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Question 1

Which processes are examples of excretion?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — defines excretion as the removal of waste products of metabolism and substances in excess of requirements.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excretion is the removal of waste products of metabolism, e.g. carbon dioxide from respiration.
Release of oxygen from photosynthesis is not excretion, since oxygen is a useful product, not a waste product of the organism’s own metabolism in this context.
Answer: (B)

Question 2

What are all living organisms made from?

A. cells
B. eggs
C. mesophyll
D. sperm

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — the cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
All living organisms are built from cells, the smallest unit capable of carrying out life processes.
Eggs and sperm are specific cell types (gametes), and mesophyll is a specific plant tissue — neither describes all organisms.
Answer: (A)

Question 3

Analysis of a large food molecule shows that it contains the elements carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only.

Which food groups could this molecule be from?

A. carbohydrates and fats only
B. carbohydrates and proteins only
C. fats and proteins only
D. carbohydrates, fats and proteins

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — lists the chemical elements that make up carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carbohydrates and fats are made only of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
Proteins also contain nitrogen (and often sulfur), so a molecule with only C, H and O cannot be a protein.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

The graph shows the mass of product produced by an enzyme-controlled reaction over time when the reaction mixture is placed separately at 37 °C and at 60 °C. The starting concentration of the substrate and the concentration of the enzyme used are kept constant.

What can be concluded from the graph?

A. At point X on the graph, the enzyme has run out of substrate.
B. The enzyme denatures at point Y on the graph.
C. The reaction mixture has a higher kinetic energy at 37 °C.
D. The reaction mixture has a higher initial rate of reaction when placed at 60 °C.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — explains the effect of temperature on enzyme activity in terms of kinetic energy and frequency of effective collisions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Higher temperature gives particles more kinetic energy, increasing the frequency of effective enzyme–substrate collisions.
This means the curve at 60 °C rises more steeply at the start, so it has the higher initial rate, even though it later plateaus early due to denaturation.
Answer: (D)

Question 5

How many molecules of carbon dioxide are needed to produce six molecules of glucose?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 36

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — the balanced symbol equation for photosynthesis: \(6CO_2 + 6H_2O \rightarrow C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The balanced equation is \(6CO_2 + 6H_2O \rightarrow C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2\), so 6 molecules of \(CO_2\) make 1 molecule of glucose.
To make 6 molecules of glucose, you need \(6 \times 6 = 36\) molecules of \(CO_2\).
Answer: (D)

Question 6

A student investigates the effect of size of gelatine cubes on the rate of digestion by protease.

The student places a cube of gelatine with a volume of 8 cm³ into a beaker of protease. The time taken for the cube to be digested is recorded.

A second 8 cm³ cube of gelatine is cut up into eight 1 cm³ cubes to represent mechanical digestion and the experiment is repeated.

The results are shown.

Which statements are correct?

  1. Cutting up the 8 cm³ cube increases the surface area exposed to the enzyme.
  2. Chemical digestion cannot occur unless mechanical digestion also occurs.
  3. Mechanical digestion increases the rate of chemical digestion.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.3: Digestion — physical digestion increases the surface area of food for the action of enzymes in chemical digestion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: cutting the cube into eight smaller pieces increases the total surface area exposed to protease, which is why digestion is faster (80 minutes vs 320 minutes).
Statement 2 is false: chemical digestion can still occur on the whole cube, just more slowly — mechanical digestion is not essential for it to happen at all; statement 3 is correct since the faster digestion time directly shows mechanical digestion speeds up chemical digestion.
Answer: (C)

Question 7

Which graph shows the effect of humidity on the rate of transpiration?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.3: Transpiration — explains the effect on the rate of transpiration of varying humidity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As humidity increases, the concentration gradient of water vapour between the leaf air spaces and the outside air decreases.
This reduces the rate of diffusion of water vapour out of the stomata, so the rate of transpiration falls as humidity rises — a downward-sloping line.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

A student places a mixture of yeast and glucose in a boiling tube, as shown in the diagram.

They cover the mixture with a layer of oil.

A delivery tube is used to bubble gas produced by the yeast through limewater.

After 10 minutes, the limewater is milky.

Why does the limewater go milky?

A. The yeast produces carbon dioxide by anaerobic respiration.
B. The yeast produces lactic acid by anaerobic respiration.
C. The yeast produces carbon dioxide by photosynthesis.
D. The yeast produces oxygen by aerobic respiration.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — anaerobic respiration in yeast (fermentation) releases carbon dioxide.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The oil layer seals out oxygen, so the yeast respires anaerobically: \(glucose \rightarrow ethanol + carbon dioxide\).
Carbon dioxide gas bubbles through the limewater and reacts to form insoluble calcium carbonate, turning it milky; yeast cannot photosynthesise and no oxygen is involved here.
Answer: (A)

Question 9

A person touches a hot object and pulls their hand away. This is a reflex action. What is the pathway for the reflex action?

A. stimulus → motor neurone → relay neurone → sensory neurone → response
B. stimulus → relay neurone → motor neurone → sensory neurone → response
C. stimulus → sensory neurone → relay neurone → motor neurone → response
D. stimulus → sensory neurone → motor neurone → relay neurone → response

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Coordination and response — describes a simple reflex arc in terms of receptor, sensory neurone, relay neurone, motor neurone and effector.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A receptor detects the stimulus and the impulse travels along a sensory neurone to the spinal cord.
There it passes through a relay neurone, then a motor neurone, to the effector (muscle), producing the response.
Answer: (C)

Question 10

The diagram shows the human male reproductive system.

Which row identifies structures X, Y and Z?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.4: Sexual reproduction in humans — identifies the urethra, sperm duct and prostate gland on diagrams of the male reproductive system.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Tracing the tube from the testis: sperm travel first along the sperm duct, then past the prostate gland which adds fluid, then out through the urethra.
Matching X, Y, Z in the diagram to this order (urethra, sperm duct, prostate gland) gives the sequence Z, Y, X.
Answer: (D)

Question 11

Which row about the nucleus of human cells is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.1: Chromosomes and genes — a diploid nucleus contains two sets of chromosomes (46 in a human body cell); a haploid nucleus contains one set (23, in a gamete).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A human body cell is diploid and contains 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).
Gametes (sperm and egg cells) are haploid and contain only 23 chromosomes, one of each pair.
Answer: (B)

Question 12

What is an ecosystem?

A. a chart showing the flow of energy from one organism to another
B. a diagram giving the energy level of an organism in its environment
C. a network of interconnected food chains
D. a unit containing all of the organisms and their environment

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — describes an ecosystem as a unit containing the community of organisms and their environment, interacting together.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An ecosystem is the whole unit of living organisms together with their physical environment, all interacting with one another.
A food web is a network of food chains, and energy flow diagrams describe processes within an ecosystem — neither is the definition of the ecosystem itself.
Answer: (D)

Question 13

Which line shows how the oxygen concentration of the water changes after excess fertiliser has entered a stream?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — freshwater pollution from fertiliser run-off (eutrophication) is one of the causes of habitat destruction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Excess fertiliser causes rapid algal growth; as algae and bacteria decompose, they use up dissolved oxygen, so the oxygen concentration falls sharply just after the run-off point.
Further downstream, as the nutrients are diluted and used up, oxygen levels gradually recover towards normal.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

W, X, Y and Z are diagrams representing atoms and molecules.

Which statement is correct?

A. W and Z are molecules and X and Y are atoms.
B. W, X and Z are molecules and Y is an atom.
C. W, Y and Z are molecules and X is an atom.
D. X, Y and Z are molecules and W is an atom.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — describes the differences between elements, compounds and mixtures at the level of atoms and molecules.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A molecule is two or more atoms chemically joined together; a single particle on its own is just an atom.
In the diagrams, W, Y and Z each show atoms bonded in groups (molecules), while X shows a single unjoined particle (an atom).
Answer: (C)

Question 15

Which row describes the properties of a covalent compound?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.5: Simple molecules and covalent bonds — explains the properties of simple molecular compounds: low melting/boiling points (high volatility) and poor electrical conductivity, even when molten.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Simple covalent (molecular) compounds have weak intermolecular forces, so they have low melting/boiling points and are volatile.
They contain no free ions or delocalised electrons, so they do not conduct electricity even when molten — giving high volatility and no conductivity.
Answer: (A)

Question 16

The equation for the reaction of sodium with water is shown.

\(2Na(s) + 2H_2O(l) \rightarrow 2NaOH(aq) + H_2(g)\)

Which mass of sodium produces 30 cm³ of hydrogen?

A. 0.0288 g
B. 0.0575 g
C. 28.8 g
D. 57.5 g

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.3: The mole and the Avogadro constant — uses the molar gas volume (24 dm³ at r.t.p.) and mole ratios to calculate reacting masses.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Moles of \(H_2\) = \(\frac{30}{24000} = 0.00125\ mol\) (using 24 dm³ = 24000 cm³ at r.t.p.).
From the equation, moles of \(Na\) = \(2 \times 0.00125 = 0.0025\ mol\), so mass of \(Na\) = \(0.0025 \times 23 = 0.0575\ g\).
Answer: (B)

Question 17

Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using carbon electrodes.

What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction at the cathode?

A. \(Cu^{2+} + 2e^- \rightarrow Cu\)
B. \(2H^+ + 2e^- \rightarrow H_2\)
C. \(Cu \rightarrow Cu^{2+} + 2e^-\)
D. \(4OH^- \rightarrow O_2 + 2H_2O + 4e^-\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — identifies the products at the electrodes during electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate and constructs the ionic half-equation at the cathode.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
At the cathode, positive ions are attracted and gain electrons (reduction).
Copper is less reactive than hydrogen, so \(Cu^{2+}\) ions are reduced in preference to \(H^+\) ions: \(Cu^{2+} + 2e^- \rightarrow Cu\).
Answer: (A)

Question 18

The energy level diagram for a reaction is shown.

The diagram represents an ……1…… reaction. Heat is ……2…… during this reaction.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — interpreting reaction pathway diagrams; an endothermic reaction takes in thermal energy from the surroundings.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the diagram, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants, so energy has been absorbed overall.
A reaction in which energy is taken in from the surroundings (causing a temperature drop) is endothermic.
Answer: (B)

Question 19

In which equation is the underlined substance acting as an oxidising agent?

A. AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃
B. Cl₂ + 2KBr → Br₂ + 2KCl
C. Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂
D. H₂ + PbO → Pb + H₂O

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — identifying oxidation and reduction in redox reactions in terms of gain and loss of oxygen.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An oxidising agent is itself reduced (it loses oxygen, or gains electrons) while it oxidises another substance.
In option D, PbO loses its oxygen and is reduced to Pb, while it supplies that oxygen to oxidise \(H_2\) to \(H_2O\) — so PbO is the oxidising agent.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

Universal indicator solution is added to test-tubes W, X and Y.

What are the colours of the universal indicator?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — comparing neutrality, relative acidity and relative alkalinity using universal indicator colour and pH.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Dilute hydrochloric acid is a strong acid, turning universal indicator red; sodium chloride solution is neutral, turning it green.
Sodium hydroxide is a strong alkali, turning it purple.
Answer: (D)

Question 21

Copper is a transition element.

Which row shows two properties of copper?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.4: Transition elements — describes transition elements as metals with high melting points that often form coloured compounds.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Transition elements, including copper, have high densities and high melting points compared with Group I metals.
They also typically form coloured compounds (e.g. blue copper(II) sulfate), unlike most other metals which form white compounds.
Answer: (A)

Question 22

Metal X reacts with aqueous metal Y²⁺ ions. The ionic equation for the reaction is shown.

\(X + Y^{2+} \rightarrow X^{2+} + Y\)

What are metals X and Y?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.4: Reactivity series — a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from a solution of its ions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For X to displace Y from solution, X must be higher (more reactive) than Y in the reactivity series.
Zinc is more reactive than copper, so zinc metal displaces copper from aqueous copper ions, matching X = zinc and Y = copper.
Answer: (C)

Question 23

Ammonia is displaced from its salts by reaction with substance Z.

Which row identifies substance Z and the test for ammonia?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — sodium hydroxide reacts with ammonium salts to release ammonia gas; ammonia turns damp red litmus paper blue.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Warming an ammonium salt with sodium hydroxide releases ammonia gas, so substance Z is sodium hydroxide.
Ammonia is an alkaline gas, identified because it turns damp red litmus paper blue.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Four equations are listed.

  1. \(H_2S_2O_7 + H_2O \rightarrow H_2SO_4 + SO_3 + H_2O\)
  2. \(2S + 3O_2 \rightarrow 2SO_3\)
  3. \(H_2SO_4 + SO_3 \rightarrow H_2S_2O_7\)
  4. \(2SO_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2SO_3\)

Which equations represent reactions that are involved in the Contact process?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the Contact process, sulfur dioxide is catalytically oxidised to sulfur trioxide (equation 4), not made by directly burning sulfur in excess oxygen (equation 2 is not part of the real process).
The sulfur trioxide is then absorbed into concentrated sulfuric acid to form oleum, \(H_2S_2O_7\) (equation 3), which is later diluted with water to give more sulfuric acid.
Answer: (D)

Question 25

Which substance is produced by the thermal decomposition of limestone?

A. calcium
B. calcium carbonate
C. calcium hydroxide
D. calcium oxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate/limestone to produce calcium oxide, as used in the blast furnace.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone is calcium carbonate, \(CaCO_3\).
Heating it strongly causes thermal decomposition: \(CaCO_3 \rightarrow CaO + CO_2\), producing calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
Answer: (D)

Question 26

A gasoline fraction from the fractional distillation of petroleum includes compounds with the formulas C₆H₁₄ and C₁₂H₂₆.

Which statements about these compounds are correct?

  1. C₁₂H₂₆ has a higher boiling point than C₆H₁₄.
  2. C₁₂H₂₆ has a lower relative molecular mass than C₆H₁₄.
  3. C₆H₁₄ and C₁₂H₂₆ are members of different homologous series.
  4. C₆H₁₄ and C₁₂H₂₆ both undergo complete combustion to form carbon dioxide and water.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.3 / C11.4: Fuels and Alkanes — properties of hydrocarbon fractions change with chain length, and alkanes undergo complete combustion to carbon dioxide and water.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Both compounds are alkanes (same homologous series), and longer carbon chains have stronger intermolecular forces, giving a higher boiling point and a higher relative molecular mass for \(C_{12}H_{26}\) — so statement 1 is correct, statements 2 and 3 are wrong.
Both are hydrocarbons, so both undergo complete combustion to carbon dioxide and water, making statement 4 correct.
Answer: (B)

Question 27

The molecule shown contains some amide linkages,

How many amide linkages are present in this molecule?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 9

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — identifying repeat units and linkages (such as the amide linkage in a polyamide like nylon) in a polymer structure.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An amide linkage is the (-C(=O)-NH-) group, formed between an amine and a carboxylic acid (as in proteins and polyamides such as nylon).
Counting each occurrence of this exact grouping in the displayed structure gives 4 amide linkages.
Answer: (A)

Question 28

A ball is moving at a speed of 3.0 m/s.

The ball now accelerates with a constant acceleration of 2.0 m/s² in the direction that it is moving.

What is the speed of the ball 5.0 s after it begins to accelerate?

A. 10 m/s
B. 13 m/s
C. 17 m/s
D. 30 m/s

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — defines acceleration as change in velocity per unit time, (a = \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Using \(v = u + at\), the change in speed is \(\Delta v = at = 2.0 \times 5.0 = 10\ m/s\).
Final speed = \(u + \Delta v = 3.0 + 10 = 13\ m/s\).
Answer: (B)

Question 29

What is meant by the moment of a force?

A. the speed of an object moved by a force
B. the time taken for a force to move an object
C. the turning effect of a force
D. the work done by a force

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.2: Turning effect of forces — describes the moment of a force as a measure of its turning effect.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The moment of a force is defined as \(moment = force \times perpendicular\ distance\ from\ the\ pivot\).
This quantity measures how much turning effect the force produces about a pivot — not speed, time, or work done.
Answer: (C)

Question 30

A paralympic athlete of mass 70 kg uses a wheelchair of mass 10 kg in a race.

What is the kinetic energy of the athlete and wheelchair when they are moving at 6.0 m/s?

A. 240 J
B. 480 J
C. 1440 J
D. 2880 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.1: Energy — recall and use the equation for kinetic energy, \(E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Total mass = \(70 + 10 = 80\ kg\).
\(E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 80 \times 6.0^2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 80 \times 36 = 1440\ J\).
Answer: (C)

Question 31

The table shows four sources of energy used to generate electricity.

Which row about the energy source is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — advantages and disadvantages of energy resources in terms of renewability, availability and reliability.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Nuclear fission uses uranium, a finite fuel, so it is not renewable; but it can generate electricity continuously regardless of weather, so it is reliable at all times.
Coal is also non-renewable and unreliable in the sense its supply is finite, while wind and tides are renewable but weather/tide-dependent (not reliable at all times) — so only the nuclear row (no, yes) is fully correct.
Answer: (B)

Question 32

Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is often involved in heat transfer by radiation?

A. infrared
B. radio
C. ultraviolet
D. X-rays

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.3: Radiation — thermal energy transfer by thermal radiation does not require a medium and is mainly due to infrared radiation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Thermal (heat) radiation does not need a medium to travel and is mainly carried by infrared waves.
Radio, ultraviolet and X-rays are not the main carriers of heat transfer by radiation in everyday contexts.
Answer: (A)

Question 33

The diagram shows the direction of a wave that passes a particle. The particle is made to vibrate by the wave. The direction of vibration of the particle is shown.

Which row states the type of wave that passes the particle and gives an example of this type of wave?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.1: General properties of waves — in a longitudinal wave, the direction of vibration is parallel to the direction of propagation; sound waves are longitudinal.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the diagram, the particle vibrates parallel to the direction the wave is travelling.
A wave where vibration is parallel to the direction of travel is longitudinal, and sound is the classic example of a longitudinal wave.
Answer: (B)

Question 34

A plane mirror is fixed to a vertical wall and forms an image of an object.

What are the characteristics of the image?

A. enlarged and upright
B. enlarged and inverted
C. same size as the object and upright
D. same size as the object and inverted

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.1: Reflection of light — the image formed by a plane mirror is the same size, the same distance from the mirror, and laterally inverted (upright).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A plane mirror always forms an image that is the same size as the object and the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front.
The image is upright (top-to-bottom orientation unchanged), only laterally (left–right) inverted, not “inverted” in the upside-down sense.
Answer: (C)

Question 35

The diagram shows two soft-iron rods JK and LM placed between the poles of two magnets.

Which row shows the poles induced in the soft-iron rods?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism — describes induced magnetism in a temporary (soft-iron) magnet placed in an external magnetic field.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A soft-iron rod placed near a magnet’s pole has the opposite pole induced at the nearer end (attraction), and this pattern of opposite poles continues along each rod.
Applying this rule to both rods, sitting between the two magnets, gives the induced pole sequence S, N, S, N at J, K, L and M.
Answer: (D)

Question 36

The graph shows how the resistance of a thermistor changes with temperature. There is a potential difference (p.d.) of 6.0 V across the thermistor.

What is the current in the thermistor when it is at a temperature of 50 °C?

A. 0.0020 A
B. 0.50 A
C. 2.0 A
D. 500 A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — recall and use the equation \(R = \frac{V}{I}\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Reading the graph at 50 °C gives a resistance of 3000 Ω (3.0 kΩ).
Rearranging \(R = \frac{V}{I}\) gives \(I = \frac{V}{R} = \frac{6.0}{3000} = 0.0020\ A\).
Answer: (A)

Question 37

A kettle is connected to a 230 V mains supply. The current in the kettle is 10 A.

How much energy is transferred in 3.0 minutes?

A. 12.8 J
B. 767 J
C. 6900 J
D. 414 000 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power — recall and use the equation for electrical energy, \(E = IVt\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Time must be in seconds: \(t = 3.0 \times 60 = 180\ s\).
\(E = IVt = 10 \times 230 \times 180 = 414\,000\ J\).
Answer: (D)

Question 38

What is the function of a fuse in a circuit?

A. It decreases the resistance of the circuit.
B. It ensures a constant current in the circuit.
C. It ensures a constant resistance in the circuit.
D. It prevents the cables from overheating.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — explains the use and operation of fuses to protect against the hazards of excess current and overheating cables.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse contains a thin wire that melts and breaks the circuit if the current becomes too large.
This protects the circuit by switching it off before excess current causes the cables to overheat and become a fire hazard.
Answer: (D)

Question 39

What is the purpose of the commutator in a direct current (d.c.) motor?

A. It reverses the direction of the current in the coil every half turn.
B. It reverses the direction of rotation of the coil every complete turn.
C. It reverses the direction of rotation of the coil every half turn.
D. It reverses the magnetic field due to the permanent magnet every complete turn.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.5: The d.c. motor — Describe the operation of an electric motor, including the action of a split-ring commutator and brushes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a d.c. motor, the split-ring commutator is connected to the coil. As the coil rotates, the commutator reverses the direction of the current through the coil every half turn (every 180°).
This ensures that the forces on the two sides of the coil always act to produce a torque in the same rotational direction, so the motor continues to spin smoothly. It does not reverse the rotation or the magnetic field.
Answer: (A)

Question 40

A uranium nucleus decays by emitting an alpha (∝)-particle. The nuclide equation shows this decay.

\( _{92}^{X}\textrm{U} \to _{Y}^{234}\textrm{Th}\) + ∝-particle

What are the numbers X and Y?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.3: Radioactive decay — Know that during α‑decay the nucleus changes to that of a different element; use decay equations in nuclide notation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An alpha particle has a mass number of 4 and an atomic number of 2.
Therefore, when uranium (atomic number 92) emits an alpha particle, the daughter nucleus has atomic number \(92 – 2 = 90\) and mass number \(X – 4 = 234\), so \(X = 238\).
Hence, \(X = 238\) and \(Y = 90\), which corresponds to option C.
Answer: (C)
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