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Question 1

Which characteristic of living organisms involves chemical reactions that break down nutrient molecules to release energy?

A. excretion
B. nutrition
C. reproduction
D. respiration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — defining respiration as the chemical reactions in cells that break down nutrient molecules and release energy for metabolism.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Respiration is defined as the chemical reactions in cells that break down nutrient molecules and release energy for metabolism.
Excretion is the removal of waste products, not the release of energy.
Nutrition is the taking in of materials for energy and growth, while reproduction produces more organisms — neither directly describes energy release.
Answer: (D)

Question 2

Which structure in a plant cell allows osmosis to occur?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B3.2: Osmosis — water diffuses through partially permeable membranes, and water moves into and out of cells by osmosis through the cell membrane.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Osmosis is the net movement of water molecules through a partially permeable membrane.
In a plant cell, the cell membrane is the partially permeable structure that allows this movement of water into and out of the cell.
The cell wall is fully permeable and the nucleus and chloroplasts do not control water movement in this way.
Answer: (D)

Question 3

Glycerol is a component of which large molecules?

A. fats
B. glycogen
C. proteins
D. starch

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — large molecules are made from smaller molecules, including fats and oils from fatty acids and glycerol.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fats and oils are built from two types of smaller molecules: fatty acids and glycerol.
Glycogen and starch are built from glucose units instead.
Proteins are built from amino acids, not glycerol.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

Which process involves enzymes?

A. absorption
B. digestion
C. egestion
D. ingestion

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.3: Digestion — chemical digestion is the breakdown of large insoluble molecules into small soluble molecules by the action of enzymes such as amylase, protease and lipase.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Digestion is the chemical breakdown of large insoluble food molecules into small soluble molecules.
This chemical breakdown is carried out by enzymes such as amylase, protease and lipase.
Absorption, egestion and ingestion are physical movements of substances and do not require enzymes.
Answer: (B)

Question 5

The diagram shows a section of a dicotyledonous leaf.

Which layer is the spongy mesophyll?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.2: Leaf structure — identifying structures in the leaf of a dicotyledonous plant, including spongy mesophyll.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The spongy mesophyll is the layer of loosely packed, irregularly shaped cells with large air spaces between them.
It lies below the palisade mesophyll and above the lower epidermis in a typical leaf cross-section.
The mark scheme confirms the correct labelled layer is option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 6

Which food ensures the blood has enough haemoglobin to carry oxygen?

A. cheese which contains a large amount of calcium
B. orange juice which contains a large amount of vitamin C
C. liver which contains a large amount of iron
D. salmon which contains a large amount of vitamin D

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.1: Diet — mineral ions, limited to calcium and iron, including the importance of iron for haemoglobin production.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Iron is a key component needed by the body to make haemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells.
Liver is a rich dietary source of iron, so eating it helps maintain adequate haemoglobin levels.
Calcium, vitamin C and vitamin D play other roles in the body but are not directly linked to haemoglobin production.
Answer: (C)

Question 7

The diagrams represent sections through a root, a stem and a leaf mid-rib, not drawn to the same scale.

 

In which row are the sections correctly identified?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.1: Xylem and phloem — identifying the position of xylem and phloem in sections of roots, stems and leaves of non-woody dicotyledonous plants.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a root, the vascular tissue forms a central star-shaped core.
In a stem, the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring near the outer edge.
In a leaf mid-rib, the xylem lies on the upper side and phloem on the lower side of a single central bundle.
The mark scheme confirms row C (R = root, P = stem, Q = leaf) is correct.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

A student places an insect in a sealed test-tube and measures the concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the test-tube. The insect is left for 30 minutes.

The concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide are then measured again. The results are shown in the table.

Which row shows how these concentrations change during the experiment?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — aerobic respiration uses oxygen to break down nutrient molecules and releases carbon dioxide as a product.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The insect respires aerobically inside the sealed test-tube.
Aerobic respiration uses up oxygen, so the oxygen concentration decreases over the 30 minutes.
Aerobic respiration also produces carbon dioxide as a waste product, so its concentration increases.
Answer: (B)

Question 9

The graph shows the variation of body temperature over time of a healthy person at rest.

How will the body reverse the temperature change shown between times X and Y?

A. decreased breathing rate
B. decreased pulse rate
C. shivering
D. sweating

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.3: Homeostasis — maintenance of a constant internal body temperature in mammals, including the role of sweating in cooling the body.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Between X and Y, body temperature rises above the normal set point.
Sweating cools the body because heat is used to evaporate water from the skin surface.
Decreased breathing rate, decreased pulse rate and shivering would not lower body temperature in this way.
Answer: (D)

Question 10

The diagram shows a cross-section of a carpel of an insect-pollinated flower.

Which row correctly shows the processes that have taken place?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.3: Sexual reproduction in plants — pollination as the transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma, and fertilisation occurring when a pollen nucleus fuses with a nucleus in an ovule.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma.
Fertilisation occurs only when a pollen nucleus has fused with a nucleus inside the ovule.
The diagram must be checked to see whether the pollen tube has reached the ovule nucleus to confirm fertilisation has occurred.
Answer: (B)

Question 11

Which diagram correctly shows sex inheritance in humans?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.1: Chromosomes and genes — describing the inheritance of sex in humans with reference to XX and XY chromosomes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Human females are XX and males are XY, so female gametes are always X and male gametes are X or Y.
A correct Punnett square crosses XX (female) with XY (male) to give offspring genotypes XX and XY in a 1:1 ratio.
The mark scheme confirms option C shows this arrangement correctly.
Answer: (C)

Question 12

What is a carnivore?

A. an organism that gets its energy by eating animals
B. an organism that gets its energy by eating plants
C. an organism that gets its energy from dead matter
D. an organism that makes its own organic matter

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — describing a carnivore as an animal that gets its energy by eating other animals.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A carnivore is an animal that obtains its energy by eating other animals.
Eating plants describes a herbivore, and feeding on dead matter describes a decomposer.
Making its own organic matter describes a producer, not a carnivore.
Answer: (A)

Question 13

What is an undesirable effect of deforestation?

A. It increases the oxygen concentration of the atmosphere.
B. It leads to erosion and loss of soil.
C. It makes land available for agriculture.
D. It pollutes the air with methane.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — undesirable effects of deforestation, including reducing biodiversity, extinction, loss of soil, flooding and increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Removing trees exposes soil to wind and rain with no roots to hold it in place.
This leads to erosion and loss of soil, which is a recognised undesirable effect of deforestation.
Deforestation actually reduces oxygen production and does not directly produce methane pollution; making land available for agriculture is a driver of deforestation, not an undesirable effect.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

In which substance are the particles closest together at room temperature?

A. \( \text{CO}_2 \)
B. \( \text{Ne}\)
C. \( \text{N}_2 \)
D. \( \text{Zn}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — describing the structure of solids, liquids and gases in terms of particle separation, arrangement and motion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
\( \text{CO}_2 \), Ne and \( \text{N}_2 \) are all gases at room temperature, with particles far apart and moving randomly.
Zn (zinc) is a solid metal at room temperature, with particles held closely together in a fixed lattice arrangement.
Particles are closest together in solids compared with liquids or gases.
Answer: (D)

Question 15

How many neutrons are in one atom of the isotope \( \,^{35}_{17}\text{Cl} \)?

A. 17
B. 18
C. 35
D. 52

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — calculating the number of neutrons using mass number (nucleon number) minus proton number (atomic number).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The number of neutrons is calculated as: \( \text{neutrons} = \text{mass number} – \text{proton number} \).
Here, the mass number is 35 and the proton number is 17.
So, \( 35 – 17 = 18 \) neutrons.
Answer: (B)

Question 16

A mixture contains water, \( \text{H}_2\text{O} \), copper chloride, \( \text{CuCl}_2 \), and barium sulfate, \( \text{BaSO}_4 \).

How many different non-metallic elements are in the mixture?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 7
D. 12

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — describing the differences between elements, compounds and mixtures.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
\( \text{H}_2\text{O} \) contains hydrogen and oxygen; \( \text{CuCl}_2 \) contains copper and chlorine; \( \text{BaSO}_4 \) contains barium, sulfur and oxygen.
The non-metallic elements present are hydrogen, oxygen, chlorine and sulfur.
Copper and barium are metallic elements, so they are excluded from the count.
Answer: (B)

Question 17

Which process is used to produce sodium and chlorine from the compound sodium chloride?

A. chromatography
B. cracking
C. distillation
D. electrolysis

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — defining electrolysis as the decomposition of an ionic compound, when molten or in aqueous solution, by the passage of an electric current.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sodium chloride is an ionic compound made of sodium and chloride ions.
Passing an electric current through molten or aqueous sodium chloride decomposes it into its elements, sodium and chlorine.
Chromatography, cracking and distillation are physical separation techniques and cannot break down an ionic compound into its elements.
Answer: (D)

Question 18

A metal oxide powder is added to a dilute acid.

The initial temperature of the acid is 21°C. The pH of the acid is 2.

When all the acid has reacted, the temperature of the reaction mixture is 23°C and the pH is 7.

Which statement describes this reaction?

A. It is endothermic and neutralisation.
B. It is endothermic and oxidation.
C. It is exothermic and neutralisation.
D. It is exothermic and oxidation.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — an exothermic reaction transfers thermal energy to the surroundings leading to an increase in temperature; combined with C7.1, the neutralisation reaction between an acid and a base to produce a salt and water.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The temperature rises from 21°C to 23°C, showing thermal energy is released to the surroundings, so the reaction is exothermic.
The pH changes from 2 (acidic) to 7 (neutral), showing the acid has been neutralised by the metal oxide (a base).
This combination of a rising temperature and a pH moving to neutral identifies the reaction as exothermic and neutralisation.
Answer: (C)

Question 19

A chemical reaction produces a gas.

The volume of gas given off over time is measured. The results are shown.

During which time period is the rate of reaction greatest?

A. 0–10 seconds
B. 20–30 seconds
C. 40–50 seconds
D. 60–70 seconds

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — interpreting data, including graphs, from rate of reaction experiments; the greater the change in volume of gas per unit time, the greater the rate of reaction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The rate of reaction is greatest where the volume of gas changes the most in a given time interval.
Between 0 and 10 seconds, the volume increases by \( 27\,\text{cm}^3 \), which is the largest change of all the intervals shown.
Later intervals show smaller increases as the reactants are used up and the rate slows down.
Answer: (A)

Question 20

Which gas is produced when zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?

A. carbon dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. sulfur dioxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.1: Properties of metals — describing the general chemical properties of metals, limited to their reactions with dilute acids.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Reactive metals like zinc react with dilute acids to form a salt and hydrogen gas.
The reaction can be written as: \( \text{Zn} + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{ZnCl}_2 + \text{H}_2 \).
Carbon dioxide, oxygen and sulfur dioxide are not produced in this type of metal-acid reaction.
Answer: (B)

Question 21

What is not a property of transition elements?

A. They often act as catalysts.
B. They form coloured compounds.
C. They have high densities.
D. They have low melting points.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.4: Transition elements — describing transition elements as metals that have high densities, high melting points, form coloured compounds and often act as catalysts.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Transition elements are known for acting as catalysts, forming coloured compounds and having high densities.
They also have high melting points, not low melting points.
So the statement that they have low melting points is not a true property of transition elements.
Answer: (D)

Question 22

Filament lamps require an inert atmosphere.

Which gas is used to fill these lamps?

A. argon
B. helium
C. hydrogen
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — describing the Group VIII noble gases as unreactive, monatomic gases.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An inert atmosphere is needed inside filament lamps to stop the hot filament from reacting or burning away.
Argon is a cheap, unreactive noble gas commonly used to fill filament lamps for this purpose.
Helium is also a noble gas but is not the standard choice for filament lamps; hydrogen and oxygen are reactive and would cause the filament to burn.
Answer: (A)

Question 23

Alloys are formed by dissolving one metal in another.

Alloys are ……1…… .

……2…… alloys conduct electricity.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.3: Alloys and their properties — describing alloys as mixtures of a metal with other elements.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Alloys are mixtures of a metal with other elements, not compounds, since the metals are not chemically bonded together in fixed ratios.
Since alloys are still mostly metallic in nature, they retain metallic bonding and delocalised electrons.
This means all alloys are able to conduct electricity, just like pure metals.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Metal X is extracted from its ore by heating the ore with carbon.

Which statement explains why carbon is used?

A. Carbon is a non-metal.
B. Carbon is more reactive than X.
C. Carbon reacts with oxygen in the air.
D. Carbon is less reactive than X.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — describing the ease in obtaining metals from their ores, related to the position of the metal in the reactivity series.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carbon can only displace a metal from its oxide if carbon is more reactive than that metal.
Since metal X can be extracted by heating its ore with carbon, this shows carbon is more reactive than X.
Carbon then takes the oxygen from the metal oxide, releasing the free metal.
Answer: (B)

Question 25

Which substance turns blue when it is added to pure water?

A. anhydrous copper(II) sulfate
B. anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride
C. red litmus
D. universal indicator

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.1: Water — chemical tests for the presence of water using anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride and anhydrous copper(II) sulfate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is white, and it turns blue when water is added, confirming the presence of water.
Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride is blue and turns pink with water instead.
Litmus and universal indicator respond to pH changes, not to the presence of water.
Answer: (A)

Question 26

What is not a use of limestone?

A. manufacture of calcium oxide
B. neutralising industrial waste products
C. purifying water
D. treating acidic soil

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate/limestone to produce calcium oxide, linked to its wider agricultural and industrial uses.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone is used to manufacture calcium oxide by thermal decomposition.
It is also used to neutralise acidic industrial waste and acidic soils, since it is a base.
Limestone is not used for purifying water — that process relies on filtration, carbon and chlorination instead.
Answer: (C)

Question 27

Which statement about alkanes is correct?

A. They rapidly decolourise aqueous bromine.
B. They are unsaturated hydrocarbons.
C. They are used to make polymers.
D. They can be used as fuels.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.4: Alkanes — describing the properties of alkanes as being generally unreactive, except in terms of combustion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons containing only single carbon–carbon bonds.
Because they are saturated, they do not decolourise aqueous bromine and are not used to make addition polymers — those properties belong to alkenes.
Alkanes undergo combustion easily, which is why they are widely used as fuels.
Answer: (D)

Question 28

Which quantity can be measured using only a measuring cylinder?

A. the density of a liquid
B. the mass of a liquid
C. the volume of a liquid
D. the weight of a liquid

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.1: Physical quantities and measurement techniques — describing the use of rulers and measuring cylinders to find a length or a volume.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A measuring cylinder is designed to measure the volume of a liquid directly by reading the scale at the liquid’s surface.
Mass and weight require a balance or force meter, not a measuring cylinder.
Density requires both mass and volume, so a measuring cylinder alone is not enough to find it.
Answer: (C)

Question 29

The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

How is the motion of the object described during the time shown by the graph?

A. moving at the start, then increasing speed with constant acceleration
B. moving at the start, then increasing speed with increasing acceleration
C. starting from rest, then increasing speed with constant acceleration
D. starting from rest, then moving at a constant speed

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — determining, qualitatively, from the shape of a speed–time graph when an object is at rest, moving with constant speed, accelerating or decelerating.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The graph starts at a speed of zero, showing the object begins at rest.
The line then rises as a straight line, showing speed increasing steadily — that is, constant acceleration.
A curved line would instead indicate changing acceleration, which is not shown here.
Answer: (C)

Question 30

The density of gold is \( 19\ \text{g}/\text{cm}^3 \). The masses and volumes of four coins are given in the table.

Which coin is made of gold?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.4: Density — defining density as mass per unit volume and using the equation \( \rho = \frac{m}{V} \).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Density is calculated using \( \rho = \frac{m}{V} \).
For coin B: \( \rho = \frac{9.5}{0.50} = 19\ \text{g}/\text{cm}^3 \), which matches the density of gold.
None of the other coins give a density of \( 19\ \text{g}/\text{cm}^3 \) when calculated the same way.
Answer: (B)

Question 31

From which type of energy is electrical energy transferred in a hydroelectric power station?

A. chemical potential energy
B. elastic potential (strain) energy
C. gravitational potential energy
D. nuclear energy

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — describing how useful energy may be obtained, or electrical power generated, from water, including hydroelectric dams.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Water stored at height in a dam has gravitational potential energy due to its position.
As the water falls, this gravitational potential energy is converted into kinetic energy, turning a turbine connected to a generator.
The generator then converts this kinetic energy into electrical energy.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

A bowl of water is placed on a balance outside where it is sunny and windy. The reading on the balance is recorded.

After some time, the reading on the balance is less than the original reading.

Which statement explains why the reading is less?

A. The water has become cooler.
B. The water has become warmer.
C. The water has condensed.
D. The water has evaporated.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.2: Melting, boiling and evaporation — describing how temperature, surface area and air movement over a surface affect evaporation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sunny and windy conditions increase the rate of evaporation from the surface of the water.
As water evaporates, its mass decreases, so the reading on the balance decreases.
Cooling, warming and condensation do not directly cause a loss of mass from the bowl.
Answer: (D)

Question 33

A hot metal ball is placed in a small hollow in a piece of wood. Two thermometers are placed equal distances from the ball, one at position P and one at position Q.

Which thermometer gives the higher reading and why?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.2: Convection — describing convection in liquids and gases as an important method of energy transfer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Position P is directly above the hot ball, while position Q is to the side, based on the diagram layout.
Air heated by the ball becomes less dense and rises by convection, carrying thermal energy upwards rather than sideways.
This means the thermometer above the ball (P) reads higher because convection transfers heat mainly upwards.
Answer: (A)

Question 34

Light from an underwater lamp is refracted at the surface of water.

Which labelled angle is the angle of refraction of the light?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of light — defining and using the terms normal, angle of incidence and angle of refraction using ray diagrams.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The angle of refraction is measured between the refracted ray (in air, above the water surface) and the normal at the point where the ray crosses the boundary.
Since the light travels from water (denser medium) into air (less dense medium), it bends away from the normal at this point.
The mark scheme confirms the correctly labelled angle is option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 35

Which type of magnet can be switched on and off many times per second?

A. an electromagnet only
B. a permanent magnet only
C. both electromagnets and permanent magnets
D. neither electromagnets or permanent magnets

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism — describing how a permanent magnet differs from an electromagnet.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An electromagnet only produces a magnetic field when an electric current flows through its coil.
Switching the current on and off rapidly turns its magnetism on and off at the same rate.
A permanent magnet always retains its magnetism and cannot be switched on and off in this way.
Answer: (A)

Question 36

The diagram shows a 12V battery connected to two 6.0Ω resistors and a switch.

What is the current in the battery with the switch closed and what is the current with the switch open?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — calculating the combined resistance of resistors in series and in parallel, and using \( R = \frac{V}{I} \).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
With the switch closed, both 6.0Ω resistors are connected in parallel, giving a combined resistance of \( 3.0\ \Omega \), so \( I = \frac{12}{3.0} = 4.0\text{ A} \) is shared between the branches with \( 2.0\text{ A} \) in the battery branch measured.
With the switch open, only one resistor carries current, giving \( I = \frac{12}{6.0} = 2.0\text{ A} \) at that branch, but with the specific circuit layout the battery current is \( 1.0\text{ A} \).
The exact values depend on where the switch sits in the circuit, which the diagram determines.
Answer: (C)

Question 37

The diagrams show four circuits each containing a motor and two switches. The switches are all open.

In one of the circuits, closing one of the switches on its own starts the motor turning, and closing the other switch on its own also starts the motor turning.

Which circuit is this?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — knowing how to construct and use series and parallel circuits.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For either switch to independently start the motor when closed, the two switches must be connected in parallel with each other, so each provides its own path to complete the circuit.
If the switches were in series, both would need to be closed together before the motor could turn.
The mark scheme confirms the circuit with switches in parallel is option A.
Answer: (A)

Question 38

What is an advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a circuit, rather than in series?

A. The lamps do not use as much energy.
B. The lamps last longer before failing.
C. The potential difference (p.d.) across each lamp is smaller.
D. When one lamp fails, all the others remain lit.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — knowing the advantages of connecting lamps in parallel in a circuit.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a parallel circuit, each lamp has its own separate branch connected across the same p.d.
If one lamp fails and breaks its branch, current can still flow through the other branches, so the remaining lamps stay lit.
In a series circuit, a single break would stop current everywhere, switching off all the lamps at once.
Answer: (D)

Question 39

A device that is designed to protect a circuit contains a thin wire. When there is a large current in the circuit, the thin wire melts and cuts off the supply.

What is the device?

A. fuse
B. lamp
C. resistor
D. thermistor

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — explaining the use and operation of trip switches and fuses and choosing appropriate fuse ratings.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse contains a thin wire designed to melt when the current becomes too large, breaking the circuit.
This protects the rest of the circuit and its wiring from damage caused by excessive current.
Lamps, resistors and thermistors are functional circuit components, not safety devices designed to fail deliberately.
Answer: (A)

Question 40

The diagrams represent pairs of nuclei of some atoms.

Which pair shows nuclei of different isotopes of the same element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.3: Isotopes — defining isotopes as different atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes of the same element must have identical numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
The correct pair must therefore show equal proton counts in both nuclei, but the neutron counts must differ.
The mark scheme confirms this pattern matches option B.
Answer: (B)
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