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Question 1

(a) The total number of new HIV infections in the world is monitored.
The results are shown in Fig. 1.1.
(i) Calculate the percentage decrease in the number of new HIV infections between 2000 and 2010 as shown in Fig. 1.1.
(ii) Suggest three reasons for the decrease in the number of new HIV infections.
(b) HIV is a virus that targets white blood cells.
(i) State two functions of white blood cells.
(ii) White blood cells are one component of blood.
State two other main components of blood.
(c) State the name of the barrier that protects the fetus from toxins in the mother’s blood.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic B15.5 — Sexually transmitted infections (Part (a))
• Topic B9.4 — Blood (Part (b))
• Topic B15.4 — Sexual reproduction in humans (Part (c))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a)(i) 31%

Reading from Fig. 1.1: infections in 2000 \( = 3.2 \) million, in 2010 \( = 2.2 \) million.
Decrease \( = 3.2 – 2.2 = 1.0 \) million.
Percentage decrease \( = \dfrac{1.0}{3.2} \times 100 = 31\% \).

(a)(ii) Any three from:

Discovery of routes of transmission.
Increased use of barrier contraception / abstinence.
Screening of blood transfusions.
Reduced drug use / use of clean needles.
Monitoring / testing / screening for HIV.
Increased education / awareness.

(b)(i) Phagocytosis; antibody production.

White blood cells defend the body by engulfing pathogens (phagocytosis).
They also produce antibodies that neutralise pathogens or toxins.

(b)(ii) Red blood cells; plasma (also accept platelets).

Blood is made up of red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma.
Red blood cells carry oxygen, and plasma is the liquid that transports cells and dissolved substances.

(c) Placenta

The placenta separates the mother’s and fetus’s blood supplies.
It allows exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste while acting as a barrier to many toxins and pathogens.

Question 2

(a) Fig. 2.1 shows the atoms of some elements.
The letters do not represent the symbols of the elements.
(i) State the evidence from Fig. 2.1 that shows that element C is in Group III of the Periodic Table.
(ii) Identify which of the elements in Fig. 2.1 forms an ion with a charge of –3. Choose from A, B, C, D or E.
(iii) Write the electronic structure of element E.
(iv) Identify which of the elements in Fig. 2.1 has a proton number (atomic number) of 9. Choose from A, B, C, D or E.
(v) State the evidence from Fig. 2.1 that shows that element A is unreactive.
(vi) Elements B and D react together to form an ionic compound.
Draw a dot-and-cross diagram to show the ions formed when elements B and D react together.
Include the charges on the ions.
(vii) Ionic compounds have a lattice structure.
Describe the lattice structure of ionic compounds.
(b) The nucleus of an atom contains protons and neutrons.
Table 2.1 shows the relative charge and relative mass of a proton.
Complete the table to show the relative charge and relative mass of a neutron.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic C2.2 — Atomic structure and the Periodic Table (Parts (a)(i)–(v))
• Topic C2.4 — Ions and ionic bonds (Parts (a)(vi)–(vii))
• Topic C2.2 — Atomic structure and the Periodic Table (Part (b))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a)(i) Element C has 3 electrons in its outer shell.

Group number corresponds to the number of electrons in the outermost shell.
C has 3 outer-shell electrons, so it belongs to Group III.

(a)(ii) E

An ion with charge \(-3\) forms by gaining 3 electrons to complete its outer shell.
Element E has 5 electrons in its outer shell, so it gains 3 more to reach a full outer shell of 8.

(a)(iii) 2.8.5

Element E has 2 electrons in the first shell, 8 in the second shell, and 5 in the third (outer) shell.

(a)(iv) D

A proton number of 9 corresponds to fluorine, which has the electronic structure 2.7.
Element D matches this structure in the diagram.

(a)(v) Element A has a full outer shell.

Atoms with a full (complete) outer shell of electrons are stable and do not readily react.
This is why element A, a noble gas, is unreactive.

(a)(vi)


Element B loses 2 electrons to form a \(2+\) ion.
Element D gains 1 electron (per atom, two D atoms needed) to form a \(1-\) ion, giving the ionic compound BD₂.

(a)(vii) Regular, alternating arrangement of positive and negative ions.

Ionic lattices consist of oppositely charged ions arranged in a repeating, ordered 3D pattern.
Strong electrostatic forces of attraction hold the ions together throughout the lattice.

(b)

A neutron has no electrical charge, so its relative charge is 0.
A neutron has approximately the same mass as a proton, so its relative mass is 1.

Question 3

Fig. 3.1 shows a man transporting some luggage in a small boat.
(a) Fig. 3.2 shows a distance–time graph for part of the journey.
(i) Using data from the graph, describe the journey shown in Fig. 3.2.
(ii) Show that the speed of the boat, 20 seconds after the start of the journey, is \(4.0 \, \text{m/s}\).
(iii) The combined mass of the man, his luggage, and the small boat is 100 kg.
Calculate the total kinetic energy of the man, his luggage, and the small boat when their speed reaches \(4.0 \, \text{m/s}\).
(b) The man lifts the boat off the water and attaches it to a trolley.
The man exerts a downwards force \(F\) which keeps the boat in equilibrium as shown in Fig. 3.3.
The wheels of the trolley act as a pivot.
Use the principle of moments to calculate the size of the force \(F\).

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic P1.2 — Motion (Part (a)(i), (ii))
• Topic P1.6.1 — Energy (Part (a)(iii))
• Topic P1.5.2 — Turning effect of forces (Part (b))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a)(i) Constant speed from 0–50 s, covering 200 m; then stationary from 50–100 s.

The graph is a straight line from 0 to 50 s, showing constant speed as distance increases steadily from 0 to 200 m.
From 50 s to 100 s the line is horizontal at 200 m, showing the boat has stopped moving.

(a)(ii) 4.0 m/s

Speed \( = \dfrac{\text{distance}}{\text{time}} \).
Using the graph, at \(t = 20\,\text{s}\), distance \( = 80\,\text{m}\), so speed \( = \dfrac{80}{20} = 4.0 \, \text{m/s}\).

(a)(iii) 800 J

Kinetic energy \( KE = \dfrac{1}{2}mv^2 \).
\( KE = \dfrac{1}{2} \times 100 \times (4.0)^2 = \dfrac{1}{2} \times 100 \times 16 = 800 \, \text{J} \).

(b) 240 N

By the principle of moments, clockwise moment = anticlockwise moment about the pivot.
\( 600 \, \text{N} \times 40 \, \text{cm} = F \times 100 \, \text{cm} \), so \( F = \dfrac{600 \times 40}{100} = 240 \, \text{N} \).

Question 4

(a) A scientist tests the resistance of one strain of bacteria to four different antibiotics, A, B, C, and D.
Four paper discs, each soaked with a different antibiotic, are placed on an agar plate containing the bacteria.
The shaded areas show where the bacteria grow.
The clear areas show where no bacteria grow. Fig. 4.1 shows the results.
(i) Use Fig. 4.1 to identify the antibiotic that is the most effective against this strain of bacteria.
(ii) Strains of bacteria develop antibiotic resistance due to natural selection.
Complete the sentences to describe how strains with antibiotic resistance develop.
Different strains of bacteria will show ………………….. in their ability to resist antibiotics. When antibiotics are used some of the bacteria will survive and some will ……………………… .
Those that survive will pass on their ……………………… to the next generation.
The next generation will also show ……………………… to antibiotics.
Eventually the whole population will have this feature.
(b) Natural selection results in evolution.
The box on the left contains the term evolution.
The boxes on the right show some sentence endings.
Draw two lines from the box on the left to make two correct sentences.
(c) Antibiotic resistance originates due to mutation.
(i) Define the term mutation.
(ii) State the name of the type of radiation that increases the rate of mutation.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic B17.2 — Selection (Part (a))
• Topic B17.2 — Selection (Part (b))
• Topic B17.1 — Variation (Part (c))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a)(i) B

The most effective antibiotic produces the largest clear zone where no bacteria grow.
Antibiotic B has the largest clear area around its disc, so it inhibits this bacterial strain the most.

(a)(ii) variation; die; alleles; resistance

Bacteria show natural variation in their ability to resist antibiotics.
When antibiotics are applied, non-resistant bacteria die while resistant ones survive.
Surviving bacteria pass their resistance alleles to offspring, so the next generation also shows resistance.

(b) Evolution → increases suitability to the environment; Evolution → is a change of adaptive features.

Evolution describes gradual changes in a population’s adaptive features across many generations.
It does not occur in a single generation, is not restricted to bacteria, and does not change individual organisms during their own lifetime.

(c)(i) A mutation is a change in the gene or chromosome.

Mutations are random changes to the DNA sequence.
Such changes can create new alleles, including ones that confer antibiotic resistance.

(c)(ii) Ionising radiation

Ionising radiation (e.g. X-rays, gamma rays, UV) can damage DNA directly.
This damage increases the rate at which mutations occur.

Question 5

A scientist investigates a food colouring, X, using chromatography.
The scientist also analyses four known food colourings, A, B, C, and D.
Fig. 5.1 shows the chromatogram produced. The result for food colouring D is not shown.
(a) The Rf value of a food colouring is calculated using the formula:
\[ R_f = \frac{\text{distance travelled by substance}}{\text{distance travelled by solvent}} \]
Calculate the Rf value of food colouring B. Show your working.
(b) Food colouring D has an Rf value of 0.56.
Calculate the distance travelled by food colouring D.
(c) State which food colouring, A, B, or C, is not in food colouring X.
(d) The scientist also investigates the purity of four substances, V, W, Y, and Z.
Table 5.1 shows the melting point of each substance.
State which of the substances are pure. Explain your answer.
(e) The scientist dissolves 4.8 g of a substance in 250 cm³ of distilled water.
The relative molecular mass, \(M_r\), of the substance is 192.
Calculate the concentration of the solution in mol/dm³.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic C12.3 — Chromatography (Parts (a), (b), (c))
• Topic C12.4 — Separation and purification (Part (d))
• Topic C3.3 — The mole and the Avogadro constant (Part (e))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a) 0.90

From the chromatogram, distance travelled by B \( = 4.5\,\text{cm}\), distance travelled by solvent \( = 5.0\,\text{cm}\).
\( R_f = \dfrac{4.5}{5.0} = 0.90 \).

(b) 2.8 cm

Rearranging the formula: distance travelled by D \( = R_f \times \) distance travelled by solvent.
Distance \( = 0.56 \times 5.0 = 2.8\,\text{cm} \).

(c) A

Food colouring X shows spots matching B and C at the same heights as their reference spots.
A’s spot does not appear anywhere in X’s chromatogram, so A is not present in X.

(d) V and Y are pure.

Pure substances melt at one specific, fixed temperature rather than over a range.
V (98 °C) and Y (82 °C) each have a single melting point, while W and Z melt over a range, showing they are impure.

(e) 0.10 mol/dm³

Moles \( = \dfrac{\text{mass}}{M_r} = \dfrac{4.8}{192} = 0.025 \, \text{mol} \).
Volume \( = 250\,\text{cm}^3 = 0.25\,\text{dm}^3 \).
Concentration \( = \dfrac{0.025}{0.25} = 0.10 \, \text{mol/dm}^3 \).

Question 6

Fig. 6.1 shows a temporary zebra enclosure in a wildlife conservation park.
The enclosure is surrounded by an electric fence.
(a) The fence is powered by an e.m.f. of 2000 V and carries a current of 80 mA.
(i) Calculate the total resistance of the fence.
(ii) The fence is made of two identical cables connected in parallel. The cables act as resistors.
Fig. 6.2 shows the circuit used in the electric fence.
Use your answer to 6(a)(i) to calculate the resistance of one of the cables.
(iii) A different enclosure uses a fence made of cables that are the same thickness but twice the length of those shown in Fig. 6.1.
State the effect of doubling the cable length on the resistance of the fence.
(b) One of the zebras is startled by a loud sound.
(i) Describe how sound waves are transmitted in air.
(ii) After hearing the sound, the zebra runs across the enclosure in 7.5 s. The average speed of the zebra is 16 m/s. Calculate the distance the zebra runs.
(c) Fig. 6.3 shows one of the zebras in the enclosure.
The zebra has black and white stripes.
A vet uses an infrared camera to measure the temperature of the zebra.
The infrared camera shows that the black stripes are a different temperature to the white parts of the zebra.
Describe and explain the difference in temperature recorded.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic P4.2.4 — Resistance (Part (a)(i), (a)(iii))
• Topic P4.3.2 — Series and parallel circuits (Part (a)(ii))
• Topic P3.4 — Sound (Part (b)(i))
• Topic P1.2 — Motion (Part (b)(ii))
• Topic P2.3.3 — Radiation (Part (c))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a)(i) 25 000 Ω

Current \( = 80\,\text{mA} = 0.08\,\text{A} \).
Using \( R = \dfrac{V}{I} \): \( R = \dfrac{2000}{0.08} = 25000\,\Omega \).

(a)(ii) 50 000 Ω

For two identical resistors in parallel: \( \dfrac{1}{R_{total}} = \dfrac{1}{R} + \dfrac{1}{R} = \dfrac{2}{R} \).
So \( R = 2 \times R_{total} = 2 \times 25000 = 50000\,\Omega \).

(a)(iii) The resistance doubles.

Resistance of a wire is directly proportional to its length.
Doubling the length (with the same thickness/material) doubles the resistance.

(b)(i) Sound is transmitted through compressions and rarefactions.

Vibrating sources cause air molecules to oscillate back and forth.
This creates regions of compression and rarefaction that travel through the air as a longitudinal wave.

(b)(ii) 120 m

Distance \( = \text{speed} \times \text{time} \).
Distance \( = 16 \times 7.5 = 120\,\text{m} \).

(c) Black stripes show a higher temperature than white stripes.

Black surfaces absorb more infrared radiation than white surfaces, which reflect more of it.
Because black absorbs (and also emits) more radiation, the infrared camera records a higher temperature for the black stripes than the white ones.

Question 7

Discarded rubbish pollutes ecosystems such as oceans and rivers.
(a) A student has written a definition of an ecosystem. Their definition is not correct.
Circle the two words in their definition that are not correct.
‘An ecosystem is a unit containing all of the organisms and their offspring, interacting together, in a given time.’
(b) Several countries estimate the average mass of discarded rubbish per person per day. Fig. 7.1 shows the results.
(i) State which one of the countries in Fig. 7.1 discards the most rubbish per person per day.
(ii) State the average mass of discarded rubbish per person per day in country E.
(c) Pollution from excess use of fertilisers may cause eutrophication in rivers and lakes.
Part of the process of eutrophication is an increase in the number of surface producers and the death of underwater producers.
(i) Describe how an increase in the number of surface producers causes underwater producers to die.
(ii) Explain how the death of underwater producers causes the death of aquatic animals.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic B19.1 — Habitat destruction (Parts (a), (b))
• Topic B18.2 — Food chains and food webs (Part (c))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a) The incorrect words are “offspring” and “time”.

An ecosystem includes all organisms (not just their offspring) together with their non-living environment.
It is an ongoing interacting system, not something restricted to “a given time”.

(b)(i) Country C

Reading the bar chart, country C has the tallest bar, at about 2.0 kg per person per day.
This is higher than any other country shown.

(b)(ii) 0.75 kg

Reading directly from the bar chart, the bar for country E reaches approximately 0.75 kg.

(c)(i) Surface producers block light from reaching underwater producers.

A dense layer of surface producers (e.g. algal bloom) covers the water surface.
This prevents light from penetrating to underwater producers, so they cannot photosynthesise and eventually die.

(c)(ii) Decomposition of dead producers uses up oxygen, killing aquatic animals.

Dead underwater producers are broken down by decomposers (bacteria).
These decomposers respire aerobically, using up dissolved oxygen in the water.
The resulting drop in oxygen levels means aquatic animals cannot respire and die.

Question 8

A student investigates acids and bases.
(a)(i) The student tests the pH of dilute sulfuric acid, \(H_2SO_4\), using Universal Indicator.
Suggest the pH of the dilute sulfuric acid.
(a)(ii) The student tests aqueous sodium hydroxide, NaOH, with red litmus paper.
State what the student observes.
(a)(iii) The student reacts dilute sulfuric acid with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Sodium sulfate, \(Na_2SO_4\), and water are made.
Construct the balanced symbol equation for this reaction.
(b) When acids and bases react, protons, \(H^+\), are transferred.
Define an acid in terms of proton transfer.
(c) The student makes up a solution of dilute sulfuric acid, \(H_2SO_4\), with a concentration of 0.2 mol/dm³.
Calculate the concentration of the solution in g/dm³.
[\(A_r\): H, 1; O, 16; S, 32]
(d) Sulfuric acid is made by the Contact process.
The equations for the stages in the Contact process are shown.
(i) Write the balanced symbol equation for the reaction in stage 2.
(ii) A pressure of 2 atmospheres is one of the conditions chosen for stage 2.
State two other conditions chosen for stage 2.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic C7.1 — Acids and bases (Parts (a) and (b))
• Topic C3.3 — Moles / concentration (Part (c))
• Topic C6.2 — Rate of reaction / Contact process (Part (d))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a)(i) Any pH below 7.

Sulfuric acid is a strong acid.
Universal Indicator shows a low pH value (well below 7) for strong acids.

(a)(ii) The red litmus paper turns blue.

Sodium hydroxide is an alkali.
Red litmus paper turns blue in the presence of an alkaline solution.

(a)(iii) \( H_2SO_4 + 2NaOH \rightarrow Na_2SO_4 + 2H_2O \)

This is a neutralisation reaction between an acid and a base.
Balancing requires 2 moles of NaOH to react with 1 mole of \(H_2SO_4\), producing 1 mole of salt and 2 moles of water.

(b) An acid is a proton donor.

In the Brønsted–Lowry theory, acids donate \(H^+\) ions during a reaction.
Bases, by contrast, accept these protons.

(c) 19.6 g/dm³

Molar mass of \(H_2SO_4 = (2\times1) + 32 + (4\times16) = 98\,\text{g/mol}\).
Concentration (g/dm³) = concentration (mol/dm³) × molar mass \( = 0.2 \times 98 = 19.6\,\text{g/dm}^3\).

(d)(i) \( 2SO_2 + O_2 \rightleftharpoons 2SO_3 \)

Sulfur dioxide reacts with oxygen in a reversible reaction to form sulfur trioxide.
The equation is balanced with 2 moles of \(SO_2\) and 1 mole of \(O_2\) producing 2 moles of \(SO_3\).

(d)(ii) Temperature of about 450 °C; vanadium(V) oxide (\(V_2O_5\)) catalyst.

A moderate temperature of 450 °C balances reaction rate against equilibrium yield.
A vanadium(V) oxide catalyst speeds up the reaction without being consumed.

Question 9

Burning coal can be used to generate electricity.
(a) State one advantage and one disadvantage of using coal to generate electricity.
(b) The thermal energy released by the coal is used to turn liquid water into steam.
(i) Compare the:
  • forces between molecules
  • distances between molecules
  • motions of molecules
in a liquid at 100 °C and a gas at 100 °C.
(ii) Complete Table 9.1 to describe what happens to the pressure in a sample of steam under different conditions. Assume the steam remains as a gas under each set of conditions.
Use the words increases, decreases or remains constant.
You can use each word once, more than once or not at all.
(c) A transformer is used to change the potential difference of the output from a coal-fired power station.
The transformer is made up of a primary coil and a secondary coil, wrapped around an iron core.
(i) The potential difference across the primary coil is 20 kV. The primary coil contains 120 turns. The potential difference across the secondary coil is 400 kV.
Calculate the number of turns on the secondary coil.
(ii) The electric power is transported from the power station over large distances at 400 kV.
This is a very high potential difference.
Explain why a very high potential difference is used.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic P1.6.3 — Energy resources (Part (a))
• Topic P2.1.2 — Particle model (Part (b)(i))
• Topic P2.1.3 — Pressure changes (Part (b)(ii))
• Topic P4.5.6 — Transformers and power transmission (Part (c))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a) Advantage: high energy density / abundant / easy to store and transport.
Disadvantage: releases \(CO_2\), contributing to global warming (also releases \(SO_2\), causing acid rain).

Coal is a reliable, energy-dense fuel that is relatively cheap and easy to obtain.
However, burning it releases greenhouse gases and pollutants that damage the environment.

(b)(i) Forces: stronger in liquid than gas.
Distances: molecules closer together in liquid than gas.
Motions: molecules move more freely (faster and more randomly) in gas than liquid.

In a liquid, intermolecular forces are stronger, keeping molecules close together with restricted movement.
In a gas, forces are much weaker, so molecules are far apart and move rapidly and randomly in all directions.

(b)(ii)

temperaturevolumepressure
increasesremains constantincreases
decreasesremains constantdecreases
remains constantincreasesdecreases
remains constantdecreasesincreases

At constant volume, pressure rises with temperature and falls as temperature falls (Gay-Lussac’s Law).
At constant temperature, increasing volume decreases pressure and decreasing volume increases pressure (Boyle’s Law).

(c)(i) 2400 turns

Using \( \dfrac{V_p}{V_s} = \dfrac{N_p}{N_s} \), rearrange to \( N_s = \dfrac{V_s \times N_p}{V_p} \).
\( N_s = \dfrac{400 \times 120}{20} = 2400 \) turns.

(c)(ii) A high potential difference reduces the current, which reduces power loss as heat.

For a given power \(P = IV\), a higher voltage means a lower current is needed.
Since power loss in cables is \(I^2R\), a lower current greatly reduces energy wasted as heat during transmission.

Question 10

(a) Fig. 10.1 is a diagram of a cross-section through a leaf.
(i) Use Fig. 10.1 to identify the letter that represents the part:
that provides structural support for the leaf ……………………
that transports mineral ions ……………………
where most photosynthesis occurs ……………………
that controls gas exchange ……………………
(ii) Draw a circle around the vascular bundle in Fig. 10.1.
(b) Phloem is responsible for translocation.
(i) Circle the two main substances transported by phloem.
amino acids fatty acids glucose glycogen starch sucrose
(ii) Translocation occurs from source to sink.
State which of these regions in a plant acts as a source and which as a sink.
region of growth ……………………
region of production ……………………
region of storage ……………………
(c) Gas exchange occurs in both plants and animals.
(i) State the chemical formula of the gas that is required for photosynthesis.
(ii) State two features of gas exchange surfaces in humans.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic B6.2 — Leaf structure (Part (a))
• Topic B8.4 — Translocation (Part (b))
• Topic B6.1 — Photosynthesis (Part (c)(i))
• Topic B11.1 — Gas exchange in humans (Part (c)(ii))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a)(i) Structural support: B; transports mineral ions: B; most photosynthesis: A; controls gas exchange: D.

The vascular bundle (B) contains xylem, which gives structural support and transports water and mineral ions.
The palisade mesophyll (A) contains the most chloroplasts, so most photosynthesis occurs there.
The guard cells (D) surrounding the stomata control gas exchange by opening and closing the pore.

(a)(ii) Circle drawn around the vascular bundle (structure B) in the diagram.

The vascular bundle is the cluster of xylem and phloem tissue visible in the centre of the leaf cross-section.

(b)(i) amino acids and sucrose.

Phloem transports the soluble organic products of photosynthesis (sucrose) and amino acids made from them.
Glucose, starch, glycogen, and fatty acids are not the substances transported by phloem.

(b)(ii) Region of growth: sink; region of production: source; region of storage: sink.

A source is where sugars are made, e.g. photosynthesising leaves — the region of production.
A sink is where sugars are used or stored, e.g. growing regions and storage organs.

(c)(i) CO₂

Carbon dioxide is the raw material combined with water in photosynthesis to produce glucose and oxygen.

(c)(ii) Any two from: large surface area; thin (surface); good blood supply; good ventilation with air.

A large surface area and thin walls maximise the rate of diffusion of gases.
A good blood supply maintains a steep concentration gradient, and good ventilation keeps oxygen/CO₂ levels favourable.

Question 11

Ethane and ethene are members of two different homologous series.
Fig. 11.1 shows the structure of ethene.
(a) Draw the structure of ethane.
(b) Ethene is a member of the homologous series called the alkenes.
The alkenes are all hydrocarbons.
State two other features that the alkenes in the homologous series have in common.
(c) Ethene undergoes an addition reaction with steam.
Fig. 11.2 shows the equation for the reaction.
Complete the equation, by drawing the structure of the compound formed.
(d) Propene is another alkene.
Fig. 11.3 shows the structure of propene.
The polymer poly(propene) can be made from propene.
Complete the structure of poly(propene) in Fig. 11.4. Include all the atoms and bonds of the repeating unit.
(e) Poly(propene) is made from propene in an addition polymerisation reaction.
Polyesters are a group of polymers made in a condensation polymerisation reaction.
Describe the differences between addition polymerisation and condensation polymerisation.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic C11.4 — Alkanes (Part (a))
• Topic C11.5 — Alkenes (Parts (b) and (c))
• Topic C11.7 — Polymers (Parts (d) and (e))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a)

Ethane is a saturated hydrocarbon with formula \(C_2H_6\).
Both carbon atoms are joined by a single covalent bond, each carbon also bonding to three hydrogen atoms.

(b) Contain at least one C=C double bond; have the general formula \(C_nH_{2n}\).

Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons due to the presence of a carbon–carbon double bond.
This double bond means they have fewer hydrogens per carbon than the corresponding alkane.

(c)

Ethene’s C=C double bond opens up during addition with steam.
A hydrogen atom bonds to one carbon and an –OH group bonds to the other, forming ethanol.

(d)

The C=C double bond in propene breaks and opens up to form single bonds linking monomers together.
Each repeat unit retains a methyl (\(CH_3\)) side branch from the original propene monomer.

(e) Addition polymerisation uses one type of unsaturated monomer and produces only a polymer (no by-product); condensation polymerisation uses two different monomers and produces a polymer plus a small molecule (e.g. water).

In addition polymerisation, alkene monomers join via their double bonds with no atoms lost.
In condensation polymerisation, monomers with two functional groups react and lose a small molecule such as water at each link.

Question 12

(a) Fig. 12.1 shows the equipment used by a teacher to demonstrate the properties of ionising radiation.
The teacher uses a source which emits α-particles and a thick lead shield placed between the radioactive source and the radiation detector.
(i) Explain why the count rate recorded by the laptop is low but not zero.
(ii) The teacher replaces the source emitting α-particles with a source that emits γ-rays. The count rate recorded by the laptop increases.
Suggest why the count rate recorded by the laptop increases.
(b) Before performing the investigation, the teacher uses a plane mirror to inspect the condition of the radioactive source.
(i) Complete Fig. 12.2, with a ray diagram, to show how the mirror allows the teacher to see the radioactive source.
(ii) Visible light is an example of a transverse wave.
State what is meant by a transverse wave.
(iii) A visible light wave travels at \(3.0 \times 10^8 \, \text{m/s}\) and has a frequency of \(5.0 \times 10^{14} \, \text{Hz}\).
Calculate the wavelength of the visible light wave.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

• Topic P5.2.2 — The three types of nuclear emission / penetrating power (Part (a))
• Topic P3.2.1 — Reflection of light (Part (b)(i))
• Topic P3.1 — Properties of waves (Part (b)(ii), (iii))

▶️ Answer/Explanation

(a)(i) α-particles cannot penetrate the thick lead shield; the low count is background radiation.

Alpha particles have very low penetrating power and are stopped by the thick lead shield.
The small remaining count comes from background radiation, such as cosmic rays and naturally occurring radioactive materials.

(a)(ii) Gamma rays are far more penetrating than alpha particles.

Unlike alpha particles, gamma rays can pass through thick lead relatively easily.
This allows more radiation to reach the detector, increasing the count rate.

(b)(i)

Light from the radioactive source travels to the mirror and reflects according to the law of reflection.
The reflected ray travels from the mirror into the teacher’s eye, allowing the source to be seen.

(b)(ii) A transverse wave is one where the oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of energy transfer.

In a transverse wave, the vibrations occur at right angles to the direction the wave travels.
Visible light is transverse because its oscillating electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to its direction of propagation.

(b)(iii) \(6.0 \times 10^{-7}\,\text{m}\)

Using \( \lambda = \dfrac{v}{f} \):
\( \lambda = \dfrac{3.0 \times 10^8}{5.0 \times 10^{14}} = 6.0 \times 10^{-7}\,\text{m} \).

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