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Question 1

What do plants need for their nutrition?

A. carbon dioxide, ions, organic compounds and light
B. carbon dioxide, ions, organic compounds and water
C. carbon dioxide, ions, light and water
D. carbon dioxide, organic compounds, light and water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — Plants make organic compounds from carbon dioxide and water using light energy, and need ions for healthy growth.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Plants photosynthesise using \(CO_2\) and water in the presence of light to build organic compounds.
They also need mineral ions (e.g. nitrate, magnesium) absorbed from the soil for growth and making chemicals such as proteins and chlorophyll.
Light energy itself, not organic compounds, is absorbed from outside — organic compounds are made, not taken in.
Answer: (C)

Question 2

What is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

A. cell membrane
B. cell wall
C. nucleus
D. cytoplasm

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — Compare structures unique to plant cells versus animal cells.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cell membrane, nucleus, and cytoplasm are present in both plant and animal cells.
The cell wall, made of cellulose, is a rigid structure found only in plant cells.
It supports the cell and prevents it from bursting due to osmotic water uptake.
Answer: (B)

Question 3

Glycerol is a component of which large molecules?

A. fats
B. glycogen
C. proteins
D. starch

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — Identify the sub-units that make up fats, carbohydrates, and proteins.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fats (lipids) are formed from one molecule of glycerol combined with three fatty acid molecules.
Glycogen and starch are polysaccharides built from glucose sub-units, not glycerol.
Proteins are built from amino acid sub-units joined by peptide bonds.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

The graph shows the rate of reaction of salivary amylase at different temperatures.

What does the graph show at point X?

A. The enzyme has stopped working.
B. The reaction is nearly completed.
C. The reaction rate is controlled by pH.
D. The temperature is higher than the optimum.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — Interpret how temperature affects enzyme activity and denaturation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The rate of reaction rises with temperature up to an optimum, then falls sharply.
At point X, past the peak, the falling rate shows the enzyme’s active site is being disrupted.
This happens because the temperature has gone above the optimum, starting to denature the enzyme.
Answer: (D)

Question 5

The volume of oxygen produced by a submerged aquatic plant is investigated at different light intensities as shown.

Which graph shows how the volume of oxygen produced varies with light intensity?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — Recognise how light intensity limits the rate of photosynthesis and oxygen output.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As light intensity increases from zero, the rate of photosynthesis (and so oxygen produced) increases.
Eventually another factor, such as \(CO_2\) concentration or temperature, becomes limiting.
Beyond this point the graph levels off into a plateau rather than continuing to rise indefinitely.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

Which features of villi help to maximise the absorption of digested food?

  1. a good blood supply
  2. a large surface area
  3. the presence of enzymes
  4. the presence of lacteals

A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.2: Digestive system — Relate villus structure (surface area, blood supply, lacteals) to absorption efficiency.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A large surface area (finger-like villi) maximises contact between food and the absorbing surface.
A good blood supply carries away absorbed glucose and amino acids, keeping the diffusion gradient steep.
Lacteals absorb fatty acids and glycerol into the lymphatic system.
Enzymes act in the small intestine’s lumen for digestion, not for absorption itself, so option 3 doesn’t fit.
Answer: (A)

Question 7

Which statement explains the effect of a higher temperature on the rate of transpiration?

A. More water evaporates from the stomata, creating a water potential gradient that draws a column of water molecules up the xylem.
B. Less water evaporates from the stomata, creating a water potential gradient that draws a column of water molecules up the xylem.
C. More water evaporates from the stomata, creating a water potential gradient that draws a column of water molecules up the phloem.
D. Less water evaporates from the stomata, creating a water potential gradient that draws a column of water molecules up the phloem.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.3: Transpiration — Explain how temperature affects evaporation rate and the water potential gradient driving xylem flow.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Higher temperature increases the kinetic energy of water molecules, so more evaporates from the stomata.
This lowers the water potential inside the leaf, creating a steeper water potential gradient.
Water is drawn up through the xylem (not phloem, which transports sugars) to replace the lost water.
Answer: (A)

Question 8

Which diagram of a cell shows the correct movement of substances for the process of aerobic respiration?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — Identify the substrates and products entering/leaving a cell during aerobic respiration.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aerobic respiration is summarised as \(glucose + oxygen \rightarrow carbon\ dioxide + water + energy\).
Glucose and oxygen must move into the cell, while carbon dioxide and water move out of the cell.
The correct diagram shows glucose and oxygen as inputs, with carbon dioxide and water as outputs.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

When a person moves from a brightly lit room into a dark room, the pupils in their eyes change in size.

Which row correctly describes the change in size and explains what causes this change?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Coordination and response — Explain pupil reflex control by radial and circular iris muscles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In dim light, the pupil must increase in size to let more light reach the retina.
The radial muscles of the iris contract, pulling the iris outward and widening the pupil.
At the same time the circular muscles relax, offering less resistance to this widening.
Answer: (C)

Question 10

What is most likely to describe a flower that is wind-pollinated?

A. Anthers are small and inside the flower.
B. Anthers are large and outside the flower.
C. Stigmas are large and inside the flower.
D. Stigmas are small and outside the flower.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.3: Sexual reproduction in plants — Compare wind-pollinated and insect-pollinated flower adaptations.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Wind-pollinated flowers release huge quantities of light pollen into moving air currents.
Large anthers hanging outside the flower let pollen be caught and carried easily by the wind.
Their stigmas are typically large and feathery, but exposed outside the flower to trap airborne pollen — not small or inside.
Answer: (B)

Question 11

If 2n is the diploid number of chromosomes in a nucleus, which diagram is correct for meiosis?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.2: Cell division — Compare chromosome number and genetic variation in daughter cells from meiosis.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half, so a cell with \(2n\) produces gametes with \(n\) chromosomes.
Crossing over and independent assortment during meiosis mean the four daughter cells are genetically different.
The correct diagram must therefore show \(n\) chromosomes in each of four genetically different cells.
Answer: (D)

Question 12

What is a producer in a food web?

A. an organism that gets its energy by digesting plants
B. an organism that makes its own food using light energy
C. an organism that obtains energy from digested animals
D. an organism that gets its energy from dead or waste organic matter

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — Define the roles of producers, consumers, and decomposers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Producers are organisms, mainly green plants and algae, that make their own organic food.
They do this through photosynthesis, converting light energy into chemical energy stored in glucose.
Consumers, by contrast, obtain energy by eating plants or other animals rather than making their own food.
Answer: (B)

Question 13

What is an undesirable effect of deforestation?

A. It increases the oxygen concentration of the atmosphere.
B. It leads to erosion and loss of soil.
C. It makes land available for agriculture.
D. It pollutes the air with methane.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — Evaluate the negative environmental consequences of deforestation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Removing trees exposes bare soil, so it is no longer bound together by roots.
Without plant cover, wind and rain wash away the topsoil, causing erosion and loss of fertile soil.
Deforestation actually reduces oxygen production and photosynthetic \(CO_2\) uptake, so the other options describe benefits or unrelated effects, not undesirable ones.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

Which change is represented by the diagram?

A. condensation
B. diffusion
C. evaporation
D. solidification

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — Relate particle spreading/mixing to the process of diffusion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The diagram shows particles of one substance spreading out and mixing with particles of another.
This spontaneous mixing, caused by random particle motion, is the process of diffusion.
It is unrelated to a change of physical state, so it isn’t condensation, evaporation, or solidification.
Answer: (B)

Question 15

An atom of an element contains 9 protons, 10 neutrons and 9 electrons.

What is the nucleon number (mass number) of this element?

A. 9
B. 10
C. 19
D. 28

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Calculate nucleon (mass) number from protons and neutrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The nucleon (mass) number is calculated as \(\text{protons} + \text{neutrons}\).
Substituting the given values: \(9 + 10 = 19\).
Electrons have negligible mass, so they aren’t included in this calculation.
Answer: (C)

Question 16

Which statements about the reaction between a metal and a non-metal are correct?

  1. Metal atoms gain electrons.
  2. Metal atoms lose electrons.
  3. The non-metal is the reducing agent.
  4. The non-metal is the oxidising agent.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Apply electron transfer to identify oxidation, reduction, and oxidising/reducing agents.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Metal atoms lose electrons to form positive ions, since metals are electropositive.
The non-metal gains these electrons, so it causes the metal to be oxidised, making it the oxidising agent.
So statements 2 (metal loses electrons) and 4 (non-metal is oxidising agent) are the correct pair.
Answer: (D)

Question 17

1 g of hydrogen contains \(6 \times 10^{23}\) atoms.

The relative atomic mass of helium is 4.

How many atoms does 1 g of helium contain?

A. \(1.5 \times 10^{23}\)
B. \(3 \times 10^{23}\)
C. \(6 \times 10^{23}\)
D. \(2.4 \times 10^{24}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.3: The mole and the Avogadro constant — Relate mass, relative atomic mass, and number of atoms.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Hydrogen has a relative atomic mass of 1, so 1 g contains one mole, \(6 \times 10^{23}\) atoms.
Helium has a relative atomic mass of 4, so 1 g of helium is only \(\frac{1}{4}\) of a mole.
So the number of atoms is \(\frac{6 \times 10^{23}}{4} = 1.5 \times 10^{23}\).
Answer: (A)

Question 18

Which ions gain and lose electrons during the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — Predict discharge of ions at electrodes in concentrated aqueous sodium chloride.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In concentrated aqueous NaCl, \(H^+\) ions are preferentially discharged at the cathode (gaining electrons) over \(Na^+\), since hydrogen is less reactive.
At the anode, \(Cl^-\) ions are preferentially discharged (losing electrons) because the chloride concentration is high.
So \(H^+\) gains electrons and \(Cl^-\) loses electrons.
Answer: (A)

Question 19

Which row describes the type of energy change and the energy transfer when bonds are broken during a chemical reaction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — Relate bond breaking/forming to energy taken in or given out.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Breaking chemical bonds always requires an input of energy to overcome the bond’s attractive forces.
Taking in energy from the surroundings, by definition, is an endothermic process.
So bond breaking is endothermic, with energy being taken in rather than given out.
Answer: (B)

Question 20

The equations for reactions in the blast furnace are shown.

  1. \(C + O_2 \rightarrow CO_2\)
  2. \(CO_2 + C \rightarrow 2CO\)
  3. \(Fe_2O_3 + 3CO \rightarrow 2Fe + 3CO_2\)
  4. \(CaO + SiO_2 \rightarrow CaSiO_3\)

Which statement is correct?

A. In reaction 1, carbon is reduced.
B. In reaction 2, carbon dioxide is oxidised.
C. In reaction 3, carbon monoxide is oxidised.
D. In reaction 4, silicon dioxide is reduced.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — Apply oxidation/reduction (oxygen gain/loss) to blast furnace reactions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In reaction 3, carbon monoxide (\(CO\)) reacts with \(Fe_2O_3\) and gains oxygen to form \(CO_2\).
Gaining oxygen means carbon monoxide is oxidised, while iron oxide is reduced (loses oxygen) to iron.
In reaction 1 carbon gains oxygen, so it’s oxidised (not reduced), ruling out option A.
Answer: (C)

Question 21

Which statements about the elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table are correct?

  1. Only one of them is a liquid at room temperature.
  2. Their colours become darker down the group.
  3. Their melting points and boiling points decrease down the group.
  4. They are all metallic elements called halogens.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.3: Group VII properties — Describe trends in colour, state, and melting/boiling points of the halogens.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Bromine is the only halogen that is liquid at room temperature (chlorine is a gas, iodine a solid).
Colours of the halogens get darker going down the group, from pale green chlorine to dark grey/purple iodine.
Melting and boiling points actually increase down Group VII, and the halogens are non-metals, not metals, so statements 3 and 4 are wrong.
Answer: (A)

Question 22

Filament lamps require an inert atmosphere.

Which gas is used to fill these lamps?

A. argon
B. helium
C. hydrogen
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — Recognise argon’s use in filament lamps due to its inertness.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Filament lamps need an unreactive gas so the hot filament doesn’t burn or react with the atmosphere inside.
Argon, a noble gas, is chemically inert and cheap, making it the standard choice for this purpose.
Oxygen would allow combustion, while hydrogen is flammable, so neither is suitable.
Answer: (A)

Question 23

Alloys are formed by dissolving one metal in another.

Alloys are ……1…… .
……2…… alloys conduct electricity.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.3: Alloys and their properties — Classify alloys as mixtures and explain their electrical conductivity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An alloy is a mixture of a metal with one or more other elements, not a fixed chemical compound.
Since all alloys are still made of metals, delocalised electrons remain free to move throughout the structure.
This means all alloys, not just some, are able to conduct electricity.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Part of the reactivity series is shown.

Which statement is correct?

A. Calcium can be extracted by heating its oxide with hydrogen.
B. Copper forms an oxide that can be reduced by heating with gold.
C. Gold forms an oxide that cannot be reduced by heating with carbon.
D. Lead can be extracted by passing hydrogen over its heated oxide.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.4: Reactivity series — Predict which metal oxides can be reduced by carbon or hydrogen.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Lead is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so its oxide can be reduced by hydrogen gas.
Calcium is above carbon and hydrogen, so it cannot be extracted by heating with either.
Gold is unreactive and its oxide (if formed) would actually be easily reduced by carbon, and copper cannot reduce its own oxide using an even less reactive metal like gold.
Answer: (D)

Question 25

Sulfur dioxide is oxidised to sulfur trioxide in the Contact process.

The equation for this reaction is shown.

\(2SO_2 + O_2 \rightleftharpoons 2SO_3\)

Which row describes the conditions for this reaction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — Recall the catalyst, temperature, and pressure conditions of the Contact process.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The Contact process uses vanadium(V) oxide (\(V_2O_5\)) as the catalyst for this reaction.
The standard operating conditions are a temperature of about \(450\,°C\) and a pressure of about 2 atm.
These moderate conditions balance a reasonable rate with a good equilibrium yield of \(SO_3\).
Answer: (D)

Question 26

What is not a use of limestone?

A. manufacture of calcium oxide
B. neutralising industrial waste products
C. purifying water
D. treating acidic soil

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.1: Water — Distinguish genuine uses of limestone from unrelated water-treatment processes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone is heated to manufacture calcium oxide, and calcium compounds neutralise acidic industrial waste and acidic soil.
Purifying water for drinking mainly relies on filtration, sedimentation, and chlorination, not limestone.
So of the four options, purifying water is not a genuine use of limestone.
Answer: (C)

Question 27

Which diagram represents the structure of nylon?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — Recognise the repeating amide linkage structure of nylon, a condensation polymer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Nylon is a condensation polymer made by joining monomers through amide linkages, \(-CO-NH-\).
Its structure repeats this linkage with carbon chains between successive amide groups.
The correct diagram shows this repeating pattern of \(C(=O)\) and \(NH\) groups linked in a chain.
Answer: (B)

Question 28

A rock has a mass of 360 g.

A large measuring cylinder contains 500 cm3 of water.

The rock is now lowered into the water and completely submerged. The water level in the measuring cylinder rises to 650 cm3.

Which calculation gives the density of the rock?

A. \(\frac{360}{150}\) g/cm3
B. \(360 \times 150\) g/cm3
C. \(\frac{360}{650}\) g/cm3
D. \(360 \times 650\) g/cm3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.4: Density — Calculate density using mass and volume found by water displacement.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The volume of the rock equals the volume of water it displaces: \(650 – 500 = 150\ cm^3\).
Density is calculated as \(\text{density} = \frac{\text{mass}}{\text{volume}}\).
Substituting gives \(\frac{360}{150}\) g/cm³.
Answer: (A)

Question 29

The diagram shows a beam XY of length 100 cm. The weight of the beam can be ignored. There is a pivot at 40 cm from end X and a load of weight 70 N is suspended at end X.

The beam is balanced by a force acting at 10 cm from end Y.

What is the magnitude of this force?

A. 47N
B. 56N
C. 70N
D. 280N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.2: Turning effect of forces — Apply the principle of moments to a balanced beam.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The load’s distance from the pivot is \(40\ cm\), and the force’s distance from the pivot is \(100 – 40 – 10 = 50\ cm\).
At equilibrium, the principle of moments gives \(70 \times 40 = F \times 50\).
Solving: \(F = \frac{2800}{50} = 56\ N\).
Answer: (B)

Question 30

A force acting on an object increases the kinetic energy of the object from 20 J to 50 J in 5.0 s.

What is the average power produced by the force?

A. 4.0W
B. 6.0W
C. 10W
D. 14W

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.4: Power — Calculate power from energy transferred over a time interval.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The energy transferred to the object is \(50 – 20 = 30\ J\).
Power is calculated using \(\text{power} = \frac{\text{energy transferred}}{\text{time}}\).
Substituting: \(\frac{30}{5.0} = 6.0\ W\).
Answer: (B)

Question 31

From which type of energy is electrical energy transferred in a hydroelectric power station?

A. chemical potential energy
B. elastic potential (strain) energy
C. gravitational potential energy
D. nuclear energy

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — Trace the energy transfer chain in hydroelectric generation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Water stored at height in a reservoir possesses gravitational potential energy.
As the water falls, this potential energy converts to kinetic energy, which turns a turbine.
The turbine drives a generator that converts this energy into electrical energy.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

The liquid in a liquid-in-glass thermometer is replaced with a different liquid that expands more for the same increase in temperature.

The scale on the thermometer is changed because of the new liquid.

What happens to the sensitivity and what happens to the range of the thermometer?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.2: Melting, boiling and evaporation — Relate liquid expansion to thermometer sensitivity and range.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A liquid that expands more per degree gives a bigger movement along the tube for the same temperature change.
This means the thermometer’s sensitivity increases, since smaller temperature changes now produce visible movement.
However, for a fixed-length tube, a bigger expansion per degree means the same tube length now covers a smaller temperature span, so the range decreases.
Answer: (C)

Question 33

One cause of air movement in the atmosphere is convection.

Which statement describes air that rises in the atmosphere due to convection?

A. It is cooler and less dense than the surrounding air.
B. It is cooler and more dense than the surrounding air.
C. It is warmer and less dense than the surrounding air.
D. It is warmer and more dense than the surrounding air.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.2: Convection — Explain rising air currents in terms of thermal expansion and density.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When air is heated, its particles gain energy and move further apart, so the air expands.
This expansion reduces the air’s density compared with the surrounding cooler air.
Being warmer and less dense, this air experiences an upward buoyant force and rises.
Answer: (C)

Question 34

The critical angle for diamond in air is 25°. Light travels faster in air than in diamond.

Which diagram shows the path of light passing from diamond into air?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of light — Apply the critical angle concept to refraction from a denser to a less dense medium.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Light travelling from diamond (denser) into air (less dense) bends away from the normal.
The angle of incidence inside the diamond is 20°, which is less than the critical angle of 25°, so refraction (not total internal reflection) occurs.
Since air is less dense, the refracted angle in air must be larger than the incident angle, so it comes out at 30°, bent away from the normal.
Answer: (D)

Question 35

The speeds of sound in three different states of the same substance are 480 m/s, 1500 m/s and 1800 m/s.

Which row gives the state for each of these speeds?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — Relate the speed of sound to particle spacing in gases, liquids, and solids.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sound travels fastest through solids, since their particles are packed most closely together, allowing vibrations to pass on quickly.
It travels slower in liquids, where particles are more spread out, and slowest in gases, with particles furthest apart.
So the lowest speed (480 m/s) corresponds to a gas, the middle speed (1500 m/s) to a liquid, and the highest (1800 m/s) to a solid.
Answer: (A)

Question 36

Which type of magnet can be switched on and off many times per second?

A. an electromagnet only
B. a permanent magnet only
C. both electromagnets and permanent magnets
D. neither electromagnets or permanent magnets

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.3: Magnetic effect of current — Recognise that an electromagnet’s field depends on current, letting it switch rapidly.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An electromagnet’s magnetic field exists only while current flows through its coil.
Switching the current on and off rapidly instantly creates and removes the magnetic field.
A permanent magnet’s field comes from its fixed internal structure and cannot be switched off this way.
Answer: (A)

Question 37

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth causing a negative charge on the rod.

Which statements are correct?

  1. The rod gains electrons.
  2. The cloth loses electrons.
  3. The cloth becomes positively charged.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.1: Electrical charge — Explain charging by friction in terms of electron transfer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Charging by friction transfers electrons from one surface to the other; nothing is created or destroyed.
Since the rod ends up negatively charged, it must have gained electrons, which came from the cloth.
Having lost electrons, the cloth is left with an excess of positive charge.
Answer: (D)

Question 38

The maximum current in a food mixer during normal use is 3.1 A.

What is the most suitable rating for a fuse used to protect the mixer?

A. 1A
B. 3A
C. 5A
D. 8A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — Select the correct standard fuse rating just above an appliance’s normal operating current.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse rating must be higher than the normal operating current of 3.1 A, or it would blow during ordinary use.
A 3 A fuse would blow immediately since 3.1 A exceeds this rating.
The next standard rating above 3.1 A is 5 A, which allows normal operation but still blows if the current rises dangerously higher.
Answer: (C)

Question 39

A current-carrying wire is placed between the poles of a magnet, as shown. The current direction in the wire is shown. A force is produced on the wire.

In which labelled direction does the force act?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.4: Force on a current-carrying conductor — Apply Fleming’s left-hand rule to find the direction of the motor-effect force.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
This is the motor effect: a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field experiences a force.
Using Fleming’s left-hand rule, with the First finger along the field (S to N) and seCond finger along the current, the thuMb gives the force direction.
Applying this to the given field and current directions gives the force acting in direction B.
Answer: (B)

Question 40

The diagrams represent pairs of nuclei of some atoms.

Which pair shows nuclei of different isotopes of the same element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.1: The nucleus — Identify isotopes as atoms with the same proton number but different neutron numbers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes are atoms of the same element, so they must have identical proton numbers.
They differ only in neutron number, giving them different nucleon (mass) numbers.
The correct pair shows two nuclei with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons.
Answer: (B)
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