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Question 1

Which characteristic of a living organism releases energy for growth?

A. excretion
B. reproduction
C. respiration
D. sensitivity

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — Identify respiration as the life process that releases energy from nutrients.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Respiration is the chemical process, occurring in every living cell, that breaks down glucose to release energy.
This released energy powers cell activities such as growth, movement, and the synthesis of new materials.
The other options (excretion, reproduction, sensitivity) are life characteristics but do not themselves release energy.
Answer: (C)

Question 2

When a plant cell is put into a solution that has a lower water potential than the cell, the cytoplasm can pull away from the cell wall.

What is the term for this?

A. flaccid
B. plasmolysis
C. turgid
D. turgor pressure

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B3.2: Osmosis — Describe plasmolysis as the pulling away of the cytoplasm from the cell wall in a hypertonic solution.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Water leaves the cell by osmosis when the external solution has a lower (more negative) water potential than the cell.
As water is lost, the cytoplasm shrinks and pulls away from the rigid cell wall — this is plasmolysis.
Flaccid, turgid, and turgor pressure describe cell firmness states, not this specific separation event.
Answer: (B)

Question 3

Which colour does Benedict’s solution change to when heated with a reducing sugar?

A. blue
B. blue-black
C. orange
D. purple

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — Test for reducing sugars using Benedict’s solution.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Benedict’s solution starts off blue due to copper(II) sulfate.
When heated with a reducing sugar, the copper(II) ions are reduced to copper(I) oxide, forming an insoluble precipitate.
This precipitate is orange (sometimes described as brick-red), giving a positive result.
Answer: (C)

Question 4

The graph shows the effect of increasing temperature on the time taken for amylase to fully digest a sample of starch.

Which statements are correct?

  1. As the temperature increases, the kinetic energy of the amylase and starch molecules increases.
  2. The time taken to fully digest the starch decreases as temperature increases because there are more frequent collisions between starch and amylase molecules.
  3. The time taken to fully digest the starch decreases as temperature increases because the shape of the amylase changes as it denatures.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — Explain the effect of temperature on enzyme activity, including denaturation at high temperatures.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Higher temperature genuinely increases kinetic energy of all molecules, so statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is also correct: faster-moving molecules collide more often, speeding up digestion — this applies up to the optimum temperature.
Statement 3 describes denaturation, which only occurs above the optimum temperature and would slow, not speed up, digestion, so it is incorrect over the range shown.
Answer: (B)

Question 5

The diagram shows a cross-section through a leaf.

Which tissue is adapted for gas exchange?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.2: Leaf structure — Identify the spongy mesophyll and air spaces as the tissue adapted for gas exchange.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The spongy mesophyll layer contains loosely packed cells with large interconnected air spaces.
These air spaces allow carbon dioxide and oxygen to diffuse easily to and from the mesophyll cells, and out through the stomata.
This makes it the tissue best adapted for gas exchange, labelled D in the diagram.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

Pancreatic insufficiency is a condition that occurs when the pancreas is unable to produce enough enzymes.

Which secretions are reduced due to this condition?

A. amylase, lipase and protease
B. amylase, lipase and bile
C. amylase, insulin and protease
D. glucagon, insulin and protease

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.3: Digestion — Identify amylase, lipase and protease as digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The pancreas secretes the digestive enzymes amylase, lipase and protease into the small intestine.
Pancreatic insufficiency means fewer of these enzymes are made, reducing all three.
Bile is made by the liver (not the pancreas), and insulin/glucagon are hormones, not digestive secretions, so they are not the answer here.
Answer: (A)

Question 7

Which label shows the position of the xylem in the cross-section of the root of a dicotyledonous plant?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.1: Xylem and phloem — Identify the position of xylem tissue in a root cross-section.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a dicotyledonous root, the xylem forms a central, star-shaped (X-shaped) core running through the middle of the root.
The phloem tissue sits in separate groups between the arms of the xylem star.
Based on this arrangement, the central labelled region corresponds to label C.
Answer: (C)

Question 8

Aerobic respiration releases energy from nutrient molecules.

One molecule of glucose requires ……1…… molecules of oxygen. The reaction releases ……2…… molecules of carbon dioxide and ……3…… molecules of water.

Which row completes gaps 1, 2 and 3?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B12.1: Respiration — Recall the word/balanced equation for aerobic respiration of glucose.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The balanced equation for aerobic respiration is \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}\).
So one glucose molecule requires 6 molecules of oxygen, releasing 6 molecules of carbon dioxide and 6 molecules of water.
This matches gaps 1, 2 and 3 all equal to six.
Answer: (D)

Question 9

During an experiment, auxin is applied to one side of a shoot just behind the tip.

What will this stimulate?

A. decreased cell elongation in all cells
B. decreased cell elongation on the side with extra auxin
C. increased cell elongation in all cells
D. increased cell elongation on the side with extra auxin

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Coordination and response — Describe the role of auxin in stimulating cell elongation in shoots (phototropism).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Auxin is a plant hormone that stimulates cell elongation in shoots.
A higher concentration of auxin on one side of the shoot causes greater elongation of the cells on that particular side.
This unequal growth is what causes the shoot to bend, as seen in phototropism.
Answer: (D)

Question 10

Which part of the male reproductive system is correctly matched to its function?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.4: Sexual reproduction in humans — Match male reproductive structures to their functions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The scrotum is the sac of skin that holds the testes outside the main body cavity.
This keeps the testes slightly cooler than body temperature, which is necessary for healthy sperm production.
The other rows mismatch structure and function (e.g. the prostate adds fluid rather than transferring sperm, and the urethra carries semen out of the penis, not to the ovary).
Answer: (B)

Question 11

Cats with polydactyly have an extra digit on their paw. The allele for polydactyly, P, is dominant to the allele for having five digits, p.

The pedigree diagram shows a family of cats where polydactyly is present.

What is the probability that the next kitten from the mating of 3 and 4 has five digits?

A. 0.00
B. 0.25
C. 0.50
D. 0.75

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.3: Monohybrid inheritance — Use a genetic cross/pedigree to calculate the probability of an offspring’s phenotype.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since both parents 3 and 4 have polydactyly but have already produced a five-digit (pp) offspring in the pedigree, both parents must be heterozygous (Pp).
Crossing \(\text{Pp} \times \text{Pp}\) gives offspring in the ratio 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1 pp.
So the probability of a five-digit (pp) kitten is \(\frac{1}{4} = 0.25\).
Answer: (B)

Question 12

Four processes that occur in mammals are listed.

  1. muscle contraction
  2. cell division
  3. excretion
  4. maintenance of a constant body temperature

Which processes reduce the amount of energy available to the next trophic level?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 4 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.1: Energy flow — Explain why energy is lost between trophic levels through processes such as respiration, movement and heat loss.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
All four listed processes require energy released by respiration inside the organism’s cells.
Muscle contraction, cell division, and excretion all use up chemical energy, and maintaining a constant body temperature requires continual heat production.
Since this energy is used or lost as heat rather than passed on, all four processes reduce the energy available to the next trophic level.
Answer: (A)

Question 13

Forests are cut down and burnt in deforestation programmes.

As a result of this, which gas in the atmosphere increases in concentration?

A. carbon dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — Explain how deforestation and burning increase atmospheric carbon dioxide.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Burning wood during deforestation directly releases carbon dioxide through combustion.
Fewer trees also means less carbon dioxide is removed from the air by photosynthesis.
Both effects combine to increase the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Answer: (A)

Question 14

Dye X is a mixture of different coloured substances.

Chromatography is used to compare X with three other mixtures, P, Q and R. The results are shown.

Which mixtures contain dye X?

A. P, Q and R
B. P and Q only
C. P only
D. R only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.3: Chromatography — Interpret a chromatogram to identify which mixtures contain a given substance.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A mixture contains dye X only if every spot from X appears at the same height (same \(R_f\) value) in that mixture’s chromatogram track.
Comparing the spot patterns, only mixture P shows spots matching all of X’s spots at the identical positions.
Mixtures Q and R are missing at least one matching spot, so they do not contain dye X.
Answer: (C)

Question 15

What do the chemical symbols N2 and Ni represent?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — Distinguish between an element (N₂, a diatomic molecule of one element) and Ni (nickel, an element).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
N2 represents a molecule made of two nitrogen atoms only, so it is an element, not a compound.
Ni is the symbol for nickel, a single metallic element.
Since both symbols represent single elements (one as a diatomic molecule, one as an atom), the correct description for both is “an element.”
Answer: (D)

Question 16

The nucleon number of a hydrogen atom is 1.

What is present inside the nucleus of this atom?

A. one proton and one electron
B. one proton and one neutron
C. one proton only
D. one neutron only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.2: Atomic structure and the Periodic Table — Relate proton number and nucleon number to the composition of the nucleus.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Hydrogen has a proton number of 1 and, in its most common isotope, a nucleon number of 1.
Since nucleon number = protons + neutrons, (1 = 1 + 0), meaning there are no neutrons.
Electrons orbit the nucleus but are not found inside it, so the nucleus contains one proton only.
Answer: (C)

Question 17

When magnesium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, carbon dioxide gas is released.

The equation for this reaction is shown.

\(\text{MgCO}_3 + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{MgCl}_2 + \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}\)

Which volume of carbon dioxide, collected at room temperature and pressure, is released when 4.2 g of magnesium carbonate reacts with excess dilute hydrochloric acid?

A. 1.2 dm3
B. 2.4 dm3
C. 4.8 dm3
D. 12 dm3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.3: The mole and the Avogadro constant — Calculate the volume of gas produced using molar mass and molar gas volume at r.t.p.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The molar mass of \(\text{MgCO}_3\) is \(24+12+48=84\text{ g/mol}\), so \(\frac{4.2}{84}=0.05\) mol reacts.
The equation shows a 1:1 mole ratio between \(\text{MgCO}_3\) and \(\text{CO}_2\), so 0.05 mol of \(\text{CO}_2\) is produced.
Using the molar gas volume at r.t.p. of \(24\text{ dm}^3/\text{mol}\): \(0.05 \times 24 = 1.2\text{ dm}^3\).
Answer: (A)

Question 18

The temperature of solution Q is 21 °C. The temperature of solution P is 24 °C.

The two solutions are mixed. The temperature of the mixture is 31 °C.

Which statement is correct?

A. An endothermic reaction occurs and the reacting chemicals gain energy.
B. An endothermic reaction occurs and the reacting chemicals lose energy.
C. An exothermic reaction occurs and the reacting chemicals gain energy.
D. An exothermic reaction occurs and the reacting chemicals lose energy.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — Identify a temperature rise as evidence of an exothermic reaction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Both starting solutions were cooler (21 °C and 24 °C) than the resulting mixture (31 °C), so the surroundings gained thermal energy.
A temperature rise means the reaction released energy to the surroundings, which is the definition of an exothermic reaction.
In an exothermic reaction, it is the reacting chemicals that lose energy (as it is transferred out to the surroundings).
Answer: (D)

Question 19

The rate of reaction between calcium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid is determined either by measuring the change in gas volume per unit time or by measuring the change in mass per unit time.

Which piece of apparatus must be used for both methods?

A. a balance
B. a gas syringe
C. a stop-clock
D. a thermometer

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe practical methods, including timing, for investigating reaction rate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Both “per unit time” methods require the measurement to be tracked against time, so a stop-clock is always needed to time the readings.
A gas syringe is only needed for the gas volume method, and a balance is only needed for the mass-loss method.
A thermometer is not required for either method, since neither tracks temperature.
Answer: (C)

Question 20

The ionic equation for the reaction between iron(II) chloride and chlorine is shown.

\(2\text{Fe}^{2+} + \text{Cl}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{Fe}^{3+} + 2\text{Cl}^-\)

Which row shows the substance that is reduced and the oxidising agent?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — Identify oxidation and reduction in terms of electron transfer, and identify oxidising/reducing agents.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
\(\text{Fe}^{2+}\) loses an electron to become \(\text{Fe}^{3+}\), so iron is oxidised.
\(\text{Cl}_2\) gains electrons to become \(\text{Cl}^-\), so chlorine is the substance reduced.
Since \(\text{Cl}_2\) accepts electrons from iron, causing iron’s oxidation, chlorine is also the oxidising agent.
Answer: (A)

Question 21

Substance X is mixed with aqueous sodium hydroxide. A green precipitate is produced.

Which metal ion is present in X?

A. Cu2+
B. Fe2+
C. Fe3+
D. Zn2+

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — Recall the colours of metal hydroxide precipitates formed with sodium hydroxide.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Adding aqueous sodium hydroxide to a solution of metal ions precipitates the corresponding insoluble metal hydroxide.
Iron(II) hydroxide, \(\text{Fe(OH)}_2\), is characteristically a green precipitate.
Copper(II), iron(III), and zinc hydroxides instead give blue, red-brown, and white precipitates respectively, so none of these match.
Answer: (B)

Question 22

Potassium is in Group I of the Periodic Table.

Which statement about potassium is correct?

A. It is a relatively hard metal.
B. It is less dense than lithium.
C. It has a higher melting point than sodium.
D. It reacts more vigorously with water than sodium.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.2: Group I properties — Describe the trend in reactivity of Group I metals down the group.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Reactivity of Group I metals increases down the group as the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.
Since potassium is below sodium in Group I, it reacts more vigorously with water than sodium does.
Potassium is actually soft (not hard), denser than lithium is not consistently true by mass but melting points decrease down the group, so options A and C are incorrect.
Answer: (D)

Question 23

What is a use for argon?

A. as a catalyst
B. in alloys
C. in lamps
D. neutralising chemical waste

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — Recall a use of argon (inert atmosphere in lamps).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Argon is an unreactive noble gas, so it does not react with the hot filament inside a light bulb.
It is used to fill lamps to provide an inert atmosphere, preventing the filament from oxidising and burning out quickly.
Argon is not used as a catalyst, in metal alloys, or to neutralise chemical waste, as these all require reactive properties argon lacks.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

Silver oxide is reduced by heating with carbon more easily than copper oxide is reduced by heating with carbon.

A copper strip is placed into a solution of silver nitrate as shown.

Which row describes the reaction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.4: Reactivity series — Predict displacement reactions using the relative reactivity of metals.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Copper is more reactive than silver, since silver oxide is reduced more easily than copper oxide, so copper displaces silver from solution.
Copper atoms lose electrons to form blue \(\text{Cu}^{2+}\) ions in solution, so the colourless solution slowly turns blue and the copper strip slowly dissolves.
Silver ions gain electrons, depositing as silver-grey solid silver metal on the copper strip.
Answer: (B)

Question 25

Catalytic converters are fitted to cars to remove some gases from exhaust emissions.

Which gases are released by catalytic converters?

A. carbon dioxide and nitrogen
B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen monoxide
C. carbon monoxide and nitrogen
D. carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — Describe how a catalytic converter changes exhaust pollutants into less harmful gases.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Catalytic converters convert harmful carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide from the exhaust into less harmful gases.
The reaction converts carbon monoxide into carbon dioxide, and nitrogen monoxide into nitrogen.
So the gases released after conversion are carbon dioxide and nitrogen, not the original pollutants.
Answer: (A)

Question 26

Sulfuric acid is manufactured by the Contact process.

One of the reactions in this process converts sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide.

Which statements about the conditions for this reaction are correct?

  1. A nickel catalyst is used.
  2. A pressure of about 1–2 atmospheres is used.
  3. A temperature of about 450 °C is used.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — (catalyst/temperature/pressure effects on reaction).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The Contact process actually uses a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst, not nickel, so statement 1 is incorrect.
A pressure of about 1–2 atmospheres and a temperature of about 450 °C are the correct standard conditions used, so statements 2 and 3 are correct.
This makes the combination of statements 2 and 3 the accurate description of the conditions.
Answer: (D)

Question 27

Which statements about monomers and polymers are correct?

  1. Different polymers can have different linkages between monomers.
  2. An addition polymerisation reaction produces more than one type of polymer.
  3. Addition polymers are made from saturated monomer molecules.
  4. Nylon is a condensation polymer formed from two different monomers.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — Distinguish addition and condensation polymerisation and describe monomer linkages.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Different polymer types (addition vs condensation) have different types of linkages between monomer units, so statement 1 is correct.
Nylon is indeed a condensation polymer made from two different monomers, so statement 4 is correct.
Statement 2 is wrong because addition polymerisation produces only one type of polymer, and statement 3 is wrong because addition monomers contain a C=C double bond and are unsaturated.
Answer: (B)

Question 28

The speed–time graph represents part of a car journey.

How far does the car travel in the part of the journey shown?

A. 20 m
B. 45 m
C. 70 m
D. 90 m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — Calculate distance travelled as the area under a speed–time graph.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Distance travelled equals the total area under a speed–time graph.
Splitting the shaded region shown into its triangular and trapezoidal sections and summing their areas gives a total of 70 m.
This total matches option C.
Answer: (C)

Question 29

A rocket has a mass of 300 kg. Its motors produce a force of 12 000 N vertically upwards.

The acceleration of free fall g is 10 m/s2.

What is the resultant force on the rocket and what is the acceleration of the rocket?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — Recall and use (F = ma) to find resultant force and acceleration.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Weight of rocket = \(mg = 300 \times 10 = 3000\text{ N}\) acting downwards, opposing the 12 000 N thrust.
Resultant force \(= 12000 – 3000 = 9000\text{ N}\) upwards.
Using (F = ma): \(a = \frac{9000}{300} = 30\text{ m/s}^2\).
Answer: (A)

Question 30

A uniform metre rule rests on a pivot at the 50 cm mark. A load L is placed at the 30 cm mark and a load of 6.0 N is placed at the 80 cm mark. The arrangement is balanced.

What is the weight of load L?

A. 6.0 N
B. 9.0 N
C. 16 N
D. 24 N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.2: Turning effect of forces — Apply the principle of moments to a balanced beam.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The distance of L from the pivot is \(50 – 30 = 20\text{ cm}\), and the distance of the 6.0 N load is \(80 – 50 = 30\text{ cm}\).
At equilibrium, clockwise moment = anticlockwise moment: \(L \times 20 = 6.0 \times 30\).
Solving: \(L = \frac{180}{20} = 9.0\text{ N}\).
Answer: (B)

Question 31

A hydroelectric energy storage scheme stores energy by pumping water up a mountain into a lake behind a dam.

In 1.0 s, 10 000 kg of water is pumped into the lake and gains a height of 150 m. The efficiency of this process is 60%.

Gravitational field strength = 10 N/kg.

What is the energy input in 1.0 s?

A. 9.0 × 105 J
B. 2.5 × 106 J
C. 9.0 × 106 J
D. 2.5 × 107 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.1: Energy — Calculate gravitational potential energy and use efficiency to find energy input.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Useful energy output = gravitational PE gained: \(E_p = mgh = 10000 \times 10 \times 150 = 1.5\times10^7\text{ J}\).
Efficiency \(=\frac{\text{useful output}}{\text{total input}}\times 100\%\), so input \(=\frac{\text{output}}{\text{efficiency}}\).
Energy input \(= \frac{1.5\times10^7}{0.60} = 2.5\times10^7\text{ J}\).
Answer: (D)

Question 32

What is a thermocouple used to measure?

A. expansion
B. pressure
C. resistance
D. temperature

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2: Thermal properties and temperature
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A thermocouple is made from two different metal wires joined at a junction.
When the junction is heated, a voltage is produced that varies with the temperature at the junction.
This makes a thermocouple a device specifically used to measure temperature, often very quickly or at very high temperatures.
Answer: (D)

Question 33

A vacuum flask uses a vacuum between two shiny surfaces to keep a drink hot for a long time.

How do the vacuum and the shiny surfaces help to keep the drink hot?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.4: Consequences of thermal energy transfer — Explain the everyday application of vacuum flask design in reducing heat loss.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A vacuum contains no particles, so it cannot transfer heat by conduction or convection, both of which need a medium.
The shiny, silvered surfaces are poor absorbers/emitters of infrared radiation, so they specifically reduce heat loss by radiation only.
Combining these two effects means the vacuum blocks conduction and convection, while the shiny surfaces block radiation.
Answer: (B)

Question 34

When light passes from air into glass its speed decreases but its frequency remains constant.

Light travelling in air enters a glass block at an angle of incidence that is greater than 0°.

Which row describes what happens to the direction and what happens to the wavelength of the light?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.2: Refraction of light — Describe the change in direction and wavelength when light passes into a denser medium.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Glass is optically denser than air, so light entering it at a non-zero angle of incidence bends towards the normal.
Using (v = f\lambda), since frequency stays constant and speed decreases in glass, wavelength must also decrease.
So the light both bends towards the normal and has a decreased wavelength.
Answer: (C)

Question 35

Which change to a sound wave makes the sound louder?

A. decreasing the amplitude
B. decreasing the wavelength
C. increasing the amplitude
D. increasing the wavelength

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — Relate the loudness of a sound wave to its amplitude.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The loudness of a sound is determined by the amplitude of the sound wave, not its wavelength or frequency.
A larger amplitude means the sound wave carries more energy, which is perceived as a louder sound.
Wavelength changes affect pitch, not loudness, so increasing amplitude is the correct change.
Answer: (C)

Question 36

Three charged balls P, Q and R are suspended by insulating threads. Ball P is negatively charged.

Ball Q is brought close to ball P. The balls move away from each other.

Ball Q is now brought close to ball R. The balls move closer to each other.

What are the signs of the charges on ball Q and ball R?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.1: Electrical charge — Apply the rule that like charges repel and unlike charges attract.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Ball P is negative and repels ball Q, so Q must also be negatively charged (like charges repel).
Ball Q is negative and attracts ball R, so R must have the opposite (positive) charge (unlike charges attract).
This gives Q as negative and R as positive.
Answer: (B)

Question 37

Which graph shows the current–voltage characteristics of an ohmic resistor and a filament lamp?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — Sketch and interpret the current–voltage graph of an ohmic resistor and a filament lamp.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An ohmic resistor at constant temperature gives a straight line through the origin, since current is directly proportional to voltage.
A filament lamp heats up as current increases, so its resistance rises and the graph curves, flattening off at higher voltages.
Only graph A shows this combination correctly: a straight line for the resistor and a curve that bends towards the voltage axis for the lamp.
Answer: (A)

Question 38

A battery is connected in a circuit to a 3.0 Ω resistor, a 6.0 Ω resistor and two ammeters P and Q.

What is the combined resistance of the two resistors and which ammeter has the greater reading?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — Calculate combined resistance of resistors in parallel and compare currents at different points.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For resistors in parallel: \(\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{3.0} + \frac{1}{6.0} = \frac{1}{2.0}\), so \(R = 2.0\ \Omega\), which is less than 3.0 Ω.
Ammeter Q, positioned in the main circuit, measures the total combined current from both parallel branches.
Since the total current is always greater than the current in any single branch, ammeter Q gives the greater reading.
Answer: (B)

Question 39

The current in an electric kettle used to boil water is 9.0 A.

What is the most appropriate rating of fuse to use with this kettle?

A. 1 A
B. 3 A
C. 8 A
D. 13 A

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — Select an appropriate fuse rating just above the normal operating current.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse must have a rating slightly higher than the normal operating current, so it does not blow during normal use.
Since the kettle draws 9.0 A, any fuse rated below this (1 A, 3 A, or 8 A) would blow immediately during normal operation.
The 13 A fuse is the smallest standard rating that is still safely above 9.0 A, making it the most appropriate choice.
Answer: (D)

Question 40

Three types of ionising radiation enter a magnetic field at right angles to the field.

Which types of radiation are deflected?

A. \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) only
B. \(\alpha\) and \(\gamma\) only
C. \(\beta\) and \(\gamma\) only
D. \(\alpha\), \(\beta\) and \(\gamma\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission — Describe how alpha, beta and gamma radiation are affected by magnetic fields.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Magnetic fields only exert a force on moving charged particles, deflecting their path.
Alpha particles are positively charged and beta particles are negatively charged, so both experience a force and are deflected (in opposite directions).
Gamma radiation is uncharged electromagnetic radiation, so it passes straight through the magnetic field undeflected.
Answer: (A)
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