fats (lipids) are made up of one glycerol molecule bonded to three fatty acid molecules via ester bonds.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fat molecules (triglycerides) are formed by the condensation of one glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules.
Glucose and amino acids are the monomers of carbohydrates and proteins respectively — not fats.
Answer: (D)

Question 4

Which type of molecules are enzymes?

A. carbohydrates
B. fats
C. oils
D. proteins

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — Enzymes are biological catalysts that are made of protein; their specific 3D shape (active site) allows them to bind to substrates.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Enzymes are biological catalysts composed entirely of protein molecules, made from chains of amino acids.
Their protein nature gives them a specific 3D active site shape that is complementary to their substrate, enabling catalysis.
Answer: (D)

Question 5

The rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic plant is measured by counting the number of bubbles of oxygen produced every minute, as shown. The rate is measured at different light intensities.

Which two variables need to be kept constant?

A. size of plant and temperature of the water
B. light intensity and size of the boiling tube
C. size of plant and size of the boiling tube
D. temperature of the water and light intensity

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — The rate of photosynthesis is affected by light intensity, temperature, and CO₂ concentration; in a controlled experiment the independent variable is light intensity, so other factors (temperature, plant size) must be kept constant.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since light intensity is the independent variable being changed, it cannot be a control variable — eliminating options B and D.
The size of the plant determines how much photosynthesis can occur, and temperature affects the rate of enzyme-controlled reactions; both must be kept constant to ensure a fair test.
Answer: (A)

Question 6

Starch is mixed with saliva and placed into a bag made of a partially permeable membrane. The bag is placed into a tube filled with water, as shown.

After one hour, sugar molecules are found in the water outside the bag. Which process has taken place inside the bag?

A. assimilation
B. digestion
C. egestion
D. ingestion

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.3: Digestion — Digestion is the breakdown of large, insoluble food molecules into small, soluble molecules; salivary amylase in saliva breaks starch into maltose/sugars.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Saliva contains the enzyme salivary amylase, which breaks down starch (a large insoluble molecule) into smaller sugar molecules — this is digestion.
The resulting sugars are small enough to pass through the partially permeable membrane into the water outside, confirming that chemical digestion occurred inside the bag.
Answer: (B)

Question 7

What is transported by red blood cells?

A. glucose
B. insulin
C. oxygen
D. urea

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B9.3: Blood vessels / Blood — Red blood cells contain haemoglobin, which binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it to respiring tissues around the body.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Red blood cells are packed with haemoglobin, a protein that combines with oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin in the lungs and releases oxygen to body tissues.
Glucose, insulin, and urea are dissolved in the plasma and transported in solution — not inside red blood cells.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

A person inflates a balloon by breathing into it.

What is the composition of the air in the balloon?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B11.1: Gas exchange in humans — Exhaled air contains approximately 16% O₂, 4% CO₂, and 79% N₂, compared to inhaled air which has 21% O₂ and 0.04% CO₂.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Exhaled air has a lower oxygen content (~16%) and a higher carbon dioxide content (~4%) compared to inhaled air, because oxygen is consumed and carbon dioxide is produced during cellular respiration.
Nitrogen remains largely unchanged at ~79% since the body does not use it, and the correct row in the table reflecting these values is C.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

A plant is placed in a box. The box has a hole so that the plant is illuminated from one side. The plant is observed after one week. The result is shown.

What explains the growth of the plant after one week?

A. Plant shoots grow towards light, showing phototropism.
B. Plant shoots grow towards gravity, showing gravitropism.
C. Plant shoots grow towards light, showing gravitropism.
D. Plant shoots grow towards gravity, showing phototropism.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Coordination and response — Phototropism is the growth response of a plant shoot towards (positive) or away from light; auxin redistributes to the shaded side causing differential growth.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The plant shoot bends towards the light source because auxin accumulates on the shaded side, causing faster cell elongation there — this directional growth response to light is called phototropism.
Gravitropism refers to growth in response to gravity, not light, so options B, C, and D are incorrect.
Answer: (A)

Question 10

Which row is correct for sexual reproduction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.2: Sexual reproduction — Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of male and female gametes (fertilisation), producing offspring that are genetically different from parents due to mixing of genetic material.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sexual reproduction requires the fusion of two gametes (fertilisation) and results in genetic variation in offspring, because each gamete carries a unique combination of alleles.
Row C correctly identifies that sexual reproduction involves two parents, fusion of gametes, and genetically varied offspring.
Answer: (C)

Question 11

The graph shows the masses of samples of two different types of potato, Y and Z.

What is shown by the graph?

A. Genes do not affect the mass of potatoes.
B. Type Y potatoes show continuous variation.
C. Type Z potatoes are smaller than type Y.
D. Type Z potatoes show discontinuous variation.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B17.1: Variation — Continuous variation (e.g. mass, height) shows a range of values with no distinct categories, typically displayed as a bell-shaped curve; discontinuous variation shows distinct separate categories.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Type Y potatoes display a bell-shaped (normal distribution) curve of masses, indicating a continuous range of values with no clear divisions — this is the hallmark of continuous variation.
Type Z may overlap in range with Y, so we cannot conclude Z are always smaller; and discontinuous variation would show distinct separate bars, not a smooth curve.
Answer: (B)

Question 12

A food chain is shown.

plant → insect → songbird → hawk

Which statements are correct?

  1. The hawk is a consumer.
  2. The insect is a carnivore.
  3. The songbird is a herbivore.
  4. The plant is a producer.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — Producers make their own food via photosynthesis; consumers eat other organisms; herbivores eat only plants; carnivores eat only animals.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Statement 1 is correct — the hawk eats the songbird, making it a consumer (tertiary consumer); Statement 4 is correct — the plant produces food via photosynthesis, making it a producer.
Statement 2 is incorrect — the insect eats the plant, so it is a herbivore, not a carnivore; Statement 3 is incorrect — the songbird eats the insect (an animal), so it is a carnivore, not a herbivore.
Answer: (B)

Question 13

Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

A. combustion
B. decomposition
C. photosynthesis
D. respiration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.3: Carbon cycle — Photosynthesis is the only major biological process that removes CO₂ from the atmosphere, converting it into glucose using light energy.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and water in the presence of light to produce glucose and oxygen, thereby removing \(\text{CO}_2\) from the atmosphere: \(6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2\).
Combustion, decomposition, and respiration all release \(\text{CO}_2\) back into the atmosphere, so they are the opposite process.
Answer: (C)

Question 14

Cyclopentane is a hydrocarbon. The melting point of cyclopentane is –94 °C and its boiling point is 49 °C.
In process 1, the temperature of cyclopentane changes from 55 °C to 45 °C.
In process 2, the temperature of cyclopentane changes from –100 °C to –90 °C.
Which row identifies the changes in processes 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — Changes of state depend on temperature relative to melting and boiling points; cooling a gas below its boiling point causes condensation, and warming a solid above its melting point causes melting.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In process 1, cooling from 55 °C (above boiling point of 49 °C → gas state) to 45 °C (below boiling point but above melting point → liquid state) is condensation (gas → liquid).
In process 2, warming from –100 °C (below melting point of –94 °C → solid state) to –90 °C (above melting point → liquid state) is melting (solid → liquid).
Answer: (D)

Question 15

Which statements about chemical changes are correct?

  1. The separation of petroleum into gasoline, naphtha and diesel is a chemical change.
  2. The separation of water into hydrogen and oxygen is a chemical change.
  3. In a chemical change, a new substance is always formed.
  4. In a chemical change, heat is always released.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.1: Physical and chemical changes — A chemical change always produces new substances with different properties; fractional distillation is a physical change (no new substances formed), while electrolysis of water is a chemical change.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Separating petroleum by fractional distillation is a physical change (no new substances formed); electrolysis of water produces new substances \(\text{H}_2\) and \(\text{O}_2\), making it a chemical change — so statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is always true by definition of a chemical change; statement 4 is incorrect because some chemical changes are endothermic (absorb heat).
Answer: (C)

Question 16

Which elements react together to form an ionic compound?

A. carbon and oxygen
B. nitrogen and hydrogen
C. potassium and bromine
D. sodium and lithium

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Ionic compounds are formed when a metal transfers electrons to a non-metal; the resulting oppositely charged ions attract each other to form an ionic lattice.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ionic bonds form between a metal and a non-metal through electron transfer; potassium (metal) donates an electron to bromine (non-metal) to form \(\text{K}^+\text{Br}^-\), which is the ionic compound potassium bromide.
Carbon + oxygen, and nitrogen + hydrogen both form covalent compounds (non-metal + non-metal); sodium + lithium are both metals and do not form ionic compounds with each other.
Answer: (C)

Question 17

Hydrogen peroxide is a compound. A molecule of hydrogen peroxide can be represented as shown.

What is the formula of hydrogen peroxide?

A. HO
B. H₂O₂
C. H₂O
D. 2OH

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — The molecular formula of a covalent compound shows the actual number of each type of atom per molecule; hydrogen peroxide has 2 H atoms and 2 O atoms per molecule.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The displayed structural formula of hydrogen peroxide shows two H atoms and two O atoms connected as H–O–O–H, giving the molecular formula \(\text{H}_2\text{O}_2\).
\(\text{H}_2\text{O}\) is water (only 1 oxygen atom per molecule), while HO and 2OH are not valid molecular formulas for this compound.
Answer: (B)

Question 18

When concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolyzed using inert electrodes, the remaining solution turns red litmus paper to blue.

Which substance causes this colour change?

A. chlorine
B. hydrogen
C. hydrochloric acid
D. sodium hydroxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — During electrolysis of brine (concentrated NaCl solution), chlorine is produced at the anode, hydrogen at the cathode, and sodium hydroxide remains in solution, making it alkaline.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When brine is electrolysed, \(\text{Cl}^-\) is discharged at the anode (producing \(\text{Cl}_2\) gas) and \(\text{H}^+\) at the cathode (producing \(\text{H}_2\) gas), leaving \(\text{Na}^+\) and \(\text{OH}^-\) ions in solution to form sodium hydroxide (NaOH).
Sodium hydroxide is a strong alkali — it turns red litmus blue; chlorine and hydrogen are gases that escape, and hydrochloric acid is acidic (would turn blue litmus red).
Answer: (D)

Question 19

When aqueous sodium hydroxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, the temperature of the reaction mixture increases.
Ice cubes take in energy when they melt.
Which row is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — An exothermic reaction releases energy to the surroundings (temperature rises); an endothermic reaction absorbs energy from the surroundings (temperature falls).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The neutralisation of NaOH with HCl causes a temperature rise, meaning energy is released to the surroundings — this is an exothermic reaction.
Ice melting absorbs energy from the surroundings (temperature drops around it) — this is an endothermic process; Row B correctly classifies NaOH + HCl as exothermic and ice melting as endothermic.
Answer: (B)

Question 20

Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with calcium carbonate. The equation for the reaction is shown.

\(\text{CaCO}_3 + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{CaCl}_2 + \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}\)

Which change increases the rate of the reaction?

A. decreasing the temperature of the hydrochloric acid
B. increasing the concentration of the hydrochloric acid
C. increasing the size of the calcium carbonate particles
D. increasing the volume of the hydrochloric acid

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — Rate increases with higher temperature, higher concentration, smaller particle size (larger surface area), and the use of a catalyst; volume alone does not affect rate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Increasing the concentration of HCl means more acid particles per unit volume, leading to more frequent collisions with \(\text{CaCO}_3\) particles and a faster rate of reaction.
Decreasing temperature slows the reaction; larger particles reduce surface area (slower rate); increasing volume decreases concentration if the same amount of acid is diluted — none of these increase the rate.
Answer: (B)

Question 21

Which reactions involve oxidation?

  1. \(\text{C} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2\)
  2. \(2\text{NaOH} + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}\)
  3. \(2\text{Mg} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{MgO}\)
  4. \(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\)

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — Oxidation is defined as the gain of oxygen (or loss of electrons); a substance is oxidised when it gains oxygen atoms in a reaction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In reaction 1, carbon gains oxygen to form \(\text{CO}_2\) — carbon is oxidised; in reaction 3, magnesium gains oxygen to form MgO — magnesium is oxidised; both are oxidation reactions.
Reaction 2 is a neutralisation (acid-base) reaction with no oxygen transfer; reaction 4 is thermal decomposition with no net gain of oxygen by any element.
Answer: (A)

Question 22

Salts are made when four substances react separately with dilute hydrochloric acid.

  1. magnesium
  2. magnesium carbonate
  3. magnesium hydroxide
  4. magnesium oxide

Which substances produce a gas when reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.3: Preparation of salts — Metals react with acids to produce hydrogen gas; carbonates react with acids to produce carbon dioxide gas; oxides and hydroxides react with acids to form salt and water only (no gas).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Magnesium (metal) + HCl produces \(\text{H}_2\) gas: \(\text{Mg} + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{MgCl}_2 + \text{H}_2\uparrow\); magnesium carbonate + HCl produces \(\text{CO}_2\) gas: \(\text{MgCO}_3 + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{MgCl}_2 + \text{CO}_2\uparrow + \text{H}_2\text{O}\).
Magnesium hydroxide and magnesium oxide are bases — they react with HCl to produce only salt and water, with no gas evolved.
Answer: (A)

Question 23

Lead has a high density of 11.3 g/cm³. Lead(II) iodide is a bright yellow solid.

Which property of lead is not a property of a transition element?

A. Lead conducts electricity.
B. Lead forms alloys.
C. Lead has a relatively low melting point.
D. Lead(II) oxide is basic.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.4: Transition elements — Transition elements typically have high melting points, high densities, conduct electricity, form alloys, and form coloured compounds; a low melting point is atypical for transition metals.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Transition elements are characterised by high melting points (generally above 1000 °C); lead has a relatively low melting point of only 327 °C, which is uncharacteristic of true transition elements.
Conducting electricity, forming alloys, and having basic oxides are all typical properties of transition metals, so those are not the odd one out.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Which statements about the noble gas helium are correct?

  1. It is unreactive.
  2. Atoms of helium have two electrons in their outer electron shell.
  3. Atoms of helium have incomplete outer electron shells.
  4. The formula of helium gas is He₂.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — Noble gases are unreactive because they have full outer electron shells (helium has 2 electrons filling its first shell); they exist as monatomic gases (He, not He₂).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Helium (atomic number 2) has an electron configuration of 2 — its first and only shell is full with 2 electrons, making it completely unreactive; statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect (the outer shell is complete, not incomplete), and statement 4 is incorrect (helium is monatomic — He, not He₂).
Answer: (A)

Question 25

Water vapour, carbon dioxide and the noble gases are removed from a 100 cm³ sample of clean air. What is the remaining volume?

A. 1 cm³
B. 21 cm³
C. 78 cm³
D. 99 cm³

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — The approximate composition of clean dry air is: 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, ~1% argon and other noble gases, ~0.04% CO₂, plus variable water vapour.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
After removing water vapour (~variable), \(\text{CO}_2\) (~0.04%), and noble gases (~1%), what remains is nitrogen (~78%) and oxygen (~21%), which together account for approximately 99 cm³ out of 100 cm³.
The removed components total roughly 1 cm³, so the remaining volume is approximately \(100 – 1 = 99 \text{ cm}^3\).
Answer: (D)

Question 26

Which statement about manufacturing processes is correct?

A. Limestone is manufactured from calcium oxide.
B. Limestone is manufactured from acidic waste products.
C. Ethene is manufactured by addition polymerisation.
D. Sulfuric acid is manufactured from sulfur.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.3 / C12.1: Fuels and industrial chemistry — Sulfuric acid is produced industrially by the Contact Process: sulfur is burned to \(\text{SO}_2\), oxidised to \(\text{SO}_3\), then dissolved in water to give \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sulfuric acid is manufactured via the Contact Process starting from sulfur: \(\text{S} \rightarrow \text{SO}_2 \rightarrow \text{SO}_3 \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\) — statement D is correct.
Limestone is a naturally occurring mineral (\(\text{CaCO}_3\)), not manufactured; ethene is produced by cracking, not by addition polymerisation (which produces poly(ethene) from ethene).
Answer: (D)

Question 27

Which molecule reacts with aqueous bromine?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.5: Alkenes — Alkenes contain a C=C double bond and decolourise bromine water by addition reaction; alkanes are saturated and do not react with bromine water under normal conditions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aqueous bromine (bromine water) is decolourised by alkenes through electrophilic addition across the \(\text{C=C}\) double bond — the molecule in option B contains a C=C double bond (it is an alkene).
Alkanes (saturated molecules with only C–C single bonds) do not react with bromine water under normal conditions, so the other options showing only single bonds would not decolourise it.
Answer: (B)

Question 28

A car travels at constant speed. It is at point X at time = 0.

Which distance–time graph and speed–time graph represent the motion of the car?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — For constant speed, the distance–time graph is a straight line with positive gradient (distance increases uniformly); the speed–time graph is a horizontal straight line (speed remains constant).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
At constant speed, distance increases proportionally with time, giving a straight diagonal line on the distance–time graph; simultaneously, speed stays constant, giving a horizontal line on the speed–time graph.
The car starts at point X (not at zero distance), so the distance–time graph starts above the origin — option A shows both these features correctly.
Answer: (A)

Question 29

The diagrams show all the forces acting on three objects, X, Y and Z.

Which of the objects experience a resultant force?

A. X, Y and Z
B. X only
C. Y and Z only
D. Y only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — A resultant force exists when forces are unbalanced (do not cancel each other out); if all forces on an object are balanced (equal and opposite), the resultant force is zero.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Object X has equal and opposite forces (balanced), so its resultant force is zero; objects Y and Z have unequal forces in at least one direction, producing a non-zero resultant force.
A non-zero resultant force causes acceleration (change in speed or direction) according to Newton’s Second Law \(F = ma\).
Answer: (C)

Question 30

A student places four identical beakers on a bench.

Two beakers contain salt water of density 1.1 g/cm³ and two beakers contain pure water of density 1.0 g/cm³. The quantity of water in each beaker is shown.

Which beaker exerts the greatest pressure on the bench?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.7: Pressure — Pressure = Force ÷ Area; since all beakers are identical (same base area), the beaker with greatest weight (mass × g) exerts greatest pressure; mass = volume × density.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since all beakers are identical (same base area), the pressure on the bench depends only on the total weight of the beaker and liquid: \(P = \frac{F}{A} = \frac{mg}{A}\), where \(m = \rho \times V\).
Beaker A contains the largest volume of salt water (highest density), giving it the greatest mass and therefore the greatest weight and pressure on the bench.
Answer: (A)

Question 31

The power rating of an electric kettle is 1500 W.

What does this mean?

A. The kettle requires 1500 J to boil water.
B. The kettle takes 1500 s to boil water.
C. The kettle transfers 1500 J of energy every second.
D. The weight of the kettle is 1500 N.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.4: Power — Power is the rate of energy transfer: \(P = \frac{E}{t}\); 1 watt = 1 joule per second, so a 1500 W kettle transfers 1500 J of energy every second.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Power is defined as the rate of energy transfer: \(P = \frac{E}{t}\), so 1500 W means the kettle transfers 1500 joules of electrical energy into heat energy every second.
The other options confuse power with total energy (A), time (B), or weight (D) — none of which is the definition of power rating.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

A glass jar in a warm room has a metal lid that is easy to remove.

The jar with the lid on is left in a refrigerator overnight.
In the morning, the lid of the jar is difficult to remove.
Which statement is an explanation of what happens when the jar is in the refrigerator?

A. The glass jar contracted more than the metal lid.
B. The metal lid contracted more than the glass jar.
C. The glass jar expanded more than the metal lid.
D. The metal lid expanded more than the glass jar.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.1: Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases — Metals generally expand and contract more than glass for the same temperature change; cooling causes contraction, and the metal lid contracts more, gripping the glass jar more tightly.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When cooled in the refrigerator, both the glass jar and metal lid contract, but metals have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion than glass, so the metal lid contracts more than the glass jar.
This means the lid shrinks tightly onto the glass neck, making it much harder to remove — the opposite occurs when heated (lid expands more, loosening it).
Answer: (B)

Question 33

A beaker contains water that is all at 20 °C.
A convection current is started in the water, as shown in the diagram.
Four points are labelled W, X, Y and Z.

Which two actions can each, on their own, cause this convection current?

A. cooling the water at W or heating the water at Y
B. cooling the water at W or heating the water at Z
C. cooling the water at X or heating the water at Y
D. cooling the water at X or heating the water at Z

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.2: Convection — Convection currents arise because warm fluid is less dense and rises, while cooler fluid is denser and sinks; heating the bottom or cooling the top of a fluid drives circulation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the diagram, water rises on the right side and sinks on the left; this can be driven by heating at point Z (bottom right, making water less dense so it rises) or by cooling at point X (top left, making water denser so it sinks).
Both actions independently set up the same clockwise circulation pattern shown, confirming option D is correct.
Answer: (D)

Question 34

Which type of electromagnetic wave is emitted by a television remote controller?

A. gamma (γ)-rays
B. infrared
C. ultraviolet
D. X-rays

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum — Infrared radiation is used in TV remote controls to transmit signals; it is just beyond the red end of the visible spectrum and is safe for everyday use.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Television remote controls use infrared (IR) radiation to send coded pulses of electromagnetic radiation to the TV’s receiver — IR has a wavelength just longer than visible red light and is safe at low intensities.
Gamma rays and X-rays are ionising radiation (dangerous), while ultraviolet is used in sterilisation and banknote checking — none of these are used in TV remotes.
Answer: (B)

Question 35

An electric bell is suspended by a rubber band in a glass jar. The hammer hits the bell and makes it ring.

A pump removes air from the jar. The hammer still hits the bell but no sound can be heard.
Why does this happen?

A. A medium is needed to transmit sound waves.
B. The bell cannot vibrate in a vacuum.
C. The pitch of the sound is now outside the range of human hearing.
D. There cannot be an electric current in a vacuum.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — Sound is a mechanical (longitudinal) wave that requires a material medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to travel; it cannot propagate through a vacuum because there are no particles to vibrate and transfer energy.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves that travel by causing particles in a medium to compress and rarefy; when air is removed from the jar, a vacuum forms and there are no particles to carry the vibrations from the bell to the outside.
The bell still vibrates (as the hammer still strikes it), ruling out option B; the electric current and pitch are unaffected by the absence of air, ruling out C and D.
Answer: (A)

Question 36

A cell is connected in a circuit.

Which statement describes how the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell is measured?

A. It is measured in newtons using a newton meter connected in parallel with the cell.
B. It is measured in newtons using a newton meter connected in series with the cell.
C. It is measured in volts using a voltmeter connected in parallel with the cell.
D. It is measured in volts using a voltmeter connected in series with the cell.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.3: Voltage (electromotive force and potential difference) — E.m.f. is the energy transferred per unit charge by the source and is measured in volts (V) using a voltmeter connected in parallel across the terminals of the cell.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Electromotive force (e.m.f.) is measured in volts (V), not newtons — eliminating options A and B immediately; a voltmeter has very high resistance and must always be connected in parallel across the component (not in series) to measure voltage without disrupting the circuit.
Connecting a voltmeter in series would drastically reduce current flow and give an incorrect reading; parallel connection ensures it measures the full potential difference across the cell terminals.
Answer: (C)

Question 37

In the circuits shown, all the resistors are identical. Which circuit has the smallest combined resistance?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components — Resistors in series add directly (\(R_\text{total} = R_1 + R_2 + \ldots\)); resistors in parallel give a combined resistance smaller than any individual resistor (\(\frac{1}{R_\text{total}} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} + \ldots\)); more resistors in parallel means even smaller total resistance.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For identical resistors each of resistance \(R\): series combinations increase total resistance (e.g. two in series give \(2R\)), while parallel combinations decrease it — three identical resistors all in parallel give \(\frac{R}{3}\), the smallest possible combined resistance.
Circuit B shows the greatest number of resistors connected in parallel, yielding the smallest total resistance of all the options shown.
Answer: (B)

Question 38

The maximum current in an electric circuit is 10 A.

What is the most appropriate rating of a fuse for this circuit?

A. 5 A
B. 9 A
C. 13 A
D. 25 A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components — A fuse must allow normal operating current to flow without melting, but must melt and break the circuit if the current becomes dangerously large; the correct fuse rating is the lowest value that is still above the maximum normal operating current.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse rated at 5 A or 9 A would blow during normal operation (maximum current is 10 A), which is unacceptable; a fuse rated at 25 A would allow dangerously high currents before blowing, providing poor protection.
A 13 A fuse is the lowest standard rating above 10 A — it allows normal operation while melting quickly if a fault causes the current to rise significantly above 10 A, giving optimal protection.
Answer: (C)

Question 39

A current-carrying wire passes through a flat card. The arrow on the wire shows the direction of the current. Which diagram shows the pattern of the magnetic field on the card and the direction of the magnetic field lines?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism / Electromagnetism — A current-carrying wire produces concentric circular magnetic field lines around it; the direction is determined by the right-hand rule (grip the wire with the right hand, thumb pointing in current direction — fingers curl in the direction of field lines).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire forms concentric circles centred on the wire; applying the right-hand rule with the current directed upward (as shown by the arrow) means the field lines circle anticlockwise when viewed from above.
Only diagram D shows concentric circular field lines in the correct anticlockwise direction consistent with the given current direction.
Answer: (D)

Question 40

A radioactive material has a half-life of 4.0 days. The rate of emission of radiation from a sample of the material is 32 emissions per minute.

What was the rate of emission from the sample 8.0 days earlier?

A. 8.0 emissions per minute
B. 128 emissions per minute
C. 256 emissions per minute
D. 1024 emissions per minute

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.3: Radioactive decay — The half-life is the time taken for the activity of a radioactive source to halve; going back in time by one half-life doubles the activity, so going back by \(n\) half-lives multiplies the activity by \(2^n\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
8.0 days earlier represents \(\frac{8.0}{4.0} = 2\) half-lives in the past; going back 2 half-lives means the activity was \(2^2 = 4\) times greater than it is now: \(32 \times 4 = 128\) emissions per minute.
This can be verified by working forward: \(128 \xrightarrow{\times\frac{1}{2}} 64 \xrightarrow{\times\frac{1}{2}} 32\) — after two half-lives (8 days), the rate drops from 128 to 32, confirming the answer.
Answer: (B)
Scroll to Top