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Question 1

Which characteristic of living organisms involves chemical reactions that break down nutrient molecules to release energy?

A. excretion
B. nutrition
C. reproduction
D. respiration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — the release of energy from nutrient molecules via chemical reactions in cells.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Respiration is the life process in which nutrient molecules (e.g. glucose) are broken down by chemical reactions inside cells to release energy.
Excretion removes waste, nutrition takes in food, and reproduction produces offspring — none of these describe energy release.
Answer: (D)

Question 2

What is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

A. cell membrane
B. cell wall
C. nucleus
D. cytoplasm

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — comparing plant and animal cell structures.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cell membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm are present in both plant and animal cells.
The cell wall is a rigid structure made of cellulose that surrounds plant cells only, giving them shape and support.
Answer: (B)

Question 3

Glycerol is a component of which large molecules?

A. fats
B. glycogen
C. proteins
D. starch

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — fats and oils are made from fatty acids and glycerol.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fats and oils are large molecules built from smaller building-block molecules: fatty acids and glycerol.
Glycogen and starch are made from glucose units, and proteins are made from amino acids — neither contains glycerol.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

Which statement about enzymes is correct?

A. They are made from fat molecules.
B. They are used up in a reaction.
C. They speed up reactions.
D. They are not affected by temperature.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — proteins that act as biological catalysts, speeding up reactions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Enzymes are biological catalysts, meaning they speed up the rate of chemical reactions.
They are proteins (not fats), are not used up or changed permanently by the reaction, and are strongly affected by temperature.
Answer: (C)

Question 5

A plant with variegated leaves is destarched. A strip of black paper is attached to both sides of a leaf and the plant is placed in the light for 24 hours.

The leaf is then tested for starch.

Which areas of the leaf stain blue-black with iodine?

A. 1 and 4
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — starch is only produced in green, light-exposed leaf areas.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Starch (which stains blue-black with iodine) can only form where chlorophyll is present AND light reaches the leaf.
Area 2 is green and in the light, so it photosynthesises and stains blue-black; area 1 is green but covered, area 3 is white (no chlorophyll) and in the light, area 4 is white and covered — none of these turn blue-black.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

The diagram shows part of the human alimentary canal.

Which row identifies P, Q and R?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.2: Digestive system — identifying organs of the alimentary canal in diagrams.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Following the alimentary canal in order from the mouth: food passes down the oesophagus (P), into the coiled small intestine (Q), and finally the large intestine (R) before the anus.
This sequence and structure shape matches row D.
Answer: (D)

Question 7

The diagrams represent sections through a root, a stem and a leaf mid-rib, not drawn to the same scale.

In which row are the sections correctly identified?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.1: Xylem and phloem — identifying vascular tissue position in root, stem and leaf sections.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a root, the vascular tissue forms a central star-shaped core; in a stem, vascular bundles are arranged in a ring near the edge; in a leaf mid-rib, the vein sits centrally with xylem on top and phloem below.
Matching each diagram to its correct tissue arrangement gives row C.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

Which diagram of a cell shows the correct movement of substances for the process of aerobic respiration?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — aerobic respiration uses glucose and oxygen, releasing carbon dioxide and water.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aerobic respiration is summarised by \( \text{glucose} + \text{oxygen} \rightarrow \text{carbon dioxide} + \text{water} + \text{energy} \).
So glucose and oxygen must move into the cell, while carbon dioxide and water move out — this is the arrangement shown in diagram C.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

Which row shows a person’s response to a ‘fight or flight’ situation?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.2: Hormones — adrenaline raises breathing rate and pulse rate during ‘fight or flight’.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a ‘fight or flight’ response, adrenaline increases both breathing rate and pulse rate above their resting values to prepare the body for action.
A normal resting breathing rate is around 12–18 breaths/min and pulse around 70 beats/min, so both values must rise well above these — matching row D (18 and 140).
Answer: (D)

Question 10

Aphids are insects. The information shown describes part of the lifecycle of the aphid.

stage 1 In the spring, wingless females reproduce without fertilisation to produce many female offspring.
stage 2 In late summer, both males and females are produced. The female’s eggs are fertilised by the male’s sperm.

Which row shows the type of reproduction occurring at stages 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.1 & B15.2: Asexual and sexual reproduction — distinguishing reproduction with and without fertilisation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Stage 1 involves reproduction “without fertilisation”, which is the definition of asexual reproduction.
Stage 2 involves fusion of sperm and egg (“fertilised”), which is the definition of sexual reproduction.
Answer: (B)

Question 11

The size of tomatoes is an inherited characteristic with a range of phenotypes between two extremes.

What best describes this?

A. continuous variation
B. discontinuous variation
C. natural selection
D. selective breeding

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B17.1: Variation — continuous variation shows a full range of phenotypes between two extremes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A characteristic with a full range of values between two extremes (such as size or height) is continuous variation.
Discontinuous variation instead produces distinct, separate categories (e.g. blood group), which does not match “a range between two extremes”.
Answer: (A)

Question 12

What is a producer in a food web?

A. an organism that gets its energy by digesting plants
B. an organism that makes its own food using light energy
C. an organism that obtains energy from digested animals
D. an organism that gets its energy from dead or waste organic matter

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — producers begin food chains by photosynthesising.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A producer is an organism, typically a green plant or alga, that makes its own organic food using light energy through photosynthesis.
Organisms that digest plants or animals are consumers, and those feeding on dead matter are decomposers — neither is a producer.
Answer: (B)

Question 13

What is an undesirable effect of deforestation?

A. It increases the oxygen concentration of the atmosphere.
B. It leads to erosion and loss of soil.
C. It makes land available for agriculture.
D. It pollutes the air with methane.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — consequences of deforestation such as soil erosion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Removing trees exposes soil directly to wind and rain, since roots no longer bind it together, leading to erosion and loss of fertile soil.
The other options describe either false effects (increased oxygen) or effects that are advantages, not problems, of deforestation.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

Which change is represented by the diagram?

A. condensation
B. diffusion
C. evaporation
D. solidification

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C1.2: Diffusion — net movement of particles from a region of higher to lower concentration.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The diagram shows particles spreading out from a small concentrated region into the surrounding space, without any change of state.
This random spreading from high to low concentration is the definition of diffusion, not a state change like evaporation or condensation.
Answer: (B)

Question 15

An atom of an element contains 9 protons, 10 neutrons and 9 electrons.

What is the nucleon number (mass number) of this element?

A. 9
B. 10
C. 19
D. 28

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.2: Atomic structure — nucleon number = protons + neutrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The nucleon (mass) number is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus: \( \text{nucleon number} = \text{protons} + \text{neutrons} \).
Substituting the given values: \( 9 + 10 = 19 \).
Answer: (C)

Question 16

There are three times as many hydrogen atoms as carbon atoms in one molecule of hydrocarbon X.

What is the formula of X?

A. \(CH_4\)
B. \(C_2H_4\)
C. \(C_2H_6\)
D. \(C_2H_5OH\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.1: Formulas and terminology — interpreting molecular formulas of hydrocarbons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A hydrocarbon contains only carbon and hydrogen, which rules out option D since it contains oxygen.
The ratio of H atoms to C atoms must be exactly 3:1; checking each remaining formula, only \(C_2H_6\) gives \( \frac{6}{2} = 3 \).
Answer: (C)

Question 17

Which process is used to produce sodium and chlorine from the compound sodium chloride?

A. chromatography
B. cracking
C. distillation
D. electrolysis

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — breaking down an ionic compound using electricity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Electrolysis is the decomposition of an ionic compound, when molten or in solution, by passing an electric current through it.
Molten sodium chloride is electrolysed to give sodium metal at the cathode and chlorine gas at the anode; chromatography, cracking and distillation do not break down compounds this way.
Answer: (D)

Question 18

The temperature change as the result of a chemical reaction may go up or down.

Which rows about reactions are correct?

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An exothermic reaction releases heat energy to the surroundings, so the temperature increases; an endothermic reaction absorbs heat, so the temperature decreases.
This means row 1 (decrease, endothermic) and row 3 (increase, exothermic) are correctly matched.
Answer: (A)

Question 19

Two separate experiments X and Y are used to investigate the rate of the reaction between equal masses of calcium carbonate and excess dilute hydrochloric acid.

The volume of carbon dioxide given off is measured over time. A graph of the results is shown.

Which statement explains the difference between experiments X and Y?

A. A catalyst is added to Y.
B. A higher temperature is used in Y.
C. Larger pieces of calcium carbonate are used in X.
D. The acid is more concentrated in X.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — effect of concentration and particle size on reaction rate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since equal masses of calcium carbonate are used in both experiments, the same final volume of gas is eventually produced, but X reacts faster (steeper initial slope) than Y.
A faster reaction happening in X, with the same total amount of gas released, is best explained by X using a more concentrated acid, which increases collision frequency.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

Indigestion is caused by excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach.

Which substance can be used to neutralise the acid?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: Characteristic properties of acids and bases — neutralisation of stomach acid.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Neutralising excess stomach acid requires a base (an alkali or other substance with pH above 7).
Vinegar (pH 4) and orange juice (pH 6) are themselves acidic, and water (pH 7) is neutral so cannot neutralise anything; baking powder (pH 9) is basic and will react with and neutralise the acid.
Answer: (D)

Question 21

Which statements about the elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table are correct?

  1. Only one of them is a liquid at room temperature.
  2. Their colours become darker down the group.
  3. Their melting points and boiling points decrease down the group.
  4. They are all metallic elements called halogens.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.3: Group VII properties — trends in colour, state and melting/boiling points down the group.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Bromine is the only Group VII element that is liquid at room temperature, so statement 1 is correct.
The halogens are non-metals (not metallic), so statement 4 is false; melting/boiling points actually increase down the group, so statement 3 is also false.
Answer: (B)

Question 22

Filament lamps require an inert atmosphere.

Which gas is used to fill these lamps?

A. argon
B. helium
C. hydrogen
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — argon’s use as an inert filling gas in filament lamps.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Filament lamps are filled with an unreactive (noble) gas to stop the hot filament reacting with oxygen and burning out.
Argon is the noble gas commonly used for this purpose, being cheap and abundant, unlike helium which is not used industrially for this.
Answer: (A)

Question 23

Alloys are formed by dissolving one metal in another.

Alloys are ……1…… .
……2…… alloys conduct electricity.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.3: Alloys and their properties — alloys as mixtures that retain metallic conductivity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An alloy is a mixture (not a chemical compound) of a metal with one or more other elements, since the components are not chemically bonded in fixed proportions.
Because alloys are still made of metal atoms, they all retain metallic bonding and therefore all conduct electricity.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Metal X is extracted from its ore by heating the ore with carbon.

Which statement explains why carbon is used?

A. Carbon is a non-metal.
B. Carbon is more reactive than X.
C. Carbon reacts with oxygen in the air.
D. Carbon is less reactive than X.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — carbon reduction depends on relative reactivity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carbon can only displace and extract a metal from its ore if carbon is more reactive than that metal.
A more reactive element displaces a less reactive one from its compound, so metal X must be less reactive than carbon for this method to work.
Answer: (B)

Question 25

Which row shows the relative abundance of the gases in clean air?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — composition of clean, dry air (~78% N₂, ~21% O₂).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Clean, dry air is approximately 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with much smaller amounts of other gases such as argon and carbon dioxide.
So nitrogen must be the most abundant gas and oxygen the next most abundant, matching row B.
Answer: (B)

Question 26

What is not a use of limestone?

A. manufacture of calcium oxide
B. neutralising industrial waste products
C. purifying water
D. treating acidic soil

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — uses of limestone in neutralising acidic pollutants and soil.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone is used to manufacture calcium oxide (by heating), to neutralise acidic industrial waste, and to treat acidic soils — all common applications.
Purifying water is not a recognised use of limestone; water purification instead uses methods like filtration, chlorination or sedimentation.
Answer: (C)

Question 27

Which fractions obtained by the fractional distillation of petroleum are used as fuels?

  1. bitumen
  2. diesel oil
  3. gasoline
  4. refinery gas

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2, 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.3: Fuels — petroleum fractions and their uses as fuels.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Refinery gas, gasoline (petrol) and diesel oil are all flammable fractions burned as fuels in heating, cooking or vehicle engines.
Bitumen is a thick, viscous fraction used for surfacing roads and roofing, not as a fuel.
Answer: (D)

Question 28

The diagram is the speed–time graph for a moving object.

What happens to the acceleration of the object during the time represented by the graph?

A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It is greater than zero and stays constant.
D. It is zero and stays constant.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — acceleration as the gradient of a speed–time graph.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Acceleration is the gradient of a speed–time graph; a straight, sloped line therefore means the acceleration has a constant, non-zero value.
The graph shows a straight line rising steadily, so the gradient (acceleration) stays the same positive value throughout — it neither increases nor decreases.
Answer: (C)

Question 29

A metal has a density of 10 g / cm3. A solid, cuboid block of this metal has the dimensions shown.

What is the mass of the block?

A. 2.0 g
B. 10 g
C. 200 g
D. 1000 g

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.4: Density — calculating mass from density and volume.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The volume of the cuboid is \( 10 \times 5.0 \times 2.0 = 100 \, \text{cm}^3 \).
Using \( \text{mass} = \text{density} \times \text{volume} \), the mass is \( 10 \times 100 = 1000 \, \text{g} \).
Answer: (D)

Question 30

An object is travelling at constant speed in a straight line. There is no resultant force on the object.

What happens to the object?

A. It continues at constant speed but changes direction.
B. It continues at constant speed in the same direction.
C. Its speed decreases but it continues in the same direction.
D. Its speed increases but it continues in the same direction.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — an object with no resultant force keeps constant velocity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
With no resultant force acting, an object’s velocity (speed and direction) does not change — this is Newton’s First Law.
Since the object was already moving at constant speed in a straight line, it simply continues to do so unchanged.
Answer: (B)

Question 31

Two forklift trucks P and Q lift identical loads through the same vertical height.

Truck P takes a greater time than truck Q to lift the load.

Which statement is correct?

A. Truck P does more work than truck Q.
B. Truck P produces more power than truck Q.
C. Truck Q does more work than truck P.
D. Truck Q produces more power than truck P.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.4: Power — power as work done (or energy transferred) per unit time.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since both trucks lift identical loads through the same height, they do the same amount of work — so options A and C are wrong.
Power is calculated as \( P = \frac{W}{t} \); since truck Q does the same work in less time, it produces more power than truck P.
Answer: (D)

Question 32

From which type of energy is electrical energy transferred in a hydroelectric power station?

A. chemical potential energy
B. elastic potential (strain) energy
C. gravitational potential energy
D. nuclear energy

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — hydroelectric power converts falling water’s stored energy into electricity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Water stored at a height behind a dam has gravitational potential energy due to its position.
As the water falls, this gravitational potential energy is transferred into kinetic energy, which turns turbines to generate electrical energy.
Answer: (C)

Question 33

A hot metal ball is placed in a small hollow in a piece of wood. Two thermometers are placed equal distances from the ball, one at position P and one at position Q.

Which thermometer gives the higher reading and why?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.2: Convection — convection currents carry heat upwards in fluids.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Wood is a poor conductor, so very little heat travels sideways through it to either thermometer by conduction.
Instead, the air around the hot ball is heated, becomes less dense, and rises by convection, so the thermometer positioned above (Q) records the higher reading.
Answer: (C)

Question 34

An object is placed at a certain distance from a converging lens. This distance is greater than twice the focal length of the lens. The principal focus on each side of the lens is marked F and two rays from the top of the object are shown.

Which statement about the image formed is correct?

A. The image is diminished and inverted.
B. The image is diminished and upright.
C. The image is enlarged and inverted.
D. The image is enlarged and upright.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.3: Thin converging lens — image characteristics for an object beyond 2F.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When an object is placed further than \(2F\) from a converging lens, the rays converge to form a real image between \(F\) and \(2F\) on the other side.
This image is always smaller than the object (diminished) and inverted (upside down) compared with the object.
Answer: (A)

Question 35

Which group shows electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequency (lowest frequency first)?

A. gamma-rays → X-rays → ultraviolet waves
B. microwaves → infrared waves → gamma-rays
C. ultraviolet waves → radio waves → infrared waves
D. X-rays → radio waves → microwaves

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.3: Electromagnetic spectrum — order of frequency of EM waves.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The electromagnetic spectrum, from lowest to highest frequency, runs: radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays.
Checking option B: microwaves come before infrared, and infrared comes before gamma-rays, so this sequence is correctly increasing in frequency.
Answer: (B)

Question 36

Which type of magnet can be switched on and off many times per second?

A. an electromagnet only
B. a permanent magnet only
C. both electromagnets and permanent magnets
D. neither electromagnets or permanent magnets

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism — electromagnets can be switched on/off by controlling current.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An electromagnet’s magnetism depends entirely on an electric current flowing through its coil, so it can be turned on and off simply by switching the current.
A permanent magnet’s magnetism is fixed in the material itself and cannot be switched on or off at all, let alone rapidly.
Answer: (A)

Question 37

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth causing a negative charge on the rod.

Which statements are correct?

  1. The rod gains electrons.
  2. The cloth loses electrons.
  3. The cloth becomes positively charged.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.1: Electrical charge — charging by friction through the transfer of electrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When two insulators are rubbed together, electrons transfer from one to the other; the object gaining electrons becomes negatively charged, and the one losing electrons becomes positively charged.
Since the rod becomes negative, it must have gained electrons (statement 1 correct); those electrons came from the cloth, so the cloth loses electrons (statement 2) and becomes positively charged (statement 3).
Answer: (D)

Question 38

X, Y and Z are combinations of identical resistors.

The combinations are put in order of decreasing resistance (largest resistance to smallest resistance).

What is this order?

A. Y → X → Z
B. Y → Z → X
C. Z → X → Y
D. Z → Y → X

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — combined resistance of series vs parallel resistors.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Resistors connected in series add together to give the largest total resistance, while resistors connected in parallel give a smaller combined resistance than any single resistor.
Comparing the three arrangements shown, the fully-series combination Y has the highest resistance, the fully-parallel combination has the lowest, giving the order Y → X → Z.
Answer: (A)

Question 39

The maximum current in a food mixer during normal use is 3.1 A.

What is the most suitable rating for a fuse used to protect the mixer?

A. 1 A
B. 3 A
C. 5 A
D. 8 A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — choosing an appropriate fuse rating for an appliance.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse must have a rating just above the normal operating current, so it does not blow during ordinary use but still trips quickly if the current becomes dangerously high.
A 1 A fuse would blow immediately since 3.1 A exceeds it, while 8 A is too high to protect the mixer promptly; the closest rating above 3.1 A is 5 A.
Answer: (C)

Question 40

The diagrams represent pairs of nuclei of some atoms.

Which pair shows nuclei of different isotopes of the same element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.1: The nucleus — isotopes have the same proton number but different neutron numbers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes of the same element must have identical proton numbers (same number of protons in each nucleus of the pair) but different neutron numbers.
Checking each pair of diagrams for equal proton counts but differing neutron counts identifies pair B as the correct match.
Answer: (B)
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