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Question 1

What do plants need for their nutrition?

A. carbon dioxide, ions, organic compounds and light
B. carbon dioxide, ions, organic compounds and water
C. carbon dioxide, ions, light and water
D. carbon dioxide, organic compounds, light and water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — raw materials and conditions for plant nutrition, including uptake of ions from soil.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Plants make their own organic compounds by photosynthesis, so these are not required as inputs.
Photosynthesis requires carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)), water (\(\text{H}_2\text{O}\)) and light.
Ions are absorbed separately from the soil for healthy growth.
Answer: (C)

Question 2

The photograph shows red onion cells placed in a concentrated salt solution.

Which statement explains their appearance?

A. Water has moved into the cells against a water potential gradient.
B. Water has moved out of the cells down a water potential gradient.
C. Water has moved out of the cells against a water potential gradient.
D. Water has moved into the cells down a water potential gradient.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B3.2: Osmosis — movement of water down a water potential gradient through a partially permeable membrane.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The concentrated salt solution has a lower (more negative) water potential than the cell contents.
Water always moves down a water potential gradient, from a region of higher water potential to lower water potential.
So water moves out of the cells, causing them to plasmolyse (shrink away from the cell wall).
Answer: (B)

Question 3

Glycerol is a component of which large molecules?

A. fats
B. glycogen
C. proteins
D. starch

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — structure of fats/lipids as glycerol combined with fatty acids.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fats (lipids) are formed from \(1\) molecule of glycerol joined to \(3\) fatty acid molecules.
Glycogen and starch are carbohydrates built from many glucose (\(\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6\)) units, not glycerol.
Proteins are built from amino acids.
Answer: (A)

Question 4

The graph shows the rate of reaction of salivary amylase at different temperatures.

What does the graph show at point X?

A. The enzyme has stopped working.
B. The reaction is nearly completed.
C. The reaction rate is controlled by pH.
D. The temperature is higher than the optimum.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — effect of temperature on enzyme activity, including denaturation above the optimum.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The rate of reaction rises to a peak at around \(40\,^{\circ}\text{C}\), then falls sharply at point X, where the temperature is above \(40\,^{\circ}\text{C}\).
This is beyond the enzyme’s optimum temperature, so the enzyme is starting to denature.
The rate is still greater than \(0\), so the enzyme has not fully stopped working.
Answer: (D)

Question 5

The diagram shows a section of a dicotyledonous leaf.

Which layer is the spongy mesophyll?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.2: Leaf structure — identifying epidermis, palisade mesophyll, spongy mesophyll and lower epidermis in a cross-section.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Layer A is the upper epidermis, and layer B shows tall, tightly packed columnar cells — the palisade mesophyll.
Layer C shows loosely packed, irregularly shaped cells with air spaces between them — this is the spongy mesophyll.
Layer D is the lower epidermis.
Answer: (C)

Question 6

The condition kwashiorkor is characterised by a poor growth rate, swelling of the hands and feet, and a bulging stomach.

Which component of a balanced diet is lacking in someone with kwashiorkor?

A. fibre
B. protein
C. iron
D. vitamin D

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.1: Diet — deficiency diseases linked to lack of protein, e.g. kwashiorkor.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Kwashiorkor is a well-known protein-deficiency disease.
Low protein intake lowers blood protein levels, reducing water reabsorption into the blood and causing swelling (oedema).
Poor growth also results from insufficient protein for building new tissue.
Answer: (B)

Question 7

Which sequence is correct for part of the blood flow pathway in a mammal?

A. heart → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary vein
B. heart → pulmonary vein → lungs → vena cava
C. lungs → pulmonary artery → heart → pulmonary vein
D. lungs → pulmonary vein → heart → pulmonary artery

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B9.1: Circulatory systems — pathway of blood between the heart and lungs.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Deoxygenated blood leaves the heart through the pulmonary artery, travelling to the lungs.
At the lungs, gas exchange oxygenates the blood.
Oxygenated blood then returns to the heart through the pulmonary vein.
Answer: (A)

Question 8

An athlete is running \(1000\,\text{m}\).

Which graph shows the changes in their breathing rate and the concentration of carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)) in their vena cava during the run?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — increased \(\text{CO}_2\) production during exercise raises breathing rate to remove it.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Running increases the rate of respiration, so \(\text{CO}_2\) in the venous blood rises quickly and then levels off.
This rise in \(\text{CO}_2\) is detected by chemoreceptors, causing breathing rate to increase and then plateau at a higher level.
Only graph C shows both breathing rate and \(\text{CO}_2\) concentration rising quickly and then levelling off together.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

The graph shows the variation of body temperature over time of a healthy person at rest.

How will the body reverse the temperature change shown between times X and Y?

A. decreased breathing rate
B. decreased pulse rate
C. shivering
D. sweating

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.3: Homeostasis — control of body temperature, including sweating as a cooling response.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Between X and Y, body temperature rises above the normal set point of about \(37\,^{\circ}\text{C}\).
To lose this excess heat, sweat glands produce more sweat, which cools the skin as it evaporates.
Shivering, and decreased breathing/pulse rate, would not cause cooling.
Answer: (D)

Question 10

What are the advantages of a plant reproducing asexually?

  1. increased variety of genetic material
  2. only small flowers need to be produced
  3. rapid increase in population size

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.1: Asexual reproduction — advantages and disadvantages compared with sexual reproduction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Asexual reproduction produces genetically identical offspring (clones), so statement \(1\) is false.
Asexual reproduction does not require flowers at all, so statement \(2\) is false.
It allows many offspring to be produced quickly without needing a mate, so statement \(3\) is a true advantage.
Answer: (C)

Question 11

The diagram shows a nucleus from a cell of an organism. The structures shown within the nucleus are chromosomes.

Why is the nucleus haploid?

A. because each chromosome contains only one copy of the DNA
B. because there are only four chromosomes
C. because there are two sets of chromosomes
D. because there is a single set of unpaired chromosomes

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.2: Cell division — meiosis produces haploid gametes with a single, unpaired set of chromosomes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Haploid means one full set of chromosomes, with no matching (homologous) pairs.
The diagram shows \(4\) different, unpaired chromosomes — no two are alike.
The number of chromosomes itself does not define “haploid”; the lack of pairing does.
Answer: (D)

Question 12

What is a carnivore?

A. an organism that gets its energy by eating animals
B. an organism that gets its energy by eating plants
C. an organism that gets its energy from dead matter
D. an organism that makes its own organic matter

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — definitions of producer, herbivore, carnivore and decomposer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A carnivore is an animal that obtains its energy by eating other animals.
Eating plants describes a herbivore, and feeding on dead matter describes a decomposer/saprotroph.
Making its own organic matter describes a producer, such as a green plant.
Answer: (A)

Question 13

What is an undesirable effect of deforestation?

A. It increases the oxygen concentration of the atmosphere.
B. It leads to erosion and loss of soil.
C. It makes land available for agriculture.
D. It pollutes the air with methane.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — negative impacts of deforestation, including soil erosion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Removing trees exposes soil to wind and rain, with no roots left to bind it in place.
This leads to erosion, washing away fertile topsoil.
The other options describe either false effects, or short-term “benefits” rather than undesirable effects.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

In which substance are the particles closest together at room temperature?

A. \(\text{CO}_2\)
B. Ne
C. \(\text{N}_2\)
D. Zn

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C1.1: Solids, liquids and gases — particle arrangement and spacing in each state of matter.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
\(\text{CO}_2\), Ne and \(\text{N}_2\) are all gases at room temperature, with widely spaced particles.
Zn (zinc) is a solid metal at room temperature.
Particles in a solid are packed tightly together in a fixed arrangement, closer than in a gas.
Answer: (D)

Question 15

How many neutrons are in one atom of the isotope \(^{35}_{17}\text{Cl}\)?

A. 17
B. 18
C. 35
D. 52

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.3: Isotopes — calculating number of neutrons from mass number and proton (atomic) number.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Number of neutrons \(=\) mass number \(-\) proton number.
\(35 – 17 = 18\).
So this chlorine isotope has \(18\) neutrons.
Answer: (B)

Question 16

Which statement about ions is not correct?

A. Atoms form ions by gaining or losing electrons.
B. Ions are formed by non-metal atoms only when they lose electrons.
C. Ions in a solid ionic compound form a lattice structure.
D. Ions with opposite charges attract each other.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — formation of ions by electron transfer and the ionic lattice structure.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Non-metal atoms typically form ions by gaining electrons (to complete their outer shell), not by losing them.
Statement B has this backwards, so it is incorrect.
Statements A, C and D are all true descriptions of ion formation and behaviour.
Answer: (B)

Question 17

\(1\,\text{g}\) of hydrogen contains \(6 \times 10^{23}\) atoms.

The relative atomic mass of helium is \(4\).

How many atoms does \(1\,\text{g}\) of helium contain?

A. \(1.5 \times 10^{23}\)
B. \(3 \times 10^{23}\)
C. \(6 \times 10^{23}\)
D. \(2.4 \times 10^{24}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.3: The mole and the Avogadro constant — relating mass, relative atomic mass and number of particles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
\(1\,\text{g}\) of hydrogen (\(A_r = 1\)) is exactly \(1\) mole, containing \(6 \times 10^{23}\) atoms.
\(1\,\text{g}\) of helium (\(A_r = 4\)) is only \(\frac{1}{4}\) of a mole.
So the number of atoms \(= 6 \times 10^{23} \div 4 = 1.5 \times 10^{23}\).
Answer: (A)

Question 18

Molten calcium bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

What is the ionic half-equation at the cathode?

A. \(\text{Ca}^+ \rightarrow \text{Ca} + e^-\)
B. \(\text{Ca}^+ + e^- \rightarrow \text{Ca}\)
C. \(\text{Ca}^{2+} \rightarrow \text{Ca} + 2e^-\)
D. \(\text{Ca}^{2+} + 2e^- \rightarrow \text{Ca}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — writing ionic half-equations for reduction at the cathode.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Calcium ions carry a \(2+\) charge, \(\text{Ca}^{2+}\), not \(1+\).
At the cathode, positive ions gain electrons (reduction) to form the metal atom.
So \(\text{Ca}^{2+}\) must gain \(2\) electrons to balance charge: \(\text{Ca}^{2+} + 2e^- \rightarrow \text{Ca}\).
Answer: (D)

Question 19

Which energy level diagram correctly represents an exothermic reaction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — interpreting energy level (reaction profile) diagrams.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In an exothermic reaction, energy is released, so the products end up at a lower energy level than the reactants.
Diagram D shows the reactant line starting high, rising over the activation energy (\(E_a\)) hump, then finishing lower than the start.
The other diagrams show the products ending at the same or higher energy than the reactants.
Answer: (D)

Question 20

Which equation represents a redox reaction?

A. \(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\)
B. \(\text{CuSO}_4 \cdot 5\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{CuSO}_4 + 5\text{H}_2\text{O}\)
C. \(2\text{Na} + \text{Cl}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NaCl}\)
D. \(\text{NaOH} + \text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{NaCl} + \text{H}_2\text{O}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — identifying reactions involving simultaneous oxidation and reduction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In \(2\text{Na} + \text{Cl}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NaCl}\), sodium atoms lose electrons (oxidation) and chlorine atoms gain electrons (reduction).
The other three equations are thermal decomposition, dehydration, and neutralisation — none involve electron transfer.
A reaction involving both oxidation and reduction together is a redox reaction.
Answer: (C)

Question 21

What is not a property of transition elements?

A. They often act as catalysts.
B. They form coloured compounds.
C. They have high densities.
D. They have low melting points.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.4: Transition elements — typical physical and chemical properties.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Transition elements are typical metals with high melting points, not low ones.
They do commonly act as catalysts, form coloured compounds, and have high densities.
So “low melting points” is the statement that is not correct.
Answer: (D)

Question 22

Filament lamps require an inert atmosphere.

Which gas is used to fill these lamps?

A. argon
B. helium
C. hydrogen
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — uses of noble gases, including argon in filament lamps.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The atmosphere inside the lamp must be unreactive (inert) so it does not react with the hot filament.
Argon is an unreactive noble gas and is denser than air, which helps reduce evaporation of the filament.
Hydrogen and oxygen are reactive and would react with the hot wire.
Answer: (A)

Question 23

Alloys are formed by dissolving one metal in another.

Alloys are ……1…… .

……2…… alloys conduct electricity.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.3: Alloys and their properties — alloys as mixtures of metals, and their electrical conductivity.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Alloys are mixtures of metals, not chemical compounds, since there is no fixed ratio or new type of bonding formed.
Because they are still made of metal atoms delocalised electrons remain free to move, so all alloys retain metallic bonding and conduct electricity.
So gap \(1\) \(=\) “mixtures” and gap \(2\) \(=\) “All”.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

P, Q, R and S are four metals.

The oxide of metal R can be reduced by metal S, but not by metal P.

The oxide of metal Q can be reduced both by metal S and by metal P.

Which row shows the order of reactivity of these metals?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.4: Reactivity series — a more reactive metal displaces (reduces the oxide of) a less reactive one.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A more reactive metal reduces the oxide of a less reactive one, so S must be more reactive than both R and P.
Since P cannot reduce R’s oxide but S can, the order so far is: P less reactive than R, less reactive than S.
Since both P and S can reduce Q’s oxide, Q is the least reactive of all \(4\): order is Q, P, R, S from least to most reactive.
Answer: (B)

Question 25

Which statements about the Contact process are correct?

  1. An iron catalyst is used.
  2. Oleum is added to water.
  3. Sulfur dioxide is converted to sulfur trioxide.
  4. Sulfur trioxide is reacted with water.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — industrial reactions
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The Contact process uses a vanadium(V) oxide (\(\text{V}_2\text{O}_5\)) catalyst, not iron, so statement \(1\) is false.
Sulfur trioxide (\(\text{SO}_3\)) is not reacted directly with water, as this is too violent; instead it is dissolved in concentrated sulfuric acid to form oleum, which is then diluted with water, so statement \(4\) is false.
Statement \(3\) (\(\text{SO}_2 \rightarrow \text{SO}_3\)) and statement \(2\) (oleum diluted with water) are both correct.
Answer: (C)

Question 26

What is not a use of limestone?

A. manufacture of calcium oxide
B. neutralising industrial waste products
C. purifying water
D. treating acidic soil

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — thermal decomposition of limestone in metal extraction
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Limestone (calcium carbonate, \(\text{CaCO}_3\)) is heated to make calcium oxide (quicklime), \(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\).
Because it is a base, it is used to neutralise acidic industrial waste and acidic soils.
Water purification uses processes such as filtration, carbon, and chlorination, not limestone.
Answer: (C)

Question 27

Which statement describes addition polymers?

A. They contain long chains made from only one type of monomer.
B. They contain amide links.
C. They contain carbon-carbon double bonds.
D. They contain ester links.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — structure and formation of addition polymers from a single type of monomer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Addition polymers form when many identical monomer molecules (each usually containing a \(\text{C}=\text{C}\) double bond) join together.
The resulting polymer chain is built from only that one repeating monomer unit, with no double bonds remaining in the chain.
Amide and ester links describe condensation polymers, such as nylon and polyester, not addition polymers.
Answer: (A)

Question 28

The gravitational field strength at the Earth’s North Pole is greater than at the Equator.

An object is moved from the Equator to the North Pole.

What effect, if any, does this have on the mass and on the weight of the object?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.3: Mass and weight — mass is constant everywhere, while weight depends on gravitational field strength.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Mass is the amount of matter in the object, and does not change with location.
Weight is calculated using \(W = mg\), and depends on gravitational field strength \(g\).
Since \(g\) is greater at the North Pole, weight increases while mass stays the same.
Answer: (C)

Question 29

A brick has a mass of \(1.5\,\text{kg}\). It rests on the ground and the area of contact with the ground is \(0.030\,\text{m}^2\).

A stack of such bricks is made by placing the bricks on top of each other, as shown.

The pressure on the ground due to the stack must not exceed \(5700\,\text{Pa}\).

What is the maximum number of bricks that can be made into such a stack?

(gravitational field strength \(= 10\,\text{N/kg}\))

A. 11
B. 12
C. 114
D. 256

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.7: Pressure — calculating pressure from force and area, \(P = \frac{F}{A}\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Weight of \(n\) bricks \(= n \times 1.5 \times 10 = 15n\,\text{N}\).
Using \(P = \frac{F}{A}\): \(5700 = \frac{15n}{0.030}\), so \(15n = 171\), giving \(n = 11.4\).
Since the pressure limit must not be exceeded, the number of bricks must be rounded down to the nearest whole number.
Answer: (A)

Question 30

Which equation for kinetic energy (K.E.) is correct?

A. \(\text{K.E.} = \frac{1}{2}(mv)^2\)
B. \(\text{K.E.} = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\)
C. \(\text{K.E.} = mv^2\)
D. \(\text{K.E.} = mgh\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.1: Energy — recalling and using the kinetic energy equation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The standard formula for kinetic energy is \(\text{K.E.} = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\).
\(mgh\) is the formula for gravitational potential energy, not kinetic energy.
The other options incorrectly square the whole \(mv\) term or omit the \(\frac{1}{2}\).
Answer: (B)

Question 31

A car accelerates uniformly from rest along a horizontal road. After \(5.0\,\text{s}\), its kinetic energy is \(400\,\text{kJ}\).

What is the useful power produced by the engine of the car?

A. \(80\,\text{W}\)
B. \(2000\,\text{W}\)
C. \(80\,000\,\text{W}\)
D. \(2\,000\,000\,\text{W}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.4: Power — calculating power as energy transferred per unit time, \(P = \frac{E}{t}\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Power is energy transferred per second: \(P = \frac{E}{t}\).
Converting energy: \(400\,\text{kJ} = 400\,000\,\text{J}\).
\(P = \frac{400\,000}{5.0} = 80\,000\,\text{W}\).
Answer: (C)

Question 32

From which type of energy is electrical energy transferred in a hydroelectric power station?

A. chemical potential energy
B. elastic potential (strain) energy
C. gravitational potential energy
D. nuclear energy

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — energy transfers in a hydroelectric power station.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Water is stored at height behind a dam, giving it gravitational potential energy, \(E_p = mgh\).
As it falls, this converts to kinetic energy, turning turbines connected to generators.
The generators then transfer this to electrical energy.
Answer: (C)

Question 33

A fixed mass of gas is trapped in a container. The temperature of the gas is increased but the volume of the container does not change.

How do the kinetic energy of the molecules and the pressure of the gas change?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.1.3: Pressure changes — kinetic particle model explanation of gas pressure at constant volume.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Heating the gas increases the average kinetic energy of its molecules.
Faster-moving molecules collide with the container walls more often and with greater force.
At constant volume, this means the pressure of the gas increases.
Answer: (D)

Question 34

The critical angle for diamond in air is \(25^{\circ}\). Light travels faster in air than in diamond.

Which diagram shows the path of light passing from diamond into air?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of light — refraction at a boundary and the concept of critical angle.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Light travels faster in air, so on leaving the diamond it must bend away from the normal (angle in air \(>\) angle in diamond).
The angle inside the diamond must be less than the critical angle (\(25^{\circ}\)) for the light to refract out rather than totally internally reflect.
Only the diagram with a \(20^{\circ}\) angle in diamond, bending away from the normal into air, satisfies both conditions.
Answer: (D)

Question 35

Which type of magnet can be switched on and off many times per second?

A. an electromagnet only
B. a permanent magnet only
C. both electromagnets and permanent magnets
D. neither electromagnets or permanent magnets

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.3: Magnetic effect of current — electromagnets produce a magnetic field only while current flows.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An electromagnet’s magnetism depends entirely on current flowing through its coil.
Switching the current on and off rapidly switches the magnetism on and off just as fast.
A permanent magnet’s magnetism cannot be switched off in this way.
Answer: (A)

Question 36

A charge of \(480\,\text{C}\) passes through a wire in \(3.0\) minutes.

What is the average current in the wire?

A. \(2.7\,\text{A}\)
B. \(24\,\text{A}\)
C. \(160\,\text{A}\)
D. \(1440\,\text{A}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.2: Electric current — using \(I = \frac{Q}{t}\), with correct time conversion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Current is charge per unit time: \(I = \frac{Q}{t}\).
Convert time to seconds: \(3.0\) minutes \(= 180\,\text{s}\).
\(I = \frac{480}{180} = 2.7\,\text{A}\).
Answer: (A)

Question 37

What is an advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a circuit, rather than in series?

A. The lamps do not use as much energy.
B. The lamps last longer before failing.
C. The potential difference (p.d.) across each lamp is smaller.
D. When one lamp fails, all the others remain lit.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — comparing the behaviour of components in each arrangement.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a parallel circuit, each lamp is on its own separate branch, with the full supply p.d. across it.
If one lamp fails (breaking its branch), current can still flow through the other branches.
In series, a break anywhere stops current everywhere, so all lamps would go out together.
Answer: (D)

Question 38

A device that is designed to protect a circuit contains a thin wire. When there is a large current in the circuit, the thin wire melts and cuts off the supply.

What is the device?

A. fuse
B. lamp
C. resistor
D. thermistor

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — the fuse as a protective device that melts to break the circuit.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse contains a thin wire designed to melt and break the circuit if the current becomes too large.
This protects the rest of the circuit and its wiring from overheating or fire.
Lamps, resistors and thermistors are not designed to melt as a safety mechanism.
Answer: (A)

Question 39

A current-carrying wire is placed between the poles of a magnet, as shown. The current direction in the wire is shown. A force is produced on the wire.

In which labelled direction does the force act?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.4: Force on a current-carrying conductor — using the motor effect (Fleming’s left-hand rule).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The magnetic field points from the N pole to the S pole, across the gap.
Using Fleming’s left-hand rule with the given current direction and field direction, the force (thrust) points upward, in direction B.
This is the motor effect: a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field experiences a force perpendicular to both the current and the field.
Answer: (B)

Question 40

The diagrams represent pairs of nuclei of some atoms.

Which pair shows nuclei of different isotopes of the same element?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.3: Isotopes — same proton number, different neutron number, same element.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes of the same element must have identical numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
In pair B, both nuclei have the same number of protons (black circles) but a different number of neutrons (white circles).
The other pairs either differ in proton number (different elements) or have identical proton and neutron counts (identical nuclei, not different isotopes).
Answer: (B)
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