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Question 1

What do plants need for their nutrition?

A. carbon dioxide, ions, organic compounds and light
B. carbon dioxide, ions, organic compounds and water
C. carbon dioxide, ions, light and water
D. carbon dioxide, organic compounds, light and water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — Plants make organic compounds from carbon dioxide and water using light energy, and need ions for healthy growth.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Plants photosynthesise using \(CO_2\) and water in the presence of light to build organic compounds.
They also need mineral ions (e.g. nitrate, magnesium) absorbed from the soil for growth and making chemicals such as proteins and chlorophyll.
Light energy itself, not organic compounds, is absorbed from outside — organic compounds are made, not taken in.
Answer: (C)

Question 2

Red onion cells are placed in distilled water.

Which statement is correct?

A. The cells plasmolyse; water moves into the cells from a high to a low water potential.
B. The cells plasmolyse; water moves out of the cells from a low to a high water potential.
C. The cells become turgid; water moves into the cells from a high to a low water potential.
D. The cells become turgid; water moves out of the cells from a low to a high water potential.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B3.2: Osmosis — Osmosis, water potential, and its effect on plant and animal cells.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Distilled water has a higher water potential than the cell contents of the onion cells.
Water moves into the cells by osmosis, from the region of high water potential (distilled water) to the region of low water potential (cell sap).
As water enters, the cells swell and become turgid (they do not plasmolyse, since plasmolysis only occurs when cells lose water in a concentrated solution).
Answer: (C)

Question 3

Glycerol is a component of which large molecules?

A. fats
B. glycogen
C. proteins
D. starch

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — Structure of carbohydrates, proteins and fats (lipids), including the role of glycerol and fatty acids in fats.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fats (lipids) are large molecules built from one molecule of glycerol combined with three fatty acid molecules.
Glycogen and starch are carbohydrates made of glucose units, and proteins are made of amino acids, so glycerol is not a component of these.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

The graph shows the rate of reaction of salivary amylase at different temperatures.

What does the graph show at point X?

A. The enzyme has stopped working.
B. The reaction is nearly completed.
C. The reaction rate is controlled by pH.
D. The temperature is higher than the optimum.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — Effect of temperature on enzyme activity, including denaturation above the optimum temperature.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Enzymes such as salivary amylase have an optimum temperature at which their rate of reaction is highest.
Point X is on the falling part of the curve, after the peak rate has been reached, showing the rate is decreasing as temperature rises further.
This decline happens because the enzyme’s active site starts to lose its shape (denature) once the temperature goes above the optimum.
Answer: (D)

Question 5

Which cell does not require magnesium ions for the synthesis of chlorophyll?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — Importance of magnesium ions for chlorophyll synthesis, distinguishing plant cells (which photosynthesise) from animal cells (which do not).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chlorophyll is only made by plant cells that carry out photosynthesis, and magnesium ions are needed as a component of the chlorophyll molecule.
An animal cell does not photosynthesise and so has no chlorophyll to make, meaning it does not need magnesium ions for this purpose.
Cell A is the one shown to be an animal cell (lacking a cell wall and chloroplasts), so it is the correct choice.
Answer: (A)

Question 6

Dogs are mammals and have the same types of teeth as humans.

Which tooth is a canine?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.2: Digestive system — Structure and function of the four types of teeth (incisor, canine, premolar, molar).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Canine teeth are pointed and cone-shaped, used mainly for gripping and tearing food, unlike the flat-edged incisors or the ridged, flatter premolars and molars.
Of the four shapes shown, the tooth with a single sharp, pointed cusp and no flat biting or grinding surface matches this description.
This distinctive pointed shape identifies option D as the canine.
Answer: (D)

Question 7

Which row correctly describes translocation and transpiration in plants?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topics B8.3 & B8.4: Transport in plants — Translocation of sugars in phloem, and transpiration/transport of water in xylem.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Translocation is the transport of sugars made in the leaf to respiring tissues (and storage organs), and it occurs in the phloem.
Transpiration is the movement of water from the root up to the leaf, and it occurs in the xylem.
Only row C matches both of these correctly (translocation: leaf → respiring tissue via phloem; transpiration: root → leaf via xylem).
Answer: (C)

Question 8

Which diagram gives the possible products of aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — Word equations and products of aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration (in muscles and in yeast).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aerobic respiration in animals and plants produces carbon dioxide and water as its only products, \( \text{glucose} + O_2 \rightarrow CO_2 + H_2O \).
Anaerobic respiration in animal muscle cells produces lactic acid only, while anaerobic respiration in yeast (alcoholic fermentation) produces alcohol and carbon dioxide.
The diagram that shows aerobic respiration giving only CO₂ and H₂O, and anaerobic respiration giving lactic acid, alcohol, and CO₂ correctly (matching the two separate anaerobic pathways), is the correct one.
Answer: (D)

Question 9

When a seed germinates in the soil, the root grows downwards.

Which type of response is the root exhibiting?

A. negative gravitropism
B. negative phototropism
C. positive gravitropism
D. positive phototropism

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.2: Hormones — Gravitropism and phototropism in roots and shoots.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Gravitropism is a plant’s growth response to the direction of gravity.
A root growing downwards is growing in the direction of the gravitational pull, which is described as a positive response.
This is the opposite of a shoot, which grows upwards (negative gravitropism, but positive phototropism, towards light).
Answer: (C)

Question 10

What is a function of the placenta?

A. It acts as a barrier to toxins.
B. It cushions the fetus from bumps.
C. It maintains a constant temperature.
D. It exchanges blood between the fetus and the mother.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.4: Sexual reproduction in humans — Structure and function of the placenta and umbilical cord in the fetus.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The placenta allows the exchange of substances such as oxygen, nutrients, and carbon dioxide between the mother’s blood and the fetus’s blood by diffusion, without the two blood supplies actually mixing.
It also acts as a barrier, blocking many (though not all) harmful substances and pathogens from reaching the fetus.
It does not cushion the fetus (that is the role of amniotic fluid) or maintain temperature, so the barrier function is the correct answer.
Answer: (A)

Question 11

The diagram shows the chromosomes present in a cell.

The cell divides by meiosis.

What correctly describes the cells that are produced?

A. genetically identical, 8 chromosomes, diploid
B. genetically different, 4 chromosomes, haploid
C. genetically identical, 4 chromosomes, diploid
D. genetically different, 8 chromosomes, haploid

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.2: Cell division — Meiosis produces genetically different, haploid cells with half the chromosome number of the parent cell.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Meiosis halves the chromosome number of the parent cell, producing haploid cells (each with one set of chromosomes rather than two).
The original cell shown has 8 chromosomes (4 pairs), so the daughter cells produced by meiosis will have 4 chromosomes each.
Meiosis also involves crossing over and independent assortment, so the four cells produced are all genetically different from one another.
Answer: (B)

Question 12

Which type of organism gets its energy from the remains of dead organisms or other organic waste?

A. a carnivore
B. a decomposer
C. a herbivore
D. a producer

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.1: Energy flow — Roles of producers, consumers (herbivores/carnivores) and decomposers in ecosystems.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, feed on dead organisms and organic waste (like faeces), breaking them down to release energy and recycle nutrients.
Producers make their own food by photosynthesis, while herbivores and carnivores feed on living plants or animals rather than dead remains.
This makes decomposers the only group that obtains energy specifically from dead organic matter.
Answer: (B)

Question 13

What is an undesirable effect of deforestation?

A. It increases the oxygen concentration of the atmosphere.
B. It leads to erosion and loss of soil.
C. It makes land available for agriculture.
D. It pollutes the air with methane.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — Negative effects of deforestation, including soil erosion and loss of biodiversity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Tree roots normally bind soil particles together and help it retain water, protecting it from being washed or blown away.
When trees are removed, the soil is left exposed and unprotected, so heavy rain and wind cause increased erosion and loss of the topsoil.
Deforestation does not increase atmospheric oxygen or release methane directly, and making land available for farming is generally seen as an intended benefit rather than an undesirable effect.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

Which properties are used to distinguish between solids and gases?

  1. compressibility
  2. melting point
  3. flammability

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C1.1: States of matter — Properties of solids, liquids and gases, including compressibility and melting/boiling point, explained using the kinetic particle model.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Solids have fixed particle positions and cannot be compressed, while gas particles are far apart and can be squeezed closer together, so compressibility is a useful distinguishing property.
Solids have a definite melting point at which they turn to liquid, whereas a gas has no melting point (it would need to be cooled to become a liquid, then further to a solid), so melting point also distinguishes them.
Flammability depends on the chemical identity of the substance, not on its physical state, so it cannot be used to distinguish solids from gases.
Answer: (A)

Question 15

An atom of fluorine is represented by \(^{19}_{9}\text{F}\).

How many electrons does this atom contain?

A. 9
B. 10
C. 19
D. 28

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Proton (atomic) number and nucleon (mass) number, and relating these to numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The bottom number in the notation, 9, is the proton (atomic) number, which tells us the number of protons in the nucleus.
In a neutral atom, the number of electrons is always equal to the number of protons.
So this fluorine atom has 9 electrons; the top number, 19, is the nucleon (mass) number and is not used to find the electron count.
Answer: (A)

Question 16

Which statement describes the lattice structure of sodium chloride, \(\text{NaCl}\)?

A. It is a random arrangement of equal numbers of sodium atoms and chlorine atoms.
B. It is a random arrangement of equal numbers of sodium ions and chloride ions.
C. It is a regular arrangement of alternating sodium atoms and chlorine atoms.
D. It is a regular arrangement of alternating sodium ions and chloride ions.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Formation of ions and the giant ionic lattice structure of compounds such as sodium chloride.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sodium chloride is formed by ionic bonding, in which sodium atoms transfer electrons to chlorine atoms, forming \(\text{Na}^+\) and \(\text{Cl}^-\) ions, not neutral atoms.
These oppositely charged ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces in a giant lattice, arranged in a highly regular, repeating pattern rather than randomly.
So the structure consists of a regular, alternating arrangement of sodium ions and chloride ions.
Answer: (D)

Question 17

1 g of hydrogen contains \(6 \times 10^{23}\) atoms.

The relative atomic mass of helium is 4.

How many atoms does 1 g of helium contain?

A. \(1.5 \times 10^{23}\)
B. \(3 \times 10^{23}\)
C. \(6 \times 10^{23}\)
D. \(2.4 \times 10^{24}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — Relative atomic mass and using the mole concept to relate mass to number of particles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Hydrogen has a relative atomic mass of 1, so 1 g of hydrogen (= 1 mole) contains \(6 \times 10^{23}\) atoms, which is the Avogadro constant.
Helium has a relative atomic mass of 4, meaning each helium atom is 4 times heavier than a hydrogen atom.
So 1 g of helium contains 4 times fewer atoms than 1 g of hydrogen: \(\frac{6 \times 10^{23}}{4} = 1.5 \times 10^{23}\).
Answer: (A)

Question 18

Copper(II) sulfate can be electrolysed using either carbon electrodes or copper electrodes.

What happens to the concentration of copper(II) ions in the electrolyte during electrolysis using these electrodes?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — Electroplating and purification of copper using inert (carbon) and active (copper) electrodes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
With inert carbon electrodes, copper(II) ions are discharged and deposited as copper metal at the cathode, but no copper ions re-enter the solution at the anode (oxygen or another gas is produced instead), so the concentration of copper(II) ions decreases.
With active copper electrodes, copper is deposited at the cathode exactly as copper dissolves from the copper anode into the solution, so these two processes balance out.
This means the concentration of copper(II) ions stays the same when copper electrodes are used, giving decreases / no change.
Answer: (B)

Question 19

Which statement about energy changes in chemical reactions is correct?

A. Activation energy is the maximum energy required by the reactants for a reaction to occur.
B. Bond forming is an endothermic process.
C. In an exothermic reaction, the energy level of the reactants is higher than the energy level of the products.
D. Increasing temperature increases the minimum energy required by the reactants for a reaction to occur.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — Energy level diagrams, activation energy, and bond breaking/forming.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In an exothermic reaction, the products end up at a lower energy level than the reactants, because more energy is released forming new bonds than was absorbed breaking old ones, and this excess energy is transferred to the surroundings.
Activation energy is actually the minimum energy needed for a reaction to occur, not the maximum, and it stays fixed regardless of temperature (temperature instead increases the number of particles with at least this energy).
Bond forming always releases energy and is exothermic, not endothermic, so option B is also incorrect.
Answer: (C)

Question 20

The equation for the reaction of iron(III) oxide and aluminium is shown.

\[ 2\text{Al} + \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 \rightarrow \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 + 2\text{Fe} \]

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

  1. Iron(III) ions are reduced.
  2. O atoms gain electrons.
  3. \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\) is a reducing agent.
  4. Al atoms lose electrons.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — Oxidation and reduction in terms of electron transfer, and identifying oxidising and reducing agents.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aluminium atoms lose electrons (are oxidised) to form \(\text{Al}^{3+}\) ions, so statement 4 is correct.
Iron(III) ions, \(\text{Fe}^{3+}\), gain electrons to become neutral iron atoms, meaning they are reduced, so statement 1 is correct.
Oxide ions, \(\text{O}^{2-}\), lose electrons to become oxygen atoms bound in \(\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3\) rather than gaining electrons, and since \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\) is itself reduced, it acts as the oxidising agent, not the reducing agent — so statements 2 and 3 are both incorrect.
Answer: (B)

Question 21

Which statement about the halogens is not correct?

A. Iodine has a darker colour than chlorine.
B. They all exist as diatomic molecules.
C. They are all gases at room temperature.
D. They are all non-metals.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.3: Group VII properties — Trends in physical properties (colour, state, diatomic molecules) of Group VII elements (the halogens).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Going down Group VII, the halogens change physical state at room temperature: chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid, and iodine is a solid, so they are not all gases.
All halogens do exist as diatomic molecules (e.g. \(\text{Cl}_2\), \( \text{I}_2\) and are classed as non-metals, and their colour does get darker going down the group (chlorine pale green, iodine dark grey/purple), so statements A, B and D are all true.
Since the question asks which statement is not correct, the false statement about them all being gases is the answer.
Answer: (C)

Question 22

Filament lamps require an inert atmosphere.

Which gas is used to fill these lamps?

A. argon
B. helium
C. hydrogen
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — Uses and properties of the noble gases (Group 0/VIII), including their unreactivity (inertness).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Filament lamps need an unreactive (inert) gas so that the hot metal filament does not react with it and burn out or oxidise.
Argon is a noble gas and is chemically inert, making it ideal for this purpose, and it is also cheap and readily available from the air.
Hydrogen and oxygen are reactive gases (hydrogen is flammable, oxygen supports combustion), so they would be unsuitable, while helium, although inert, is not the gas conventionally used in filament lamps.
Answer: (A)

Question 23

Alloys are formed by dissolving one metal in another.

Alloys are ……1…… .
……2…… alloys conduct electricity.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.3: Alloys and their properties — Alloys as mixtures of metals, and their properties including electrical conductivity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Alloys are mixtures, not compounds, since the metals are simply combined together without any fixed chemical formula or new chemical bonds forming between them.
Since all alloys are made of metals (with metallic bonding retained), all alloys still conduct electricity, just like the pure metals they are made from.
So gap 1 should be “mixtures” and gap 2 should be “All”.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Which statement about reactions of metals is correct?

A. When copper is added to aqueous aluminium nitrate, the colourless solution turns blue.
B. When magnesium oxide is heated with iron, solid iron(III) oxide is formed.
C. When potassium oxide is heated with copper, an orange-brown solid is formed.
D. When zinc is added to aqueous copper sulfate, the blue solution turns colourless.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.4: Reactivity series — Reactivity series, displacement reactions of metals from solutions and from metal oxides.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper from aqueous copper sulfate: \(\text{Zn} + \text{CuSO}_4 \rightarrow \text{ZnSO}_4 + \text{Cu}\).
As colourless zinc sulfate replaces the blue copper sulfate solution, the blue colour fades to colourless, and reddish-brown copper metal is deposited.
Copper is less reactive than aluminium so cannot displace it (A is wrong), magnesium is more reactive than iron so magnesium oxide would not be reduced by iron (B is wrong), and copper is less reactive than potassium so cannot displace it from potassium oxide (C is wrong).
Answer: (D)

Question 25

Which row describes conditions for the conversion of sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide in the Contact process?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — The Contact process for manufacturing sulfuric acid, including conditions used to convert \(\text{SO}_2\) to \(\text{SO}_3\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the Contact process, sulfur dioxide is converted to sulfur trioxide, \(2\text{SO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3\), using vanadium(V) oxide, \(\text{V}_2\text{O}_5\), as the catalyst — not iron, which is used in the Haber process instead.
The reaction is carried out at a temperature of around 450 °C, which gives a good balance between reaction rate and the position of the equilibrium.
This matches the temperature of 450 °C with the vanadium(V) oxide catalyst.
Answer: (D)

Question 26

What is not a use of limestone?

A. manufacture of calcium oxide
B. neutralising industrial waste products
C. purifying water
D. treating acidic soil

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.1: Water — Uses of limestone (calcium carbonate), including making calcium oxide, treating acidic soil, and neutralising acidic waste.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone is heated (thermally decomposed) to manufacture calcium oxide, and its basic nature makes it useful for neutralising acidic industrial waste and treating acidic soil in farming.
Purifying water is normally done using processes like filtration, sedimentation, or chlorination, not through the use of limestone.
So purifying water is the option that is not an actual use of limestone.
Answer: (C)

Question 27

The structure of the monomer chloroethene is shown.

What is the structure of the polymer formed from this monomer?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — Addition polymerisation, relating the repeat unit structure to the monomer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chloroethene, \(\text{CH}_2\text{=CHCl}\), undergoes addition polymerisation, in which the C=C double bond opens up and monomer units join together with only single bonds between carbon atoms.
The repeat unit keeps every atom from the monomer (2 carbons, 3 hydrogens, 1 chlorine per unit), joined in a long chain, ( \(-\text{CH}_2\text{-CHCl}_n-\) ).
The correct structure must show a chain of repeating \(-\text{CH}_2\text{-CHCl}-\) units with single bonds only and no atoms lost, which corresponds to option A.
Answer: (A)

Question 28

A motorcycle accelerates uniformly from a velocity of 20 m/s to a velocity of 35 m/s in 5.0 s.

What is its acceleration?

A. 3.0 m/s²
B. 5.5 m/s²
C. 7.0 m/s²
D. 11 m/s²

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — Calculating acceleration from change in velocity and time, using \(a = \frac{\Delta v}{t}\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Acceleration is calculated using \( a = \dfrac{\text{change in velocity}}{\text{time taken}} \).
The change in velocity is \(35 – 20 = 15\) m/s, and the time taken is 5.0 s.
So \( a = \dfrac{15}{5.0} = 3.0 \) m/s².
Answer: (A)

Question 29

Which two pieces of apparatus are used to find the density of a small, irregularly shaped piece of metal?

A. balance and measuring cylinder
B. balance and metre rule
C. beaker and measuring cylinder
D. beaker and metre rule

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.4: Mass, weight and density — Measuring mass and volume (by displacement) to calculate the density of an irregular solid.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Density is calculated as \( \rho = \dfrac{\text{mass}}{\text{volume}} \), so both mass and volume need to be measured.
A balance is used to find the mass of the metal, while a measuring cylinder is used to find its volume by the displacement of water when the metal is submerged.
A metre rule cannot measure the volume of an irregular shape (only regular ones), so it is not suitable here.
Answer: (A)

Question 30

An object of mass 2.0 kg is acted upon by a force of 3.0 N and a force of 7.0 N.

The directions of the forces are shown.

What is the acceleration of the object?

A. 0.20 m/s²
B. 0.50 m/s²
C. 2.0 m/s²
D. 5.0 m/s²

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — Resultant force, and using (F = ma) to calculate acceleration.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The diagram shows the 7.0 N and 3.0 N forces acting in opposite directions on the object, so the resultant force is found by subtracting them: \(7.0 – 3.0 = 4.0\) N.
Using \( F = ma \), the acceleration is found by rearranging to \( a = \dfrac{F}{m} \).
So \( a = \dfrac{4.0}{2.0} = 2.0 \) m/s².
Answer: (C)

Question 31

Which electrical device transfers chemical energy into electrical energy?

A. battery
B. lamp
C. electric motor
D. television

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.1: Energy — Identifying energy transfers in everyday electrical devices.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A battery stores energy in the form of chemical potential energy within its internal chemicals.
When connected in a circuit, a chemical reaction inside the battery releases this energy and drives electrons around the circuit, transferring chemical energy into electrical energy.
A lamp, electric motor, and television all take electrical energy in and convert it to other forms (light/heat, kinetic, and light/sound respectively), rather than producing electrical energy.
Answer: (A)

Question 32

From which type of energy is electrical energy transferred in a hydroelectric power station?

A. chemical potential energy
B. elastic potential (strain) energy
C. gravitational potential energy
D. nuclear energy

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — Generating electricity from renewable resources, including hydroelectric power.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a hydroelectric power station, water is held at a height behind a dam, giving it gravitational potential energy.
As the water falls, this gravitational potential energy is converted into kinetic energy, which turns turbines connected to generators.
The generators then transfer this kinetic energy into electrical energy, so the original energy source is gravitational potential energy.
Answer: (C)

Question 33

Equal volumes of a gas, a liquid and a solid are heated through the same temperature difference at constant pressure.

Which statement about their expansions is correct?

A. The gas expands the most.
B. The liquid expands the most.
C. The solid expands the most.
D. The gas, the liquid and the solid all expand by the same amount.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.1: Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases — explained by particle spacing and movement.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a solid, particles are held tightly in fixed positions by strong forces, so heating only causes small increases in vibration and expansion.
In a liquid, particles are more loosely arranged and can move past each other, allowing for greater expansion than a solid for the same temperature rise.
Gas particles are far apart and move freely with weak forces between them, so they expand by far the greatest amount when heated, since their spacing increases much more easily.
Answer: (A)

Question 34

The critical angle for diamond in air is 25°. Light travels faster in air than in diamond.

Which diagram shows the path of light passing from diamond into air?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of light — critical angle, and total internal reflection at a boundary between a dense and a less dense medium.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since light travels faster in air than in diamond, diamond is the optically denser medium, so light passing from diamond into air bends away from the normal, making the angle in air larger than the angle in diamond.
The angle of incidence in the diamond must also be smaller than the critical angle (25°) for the light to refract into the air rather than undergo total internal reflection.
The diagram showing a small angle inside the diamond (below 25°) refracting to a larger angle in the air, bending away from the normal, is the correct one.
Answer: (D)

Question 35

Which type of magnet can be switched on and off many times per second?

A. an electromagnet only
B. a permanent magnet only
C. both electromagnets and permanent magnets
D. neither electromagnets or permanent magnets

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism — Properties of permanent magnets compared to electromagnets, including the ability to switch a magnetic field on and off.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An electromagnet’s magnetic field is created by an electric current flowing through a coil of wire, so its magnetism can be turned on or off very rapidly simply by switching the current on or off.
A permanent magnet keeps its magnetism at all times and cannot be switched off, so it cannot be used in this way.
This makes an electromagnet the only type of magnet suitable for switching on and off many times per second.
Answer: (A)

Question 36

A resistance wire of cross-sectional area (A) and length (l) has resistance (R).

Wires X, Y and Z are made of the same material as the first wire but have different dimensions as shown.

Which of the wires X, Y and Z has resistance (R)?

A. wire X
B. wire Y
C. wire Z
D. none of them

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — Factors affecting resistance, including the relationship \(R \propto \dfrac{l}{A}\) for a wire of given material.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For a wire made of the same material, resistance is proportional to length and inversely proportional to cross-sectional area, \( R \propto \dfrac{l}{A} \).
To have the same resistance (R) as the original wire, a new wire must have the same ratio of length to area — for example, doubling both the length and the area leaves the ratio (and hence the resistance) unchanged.
Based on the dimensions shown in the diagram, wire Y has a length-to-area ratio equal to the original wire, giving it the same resistance (R).
Answer: (B)

Question 37

A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 10V is connected to two lamps X and Y.

The current in lamp Y is 2.0A.

The power of lamp Y is half the power of lamp X.

How much energy is transferred by the battery in 1.0 minute?

A. 30 J
B. 1800 J
C. 2400 J
D. 3600 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power — using \( P = IV \) and \( E = Pt \), in parallel circuits.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since the lamps are in parallel, the voltage across each lamp equals the battery e.m.f., 10V, so the power of lamp Y is \( P_Y = IV = 2.0 \times 10 = 20 \) W.
Since the power of Y is half the power of X, the power of lamp X is \( P_X = 2 \times 20 = 40 \) W, giving a current in X of \( I_X = \dfrac{40}{10} = 4.0 \) A.
The total current supplied by the battery is \( 2.0 + 4.0 = 6.0 \) A, so total power is \( 10 \times 6.0 = 60 \) W, and energy transferred in 60 s is \( 60 \times 60 = 3600 \) J.
Answer: (D)

Question 38

The current in an electric heater during normal use is 11A.

What is an appropriate rating for a fuse to protect the heater?

A. 3A
B. 10A
C. 13A
D. 36A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — Choosing an appropriate fuse rating, just above the normal operating current of an appliance.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse must have a current rating higher than the normal operating current of the appliance, so that it does not blow during ordinary use.
Since the heater draws 11A, a 3A or 10A fuse would melt (blow) even under normal conditions, disconnecting the heater unnecessarily.
A 13A fuse is the smallest standard rating above 11A, so it lets the heater run normally but still melts quickly if a fault causes an excessive current, making it the most appropriate choice (36A would be far too high to offer proper protection).
Answer: (C)

Question 39

A current-carrying wire is placed between the poles of a magnet, as shown. The current direction in the wire is shown.

A force is produced on the wire.

In which labelled direction does the force act?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.4: Force on a current-carrying conductor — The motor effect and its direction (Fleming’s left-hand rule).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When a current-carrying wire is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force due to the motor effect, acting perpendicular to both the current direction and the magnetic field direction.
Using Fleming’s left-hand rule — First finger for Field (N to S), seCond finger for Current, thuMb for the resulting Motion (force) — the direction of the force can be worked out from the diagram’s field and current directions.
Applying this rule to the directions shown in the diagram gives a force acting in the direction labelled B.
Answer: (B)

Question 40

The diagrams represent pairs of nuclei of some atoms.

Which pair shows nuclei of different isotopes of the same element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.3: Isotopes — Atoms of the same element (same proton number) with different numbers of neutrons (different nucleon number).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes are atoms of the same element, meaning they must have the same number of protons, but they have different numbers of neutrons.
This means the correct pair of nuclei must show an equal number of protons in both nuclei, while the number of neutrons differs between them.
Checking each option against the key for protons and neutrons, the pair with matching proton counts but differing neutron counts is option B.
Answer: (B)
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