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Question 1

Which characteristic of a living organism releases energy for growth?

A. excretion
B. reproduction
C. respiration
D. sensitivity

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — respiration is defined as the chemical reactions in cells that break down nutrient molecules and release energy for metabolism.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Growth requires energy, and this energy is released inside cells through respiration.
Respiration is the breakdown of nutrient molecules such as glucose to release energy for metabolism, including building new cell material for growth.
Excretion, reproduction, and sensitivity do not themselves release energy — they depend on the energy respiration provides.
Answer: (C)

Question 2

A student draws a diagram of a chicken’s egg and includes the magnification, m, of the drawing.

The student writes m = ×2.

The image length on the diagram is 140 mm.

What is the length of the actual chicken’s egg?

A. 35 mm
B. 70 mm
C. 140 mm
D. 280 mm

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.2: Size of specimens — state and use the formula: magnification = image size ÷ actual size.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The formula for magnification is \( \text{magnification} = \dfrac{\text{image size}}{\text{actual size}} \).
Rearranging gives \( \text{actual size} = \dfrac{\text{image size}}{\text{magnification}} = \dfrac{140}{2} = 70 \) mm.
So the actual length of the chicken’s egg is 70 mm.
Answer: (B)

Question 3

Which colour does Benedict’s solution change to when heated with a reducing sugar?

A. blue
B. blue-black
C. orange
D. purple

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — describe the use of Benedict’s solution test for reducing sugars.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Benedict’s solution is used as a chemical test for reducing sugars such as glucose.
When Benedict’s solution (which is blue) is heated with a reducing sugar, a colour change occurs from blue through green and yellow to an orange/brick-red precipitate.
The intensity and final colour depend on the sugar concentration, but the characteristic positive result is orange.
Answer: (C)

Question 4

Which graph shows the effect of temperature on enzyme activity?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — describe the effect of temperature on enzyme activity, including the idea of an optimum temperature.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Enzyme activity increases with rising temperature up to an optimum, because particles move faster and collide more often.
Above the optimum temperature, the enzyme’s active site is denatured and activity falls rapidly to zero.
This gives a curve that rises to a peak and then drops sharply, matching graph D.
Answer: (D)

Question 5

Which conditions will result in the highest rate of photosynthesis?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — identify light intensity and carbon dioxide concentration as limiting factors of photosynthesis.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Photosynthesis requires both light energy and carbon dioxide as raw materials.
The rate of photosynthesis increases when light intensity and \(CO_2\) concentration both increase, as neither factor is then limiting.
So the highest rate occurs when both light intensity and carbon dioxide concentration are high.
Answer: (A)

Question 6

Which row about food groups is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.1: Diet — state the functions and sources of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, and other components of a balanced diet.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carbohydrates such as those in bread, pasta and rice are mainly used to provide energy for the body.
Fats provide energy and insulation (not tissue growth), and fibre aids digestion rather than repairing tissue; proteins, from fish, meat and seeds, are for tissue growth and repair.
Only row A correctly matches the food group, its main function and its food sources.
Answer: (A)

Question 7

Which label shows the position of the xylem in the cross-section of the root of a dicotyledonous plant?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.1: Xylem and phloem — identify the position of xylem and phloem tissue in a root, stem, and leaf.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a dicotyledonous root, the xylem tissue is arranged in a central, star-shaped core at the very centre of the root.
This central position gives the root strength to resist pulling (tension) forces as water is drawn upward.
Diagram C shows the label pointing to this central star-shaped region, which is the xylem.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

The apparatus shown is set up and left for 10 minutes. The insects are able to move around in the test-tube but the wire mesh prevents them from falling into the sodium hydroxide.

In which direction does the oil droplet move and why?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — investigate the evolution of carbon dioxide and heat from respiring organisms, using a respirometer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The insects respire, using up oxygen from the air in the tube and releasing carbon dioxide.
The sodium hydroxide absorbs this carbon dioxide as it is produced, so the overall gas volume inside the tube decreases.
This drop in volume causes the coloured oil droplet to move to the left, towards the insects.
Answer: (B)

Question 9

One response to a frightening situation is an increase in heart rate caused by the release of adrenaline.

Which statement about adrenaline is correct?

A. It is an enzyme produced by an organ and travels in the blood to the heart.
B. It is an enzyme produced by an organ and travels down a nerve to the brain.
C. It is a hormone produced by a gland and travels in the blood to the heart.
D. It is a hormone produced by a gland and travels down a nerve to the brain.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.2: Hormones — state that adrenaline is a hormone secreted by the adrenal glands and describe its effects on the body.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Adrenaline is a hormone, not an enzyme, so it is secreted by a gland (the adrenal gland) rather than being produced by an organ as an enzyme.
Hormones travel to their target organs in the bloodstream rather than along nerves.
Adrenaline travels in the blood to the heart, where it increases heart rate.
Answer: (C)

Question 10

Which part of the male reproductive system is correctly matched to its function?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.4: Sexual reproduction in humans — identify and describe the functions of the parts of the male reproductive system.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The scrotum is the sac that holds the testes outside the main body cavity, where the temperature is slightly lower and more suitable for sperm production.
The prostate gland (not sperm ducts) adds fluid to semen, the testes produce sperm and testosterone (fluid is from other glands), and the urethra carries semen out through the penis, not to an ovary.
Only row B correctly matches a structure with its true function.
Answer: (B)

Question 11

Continuous variation is defined as a ……1…… of phenotypes ……2…… .

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B17.1: Variation — describe continuous variation as a range of phenotypes between two extremes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Continuous variation describes characteristics, such as height, that can take any value across a range rather than falling into distinct categories.
This range extends between two extreme values, with every intermediate value possible, unlike discontinuous variation which has no intermediates.
So the correct definition is a range of phenotypes between two extremes.
Answer: (C)

Question 12

In a food chain, what do all living organisms get from their food?

A. a supply of water
B. oxygen for respiration
C. protection from disease
D. the energy they need

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.1: Energy flow — describe the non-cyclical nature of energy flow, from the Sun through producers to consumers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Every organism in a food chain requires a continuous supply of energy to carry out life processes such as movement, growth and repair.
This energy is obtained by feeding on other organisms, since energy is passed along the food chain from producers to consumers.
Water, oxygen and disease protection are not the universal reason all organisms in a food chain feed; energy is.
Answer: (D)

Question 13

Forests are cut down and burnt in deforestation programmes.

As a result of this, which gas in the atmosphere increases in concentration?

A. carbon dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — describe the effects of deforestation, including increased release of carbon dioxide.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Burning trees during deforestation releases the carbon stored in the wood as carbon dioxide gas through combustion.
Fewer trees also means less carbon dioxide is removed from the air by photosynthesis, adding to the increase.
Together, these effects raise the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Answer: (A)

Question 14

Dye X is a mixture of different coloured substances.

Chromatography is used to compare X with three other mixtures, P, Q and R.

The results are shown.

Which mixtures contain dye X?

A. P, Q and R
B. P and Q only
C. P only
D. R only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.3: Chromatography — interpret simple chromatograms, including comparison with known substances using \(R_f\) values.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A mixture is judged to contain dye X if it produces spots on the chromatogram that match the position (and hence the \(R_f\) value) of every spot seen for X.
Comparing the spot patterns, only mixture P shows spots in exactly the same positions as dye X.
So dye X is present only in mixture P.
Answer: (C)

Question 15

What do the chemical symbols N2 and Ni represent?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — define an element as a substance made of only one type of atom.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
\(N_2\) is nitrogen gas, made of two nitrogen atoms joined together, so it is an element, not a compound.
Ni is the symbol for nickel, a metal made of only one type of atom, so it is also an element.
Both symbols represent elements, since a compound must contain atoms of at least two different elements chemically combined.
Answer: (D)

Question 16

The nucleon number of a hydrogen atom is 1.

What is present inside the nucleus of this atom?

A. one proton and one electron
B. one proton and one neutron
C. one proton only
D. one neutron only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — describe the structure of an atom in terms of protons, neutrons and electrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The nucleon (mass) number of 1 means the nucleus contains a total of only 1 proton and neutron combined.
Hydrogen’s proton number is 1, so this single nucleon must be a proton, leaving no neutrons in the nucleus.
Electrons orbit outside the nucleus and are not part of it, so the nucleus contains one proton only.
Answer: (C)

Question 17

The diagram represents an ionic compound formed from three types of atom.

What is the chemical formula for this compound?

A. Na2S4O
B. NaO4S2
C. Na2SO4
D. S4O2Na

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — deduce the formula of an ionic compound from the number and ratio of ions present.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The diagram shows the ratio of sodium, sulfur and oxygen atoms/ions present in the compound.
Counting the particles shown gives 2 sodium atoms, 1 sulfur atom and 4 oxygen atoms in the correct ratio for sodium sulfate.
Writing this ratio as a formula, with elements in the conventional order, gives \(Na_2SO_4\).
Answer: (C)

Question 18

The diagram shows the electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid using inert electrodes.

Which substance is produced by electrolysis at the negative electrode?

A. hydrogen
B. oxygen
C. sulfur dioxide
D. water vapour

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — predict the products of electrolysis of aqueous solutions, including dilute sulfuric acid, using inert electrodes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In dilute sulfuric acid, the ions present are \(H^+\), \(SO_4^{2-}\) and \(OH^-\) (from water).
At the negative electrode (cathode), positive hydrogen ions are attracted and gain electrons (are reduced) to form hydrogen gas.
Oxygen is produced at the positive electrode instead, so the gas released at the negative electrode is hydrogen.
Answer: (A)

Question 19

When petrol burns in a car engine, carbon monoxide, CO, and nitrogen monoxide, NO, are produced.

These gases pass through a catalytic converter where carbon monoxide reacts with nitrogen monoxide.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

carbon monoxide + nitrogen monoxide → nitrogen + carbon dioxide

Which statement is not correct?

A. Carbon monoxide is oxidised in the catalytic converter.
B. Carbon monoxide is produced by the complete combustion of petrol.
C. Nitrogen from the air is oxidised in the car engine.
D. Nitrogen monoxide is reduced in the catalytic converter.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — identify redox reactions as involving simultaneous oxidation and reduction, in terms of oxygen or electron transfer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Carbon monoxide gains oxygen to form carbon dioxide, so it is oxidised, and nitrogen monoxide loses oxygen to form nitrogen, so it is reduced — both correct statements.
Nitrogen from the air is oxidised at the high temperatures inside the engine to form nitrogen monoxide, which is also correct.
However, carbon monoxide is actually a product of the incomplete combustion of petrol (not complete combustion), so that statement is the one that is not correct.
Answer: (B)

Question 20

Four different oxides are listed.

  1. calcium oxide
  2. lithium oxide
  3. nitrogen oxide
  4. phosphorus oxide

Which oxides are acidic oxides?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.2: Oxides — classify oxides as either acidic or basic, related to metallic and non-metallic character.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Calcium and lithium are metals, and metal oxides are generally basic, so calcium oxide and lithium oxide are basic, not acidic.
Nitrogen and phosphorus are non-metals, and non-metal oxides are generally acidic.
So the acidic oxides are nitrogen oxide and phosphorus oxide, which are oxides 3 and 4.
Answer: (D)

Question 21

Substance X is mixed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.

A green precipitate is produced.

Which metal ion is present in X?

A. Cu2+
B. Fe2+
C. Fe3+
D. Zn2+

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — use aqueous sodium hydroxide to identify metal ions by the colour of the hydroxide precipitate formed.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Adding aqueous sodium hydroxide to a solution containing metal ions produces an insoluble metal hydroxide precipitate whose colour identifies the metal ion.
\(Cu^{2+}\) gives a blue precipitate, \(Fe^{3+}\) gives a reddish-brown precipitate, and \(Zn^{2+}\) gives a white precipitate that redissolves in excess.
\(Fe^{2+}\) is the ion that gives the characteristic green precipitate, so substance X contains \(Fe^{2+}\).
Answer: (B)

Question 22

Potassium is in Group I of the Periodic Table.

Which statement about potassium is correct?

A. It is a relatively hard metal.
B. It is less dense than lithium.
C. It has a higher melting point than sodium.
D. It reacts more vigorously with water than sodium.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.2: Group I properties — describe the trend in reactivity of Group I metals with water and other properties down the group.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Group I metals are soft, not hard, and become more reactive going down the group as the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.
Density and melting point generally decrease down the group, so potassium is denser than lithium and has a lower melting point than sodium (not higher).
Since potassium is below sodium in Group I, it reacts more vigorously with water than sodium does.
Answer: (D)

Question 23

What is a use for argon?

A. as a catalyst
B. in alloys
C. in lamps
D. neutralising chemical waste

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — describe the uses of noble gases, including argon in filament lamps, related to their inertness.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Argon is a noble gas and is chemically inert, meaning it does not react with the hot filament inside a light bulb.
This makes it ideal for filling filament lamps, providing an unreactive atmosphere that prevents the filament from burning away.
Argon is not used as a catalyst, in alloys, or to neutralise chemical waste, since these uses require reactive or structural properties argon does not have.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Which metal is extracted from its ore by electrolysis?

A. aluminium
B. copper
C. gold
D. iron

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — relate the method of metal extraction to the metal’s position in the reactivity series.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Metals high in the reactivity series, such as aluminium, form very stable compounds that cannot be reduced by carbon.
These metals must instead be extracted by electrolysis of their molten ore, which requires large amounts of electrical energy.
Iron is extracted by reduction with carbon, copper can be extracted by reduction or other methods, and gold is unreactive enough to be found native, so aluminium is the one extracted by electrolysis.
Answer: (A)

Question 25

Which gas is present in clean air?

A. carbon dioxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. nitrogen dioxide
D. sulfur dioxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — state the composition of clean, dry air and identify common atmospheric pollutants.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Clean, dry air is made up mainly of nitrogen and oxygen, with small proportions of other naturally occurring gases including carbon dioxide.
Carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide and sulfur dioxide are all pollutant gases produced by human activities such as combustion, and are not natural components of clean air.
Carbon dioxide, in contrast, is naturally present in air at a low but constant concentration.
Answer: (A)

Question 26

Which statement about petroleum is correct?

A. It contains mostly alkene molecules.
B. It is a mixture of hydrocarbons.
C. It is separated into fractions by cracking.
D. Its main constituent is methane.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.3: Fuels — describe petroleum as a mixture of hydrocarbons that is separated by fractional distillation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Petroleum (crude oil) is a naturally occurring mixture made up mostly of alkane hydrocarbons of different chain lengths, not alkenes.
It is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation based on boiling point, whereas cracking is a separate process used to break large hydrocarbons into smaller, more useful ones.
Since it contains many different hydrocarbons rather than one single compound, petroleum is correctly described as a mixture of hydrocarbons.
Answer: (B)

Question 27

Which statement about poly(ethene) is correct?

A. It always contains less than 12 carbon atoms.
B. It is formed from ethane.
C. It is formed from ethene.
D. It occurs naturally.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — describe the formation of poly(ethene) as an example of addition polymerisation of ethene monomers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Poly(ethene) is an addition polymer made by joining together many ethene monomer molecules.
It is a synthetic (man-made) plastic and does not occur naturally, and its long polymer chains contain far more than 12 carbon atoms.
Since it is formed by polymerising ethene (not ethane), the correct statement is that it is formed from ethene.
Answer: (C)

Question 28

The speed–time graph represents part of a car journey.

How far does the car travel in the part of the journey shown?

A. 20 m
B. 45 m
C. 70 m
D. 90 m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — calculate the area under a speed–time graph to find the distance travelled.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The distance travelled is equal to the area under the speed–time graph, which here is a trapezium with parallel sides of speed 10 m/s and 18 m/s over 5 s.
Using the trapezium area formula: \( \text{distance} = \dfrac{1}{2}(10+18)\times 5 = \dfrac{1}{2}\times 28 \times 5 = 70 \) m.
So the car travels 70 m in the time shown.
Answer: (C)

Question 29

The mass of an empty measuring cylinder is 15 g.

Liquid is poured into it and the total mass is now 95 g.

The reading on the measuring cylinder is shown.

What is the density of the liquid?

A. 1.3 g/cm3
B. 1.4 g/cm3
C. 1.5 g/cm3
D. 1.7 g/cm3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.4: Density — define density as mass per unit volume and use the equation \( \rho = \dfrac{m}{V} \) in calculations.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The mass of the liquid alone is found by subtracting the empty cylinder’s mass from the total: \( 95 – 15 = 80 \) g.
The measuring cylinder reading shows the liquid volume is 56 cm³ (read from the meniscus between the 50 and 60 cm³ marks).
Density is then \( \rho = \dfrac{m}{V} = \dfrac{80}{56} \approx 1.4 \) g/cm³.
Answer: (B)

Question 30

The diagram shows a child of weight 240 N sitting on a see-saw (teeter-totter) at a distance of 1.6 m from the pivot.

What is the moment of the weight of the child about the pivot, with the correct unit?

A. 150 N m
B. 150 N/m
C. 384 N m
D. 384 N/m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.2: Turning effect of forces — define the moment of a force as moment = force × perpendicular distance from the pivot.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The moment of a force is calculated using \( \text{moment} = \text{force} \times \text{perpendicular distance from the pivot} \).
Substituting the values given: \( \text{moment} = 240 \times 1.6 = 384 \) N m.
The correct unit for a moment is newton-metres (N m), not N/m, so the answer is 384 N m.
Answer: (C)

Question 31

Which two energy sources are both non-renewable?

A. oil and geothermal resources
B. oil and natural gas
C. tides and geothermal resources
D. tides and wind

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — classify energy resources as renewable or non-renewable and give examples of each.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Non-renewable energy resources are fossil fuels that formed over millions of years and cannot be replaced within a human lifetime, such as oil and natural gas.
Geothermal resources, tides and wind are all renewable, since they are continuously available from natural ongoing processes.
The only pair that are both non-renewable is oil and natural gas.
Answer: (B)

Question 32

Someone wearing wet clothes can feel cold even on a warm day.

Why do they feel cold?

A. Water gives out heat as it evaporates.
B. Water takes in heat as it evaporates.
C. Water vapour gives out heat as it condenses.
D. Water vapour takes in heat as it condenses.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.2: Melting, boiling and evaporation — know that evaporation causes cooling of a liquid.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During evaporation, the most energetic water particles escape from the liquid surface as vapour.
These particles take their kinetic energy with them, which is drawn as heat energy from the skin and remaining liquid, lowering their temperature.
Since evaporation takes in heat from its surroundings (the person’s skin), the person feels cold.
Answer: (B)

Question 33

How is thermal energy transferred from the Sun through the vacuum of space?

A. by conduction and convection
B. by convection and radiation
C. by convection only
D. by radiation only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.4: Consequences of thermal energy transfer — know that radiation can transfer thermal energy through a vacuum, unlike conduction and convection.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Conduction requires particles in a solid to transfer vibrations, and convection requires the movement of particles in a liquid or gas — neither is possible in the vacuum of space, since there are no particles present.
Thermal radiation, in contrast, consists of electromagnetic waves that do not need a medium and can travel through empty space.
So thermal energy from the Sun reaches the Earth by radiation only.
Answer: (D)

Question 34

A ray of light enters a parallel-sided glass block.

At which labelled point does the ray leave the block?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of Light — describe the refraction of light as it passes from one medium to another of different optical density.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As the light ray enters the glass block, it bends (refracts) towards the normal because glass is optically denser than air.
Inside a parallel-sided block, the ray travels in a straight line until it reaches the opposite parallel face.
Tracing this straight path from the point of entry shows the ray leaves the block at point B.
Answer: (B)

Question 35

Which change to a sound wave makes the sound louder?

A. decreasing the amplitude
B. decreasing the wavelength
C. increasing the amplitude
D. increasing the wavelength

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — relate the loudness of a sound to the amplitude of the sound wave.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The loudness of a sound is determined by the amplitude of the sound wave, which relates to how much energy the wave carries.
A larger amplitude means the wave carries more energy, producing a louder sound at the ear.
Wavelength affects the pitch of the sound, not its loudness, so increasing the amplitude is what makes the sound louder.
Answer: (C)

Question 36

Three charged balls P, Q and R are suspended by insulating threads. Ball P is negatively charged.

Ball Q is brought close to ball P. The balls move away from each other.

Ball Q is now brought close to ball R. The balls move closer to each other.

What are the signs of the charges on ball Q and ball R?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.1: Electrical charge — state that like charges repel and unlike charges attract.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ball P is negatively charged, and it moves away from ball Q, so like charges must be repelling — meaning ball Q is also negatively charged.
When ball Q is brought close to ball R, the balls move closer together, showing attraction, which only happens between unlike charges.
Since Q is negative, ball R must be positively charged for attraction to occur.
Answer: (B)

Question 37

Which two electrical quantities are measured in the same unit?

A. current and potential difference (p.d.)
B. current and electromotive force (e.m.f.)
C. potential difference (p.d.) and electromotive force (e.m.f.)
D. potential difference (p.d.) and resistance

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.3: Voltage (electromotive force and potential difference) — know that both e.m.f. and p.d. are measured in volts (V).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Current is measured in amperes and resistance is measured in ohms, so neither shares a unit with potential difference.
Potential difference (p.d.) and electromotive force (e.m.f.) are both types of voltage, since e.m.f. is the voltage of the source and p.d. is the voltage across a component.
Because both describe a form of voltage, they are both measured in volts (V), the same unit.
Answer: (C)

Question 38

A battery is connected in a circuit to a 3.0 Ω resistor, a 6.0 Ω resistor and two ammeters P and Q.

What is the combined resistance of the two resistors and which ammeter has the greater reading?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — calculate the combined resistance of resistors in parallel and compare currents in parallel branches.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The two resistors are connected in parallel, so their combined resistance is always less than the smallest individual resistor, which here is less than 3.0 Ω.
Ammeter Q measures the current in the branch with the smaller 3.0 Ω resistor, which carries a larger share of the current than the 6.0 Ω branch.
So the combined resistance is less than 3.0 Ω, and ammeter Q has the greater reading.
Answer: (B)

Question 39

The current in an electric kettle used to boil water is 9.0 A.

What is the most appropriate rating of fuse to use with this kettle?

A. 1 A
B. 3 A
C. 8 A
D. 13 A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — choose an appropriate fuse rating for a given appliance based on its normal operating current.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse must have a current rating that is higher than the normal operating current of the appliance, so it does not blow during normal use.
The kettle operates at 9.0 A, so fuses rated at 1 A, 3 A or 8 A would all be too low and would melt during normal operation.
The 13 A fuse is the smallest standard rating above 9.0 A, making it the most appropriate choice.
Answer: (D)

Question 40

A nuclide of hydrogen is represented by \( ^{3}_{1}\text{H} \).

Which row shows the number of protons and the number of neutrons in this nuclide?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.1: The nucleus — use nuclide notation \( ^{A}_{Z}X \) to calculate the number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In nuclide notation \( ^{A}_{Z}X \), the bottom number Z is the proton number and the top number A is the nucleon (mass) number.
Here \( Z = 1 \), so there is 1 proton, and \( A = 3 \), so the total number of protons and neutrons is 3.
The number of neutrons is \( A – Z = 3 – 1 = 2 \), giving
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