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Question 1

Which characteristics of living things are demonstrated by phototropism?

  1. growth
  2. nutrition
  3. reproduction
  4. sensitivity

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — Identify the characteristics of living organisms demonstrated by a described response.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Phototropism is the growth of a plant shoot toward a directional light source.
This response involves growth (the shoot bends and elongates unevenly) and sensitivity (the plant detects and responds to the light stimulus).
It does not involve nutrition or reproduction, since no feeding or gamete-related process occurs.
Answer: (B)

Question 2

What is osmosis?

A. the diffusion of sugar molecules from a concentrated solution to a dilute solution through a partially permeable membrane
B. the diffusion of sugar molecules from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution through a partially permeable membrane
C. the diffusion of water molecules from a concentrated solution to a dilute solution through a partially permeable membrane
D. the diffusion of water molecules from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution through a partially permeable membrane

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B3.2: Osmosis — Define osmosis as the net movement of water molecules across a partially permeable membrane.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Osmosis specifically refers to the movement of water molecules, not solute (sugar) molecules.
Water moves through a partially permeable membrane from a region of higher water potential (dilute solution) to lower water potential (concentrated solution).
Answer: (D)

Question 3

A colourless liquid gives the test results shown.

Which nutrients are in the colourless liquid?

A. protein, reducing sugar and starch
B. protein and reducing sugar only
C. protein and starch only
D. protein only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — Identify the food tests used for named nutrients.
Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — Interpret colour-change results of chemical/biological tests.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A purple biuret result confirms protein is present.
A blue (not brick-red) Benedict’s result shows no reducing sugar is present.
A blue/black iodine result confirms starch is present.
Answer: (C)

Question 4

Which type of molecule are enzymes?

A. carbohydrate
B. fat
C. protein
D. starch

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — State that enzymes are proteins that act as biological catalysts.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Enzymes are biological catalysts made up of long chains of amino acids.
This amino-acid chain structure classifies them as proteins, not carbohydrates, fats or starches.
Answer: (C)

Question 5

Which row shows the correct raw materials and products of photosynthesis?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — State the word/symbol equation for photosynthesis.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The overall equation for photosynthesis is \(CO_2 + H_2O \xrightarrow{\text{light}} C_6H_{12}O_6 + O_2\).
Carbon dioxide and water are the raw materials; glucose and oxygen are the products.
Answer: (A)

Question 6

Which row provides the greatest amount of the nutrient needed to move food through the alimentary canal?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.1: Diet — Identify the role of fibre in aiding peristalsis.
Topic B7.2: Digestive system — Relate nutrient content to alimentary canal function.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fibre (roughage) is the nutrient that helps move food through the alimentary canal by aiding peristalsis.
Row C has the highest fibre content (10.9 g per 100 g) compared to the other rows.
Answer: (C)

Question 7

The rates of water uptake and loss are measured in four leaves. The results are shown in the table.

Which leaf is least likely to wilt?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.3: Transpiration — Relate the balance between water uptake and water loss to wilting.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A leaf wilts when water loss (transpiration) exceeds water uptake, causing a net water deficit.
Leaf D is the only one where uptake (15) exceeds loss (10), giving a net water gain.
Answer: (D)

Question 8

An experiment is set up, as shown.

What will happen to the level of coloured liquid at X?

A. It goes down.
B. It goes up.
C. It goes up and then down.
D. It stays the same.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B10.1: Aerobic respiration — Investigate gas volume change due to respiring organisms in a sealed system.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The insects respire, taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.
The soda lime absorbs all the carbon dioxide produced, so the overall gas volume in the tube decreases.
This drop in gas volume pulls the coloured liquid up towards the tube, so the level at X goes down.
Answer: (A)

Question 9

The diagram shows a section through the front of the eye and a front view of the eye.

Which muscles contract when viewing a distant object in dim light?

A. P and R
B. P only
C. Q and R
D. Q only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Coordination and response — Explain how iris muscles control pupil diameter in dim light.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In dim light, the pupil must widen to let in more light, which needs the radial iris muscles to contract.
Distance from focal length (ciliary muscles/lens) is not relevant here; only the muscle controlling pupil dilation matters.
The radial muscle labelled Q contracts to widen the pupil.
Answer: (D)

Question 10

The diagram shows human gamete formation and fertilisation.

Which row is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.4: Sexual reproduction in humans — Identify the sites of gamete production and fertilisation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Male gametes (sperm) are made in the testes, structure V.
Female gametes (eggs) are made in the ovary, structure W.
Fertilisation, structure Z, occurs in the oviduct (fallopian tube).
Answer: (C)

Question 11

Which statement about variation is correct?

A. Continuous variation results only from environmental differences.
B. Continuous variation results only from genetic differences.
C. Discontinuous variation results only from environmental differences.
D. Discontinuous variation results only from genetic differences.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B17.1: Variation — Distinguish between continuous and discontinuous variation and their causes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Discontinuous variation (e.g. blood group, eye colour) is controlled by a single gene, so it results only from genetic differences.
Continuous variation (e.g. height, mass) results from an interaction of both genetic and environmental factors, so options A and B are incorrect.
Answer: (D)

Question 12

The diagram shows a North American food web.

Which organism is both a primary and secondary consumer?

A. birds
B. owl
C. snake
D. squirrel

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — Identify an organism’s trophic level(s) from a food web.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A primary consumer eats producers directly, and a secondary consumer eats primary consumers.
The squirrel eats the beech tree/berries directly (primary consumer role) and is also eaten as prey by other consumers while itself preying on lower-level organisms in some food webs of this type.
Based on the food web links, the squirrel is the organism that occupies both feeding levels.
Answer: (D)

Question 13

The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased during the last 200 years.

What has contributed to this increase?

A. burning large areas of forest
B. increasing use of pesticides
C. planting more crops
D. using fewer fossil fuels

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — State human activities that increase atmospheric CO2.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Burning forests (deforestation) releases stored carbon as CO2 and removes trees that would otherwise absorb \(CO_2\) through photosynthesis.
Planting more crops or using fewer fossil fuels would decrease, not increase, atmospheric \(CO_2\), and pesticide use is unrelated.
Answer: (A)

Question 14

A sample of water contains two useful substances, insoluble chalk and a soluble salt.

Which two processes are used to individually separate the insoluble chalk from the soluble salt and from the water?

A. distillation and chromatography
B. distillation and crystallisation
C. filtration and chromatography
D. filtration and crystallisation

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.4: Separation and purification — Select appropriate separation techniques for mixtures.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Filtration separates the insoluble solid chalk from the liquid, leaving a filtrate containing the dissolved salt and water.
Crystallisation is then used to separate the dissolved soluble salt from the water by evaporating the solvent.
Answer: (D)

Question 15

Which statement about isotopes of the same element is correct?

A. They have the same number of protons but different number of electrons.
B. They have the same number of protons but different number of neutrons.
C. They have the same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
D. They have the same number of neutrons but different number of protons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.3: Isotopes — Define isotopes in terms of numbers of subatomic particles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes are atoms of the same element, so they must have the same number of protons (and electrons, if neutral).
They differ in mass number because they have different numbers of neutrons in the nucleus.
Answer: (B)

Question 16

When dilute sodium hydroxide is added to aqueous iron(II) sulfate, insoluble iron(II) hydroxide and aqueous sodium sulfate are formed.

What is the ionic equation for this reaction?

A. \(Fe^{2+}(aq) + 2OH^-(aq) \rightarrow Fe(OH)_2(s)\)
B. \(Fe^{2+}(aq) + SO_4^{2-}(aq) + 2Na^+(aq) + 2OH^-(aq) \rightarrow Fe(OH)_2(s) + 2Na^+(aq) + SO_4^{2-}(aq)\)
C. \(FeSO_4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) \rightarrow Fe(OH)_2(s) + Na_2SO_4(aq)\)
D. \(SO_4^{2-}(aq) + 2Na^+(aq) \rightarrow Na_2SO_4(aq)\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Qualitative analysis — Write ionic equations, omitting spectator ions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A correct ionic equation removes spectator ions (\(Na^+\) and \(SO_4^{2-}\)) that do not take part in forming the precipitate.
Only \(Fe^{2+}\) and \(OH^-\) combine to form the insoluble precipitate \(Fe(OH)_2\).
This gives \(Fe^{2+}(aq) + 2OH^-(aq) \rightarrow Fe(OH)_2(s)\).
Answer: (A)

Question 17

Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

Which row describes how the number of sodium ions and the number of chloride ions changes during the electrolysis?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — Predict products and ion behaviour during electrolysis of concentrated brine.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
At the cathode, water is preferentially discharged (not \(Na^+\)), producing hydrogen gas, so the number of sodium ions stays the same.
At the anode, chloride ions (\(Cl^-\)) are discharged to form chlorine gas, so the number of chloride ions decreases.
Answer: (C)

Question 18

Which change decreases the frequency of collisions between reactant particles?

A. increasing the concentration of reactant solutions
B. increasing the pressure on gaseous reactants
C. increasing the temperature of the reaction mixture
D. using larger pieces of a solid reactant

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — Explain how surface area, concentration, pressure and temperature affect collision frequency.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Using larger pieces of a solid reactant reduces the exposed surface area for a given mass.
A smaller surface area means fewer particles are available for collisions, decreasing collision frequency and reaction rate.
All the other options increase collision frequency by increasing particle concentration or energy.
Answer: (D)

Question 19

Iron displaces copper ions from its aqueous salts.

An equation for this reaction is shown.

\(Fe + Cu^{2+} \rightarrow Fe^{2+} + Cu\)

What is the reducing agent in this reaction?

A. \(Cu\)
B. \(Cu^{2+}\)
C. \(Fe\)
D. \(Fe^{2+}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — Identify oxidising and reducing agents in electron-transfer reactions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Iron (Fe) loses electrons to form \(Fe^{2+}\), so iron is oxidised.
A substance that is oxidised (loses electrons) is the reducing agent, since it causes another species to be reduced.
Here, Fe reduces \(Cu^{2+}\) to Cu, so Fe is the reducing agent.
Answer: (C)

Question 20

Solid S is added to dilute hydrochloric acid in the apparatus shown.

The universal indicator solution shows the pH decreases.

What is solid S?

A. zinc
B. zinc carbonate
C. zinc hydroxide
D. zinc oxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: The characteristic properties of acids and bases — Identify products of acid–carbonate reactions from observed gas evolution.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The pH of the indicator solution decreasing shows that carbon dioxide gas is being produced and dissolving in it, forming carbonic acid.
Only a reaction between hydrochloric acid and a carbonate releases \(CO_2\) gas as a product.
Zinc carbonate is the solid that reacts with the acid to release \(CO_2\).
Answer: (B)

Question 21

Which statements about the halogens are correct?

  1. They are diatomic metals.
  2. Their atoms have seven outer-shell electrons.
  3. Going down the group, they change from solid to liquid to gas.
  4. Going down the group, they become darker in colour.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.3: Group VII properties — Describe trends in state and colour of the halogens down the group.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Halogens are diatomic non-metals, not metals, so statement 1 is incorrect.
Their atoms have seven outer-shell electrons, so statement 2 is correct.
Going down the group they change from gas to liquid to solid (not solid to liquid to gas), so statement 3 is incorrect.
Going down the group they get darker in colour, so statement 4 is correct.
Answer: (C)

Question 22

Which statement explains why argon is used to fill lamps?

A. It is a gas.
B. It is colourless.
C. It is reactive.
D. It is unreactive.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — Relate the inertness of noble gases to their uses.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Argon is used to fill lamps because it is unreactive and will not react with the hot filament.
An unreactive gas prevents the filament from oxidising and burning out quickly.
Answer: (D)

Question 23

W, X, Y and Z are metals.

Three statements about these metals are listed.

  1. Metal W reduces the oxide of X.
  2. Metal Z is not able to reduce the oxide of W, but it does reduce the oxides of X and Y.
  3. Metal X displaces Y from its aqueous solution.

Which row shows the order of reactivity?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.4: Reactivity series — Deduce the order of reactivity of metals from displacement/reduction data.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Statement 1 shows W is more reactive than X (W reduces X’s oxide).
Statement 2 shows Z is less reactive than W, but more reactive than X and Y.
Statement 3 shows X is more reactive than Y, giving the overall order W > Z > X > Y.
Answer: (B)

Question 24

The change in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere over time is shown.

Which row identifies the cause of this change and an environmental problem caused by this change?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — Link rising atmospheric CO2 to combustion of fossil fuels and climate change.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The graph shows rising atmospheric \(CO_2\) concentration since 1900, driven mainly by combustion of fossil fuels such as gasoline.
Increased atmospheric \(CO_2\) traps more heat (the greenhouse effect), leading to climate change as the environmental problem.
Sulfur combustion causes acid rain, not this \(CO_2\)-driven trend, ruling out options A and C.
Answer: (B)

Question 25

Which equation does not represent a reaction that occurs in the Contact process?

A. \(CaO + SO_2 \rightarrow CaSO_3\)
B. \(H_2S_2O_7 + H_2O \rightarrow 2H_2SO_4\)
C. \(2SO_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2SO_3\)
D. \(S + O_2 \rightarrow SO_2\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — Recall the stages and equations of the Contact process for making sulfuric acid.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The Contact process stages are: burning sulfur to form \(SO_2\), oxidising \(SO_2\) to \(SO_3\), dissolving \(SO_3\) in sulfuric acid to form oleum (\(H_2S_2O_7\)), then diluting with water to give \(H_2SO_4\).
The reaction \(CaO + SO_2 \rightarrow CaSO_3\) describes flue-gas desulfurisation (removing sulfur pollutants), not a step of the Contact process itself.
Answer: (A)

Question 26

Which word equation describes the manufacture of lime from limestone?

A. calcium carbonate → calcium hydroxide + carbon dioxide
B. calcium carbonate → calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
C. calcium hydroxide → calcium oxide + water
D. calcium oxide + carbon dioxide → calcium carbonate

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals and useful compounds — Recall the thermal decomposition of limestone to lime.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Lime (calcium oxide) is manufactured by heating limestone (calcium carbonate) strongly, a thermal decomposition reaction.
This releases carbon dioxide gas, leaving calcium oxide (lime) as the solid product.
Answer: (B)

Question 27

Which row about the formation of condensation polymers is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — Distinguish condensation polymerisation (two monomers, small molecule by-product) from addition polymerisation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Condensation polymerisation uses two different monomers, unlike addition polymerisation which uses one monomer containing a C=C bond.
Condensation polymerisation also produces a small molecule (such as water) alongside the polymer.
Answer: (D)

Question 28

A student tests three identical springs that obey Hooke’s Law. Each spring stretches by 3.0 cm when a 3.0 N load is attached to one end of it.

The three springs are connected together as shown.

A 1.0 N load is placed on the end of the springs. The mass of the springs can be ignored.

What is the total extension of all the springs together?

A. 1.0 cm
B. 3.0 cm
C. 6.0 cm
D. 9.0 cm

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — Apply Hooke’s Law to springs in series.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The springs are in series, so the full 1.0 N load acts on each individual spring.
Using the spring constant from \(k = \frac{3.0\text{ N}}{3.0\text{ cm}} = 1.0\text{ N/cm}\), each spring extends by \(\frac{1.0\text{ N}}{1.0\text{ N/cm}} = 1.0\) cm.
With three springs each extending 1.0 cm, the total extension is \(3 \times 1.0 = 3.0\) cm.
Answer: (B)

Question 29

The diagram shows a crane supporting a load of 6000 N. The horizontal distance between the load and the pivot is x.

The load is balanced about the pivot by a concrete block of mass 10 000 kg. The horizontal distance of the concrete block from the pivot is 2.0 m.

Gravitational field strength g is 10 N/kg.

What is the distance of x?

A. 1.2 m
B. 3.3 m
C. 12 m
D. 33 m

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.2: Turning effect of forces — Apply the principle of moments to balanced systems.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The weight of the concrete block is \(10\,000\text{ kg} \times 10\text{ N/kg} = 100\,000\) N.
At balance, the clockwise moment equals the anticlockwise moment: \(6000 \times x = 100\,000 \times 2.0\).
Solving gives \(x = \frac{200\,000}{6000} \approx 33\) m.
Answer: (D)

Question 30

A rectangular block weighs 1200 N and has the dimensions shown.

What is the minimum pressure that the block can exert on the ground by standing on one of its faces?

A. \(1.0 N/cm^2\)
B. \(8.0 N/cm^2\)
C. \(10 N/cm^2\)
D. \(15 N/cm^2\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.7: Pressure — Calculate pressure using \(P = \frac{F}{A}\) and identify the minimum pressure from the largest contact area.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Minimum pressure occurs when the block rests on its face with the largest area, since \(P = \frac{F}{A}\) and pressure is inversely proportional to area.
The largest face has dimensions \(15\text{ cm} \times 10\text{ cm} = 150\text{ cm}^2\).
So the minimum pressure is \(\frac{1200\text{ N}}{150\text{ cm}^2} = 8.0\) N/cm².
Answer: (B)

Question 31

A brick falls from rest at a height of 45 m above the ground. The acceleration of free fall g is 10 m/s(^2). There is no air resistance.

What is the speed of the brick as it hits the ground?

A. 9.5 m/s
B. 21 m/s
C. 30 m/s
D. 450 m/s

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — Use (v^2 = u^2 + 2as) for uniformly accelerated free fall.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Using \(v^2 = u^2 + 2as\) with \(u = 0\), \(a = 10\text{ m/s}^2\) and \(s = 45\) m.
\(v^2 = 0 + 2 \times 10 \times 45 = 900\), so \(v = \sqrt{900} = 30\) m/s.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

For which energy resource is the Sun the source of all the energy stored?

A. geothermal
B. nuclear fission
C. tidal
D. wind

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.3: Energy resources — Trace the ultimate energy source of renewable and non-renewable resources.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Wind is generated by the uneven heating of the Earth’s atmosphere by the Sun, so all wind energy ultimately originates from solar energy.
Geothermal energy comes from radioactive decay in the Earth’s core, tidal energy comes mainly from the Moon’s gravity, and nuclear fission uses stored nuclear energy in atoms — none of these originate solely from the Sun.
Answer: (D)

Question 33

Which change on its own increases the sensitivity of a liquid-in-glass thermometer?

A. decreasing the internal diameter of the tube
B. increasing the internal diameter of the tube
C. making the thermometer longer
D. making the thermometer shorter

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.2.2: Melting, boiling and evaporation — Relate thermometer sensitivity to capillary tube dimensions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Sensitivity means a large movement of liquid along the tube for a small temperature change.
Decreasing the internal diameter of the capillary tube means the same volume of expanding liquid must travel further along the thinner tube, giving a bigger, more visible movement.
Answer: (A)

Question 34

The amplitude of a sound wave increases, and the frequency of the wave decreases.

What is the effect on the loudness of the sound and on the pitch of the sound?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — Relate wave amplitude to loudness and frequency to pitch.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Loudness of a sound is determined by the amplitude of the wave: a larger amplitude means a greater/louder sound.
Pitch is determined by the frequency of the wave: a lower frequency means a lower pitch.
So increased amplitude and decreased frequency give greater loudness and lower pitch.
Answer: (B)

Question 35

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Which statement describes why this happens?

A. Electrons move from the cloth to the rod.
B. Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C. Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D. Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.1: Electrical charge — Explain charging by friction in terms of electron transfer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Charging by friction always involves the transfer of electrons, never protons, since protons are fixed in the nucleus.
If the rod becomes positively charged, it must have lost electrons to the cloth, leaving an excess of positive charge on the rod.
Answer: (B)

Question 36

Which graph is the current–voltage characteristic of a filament lamp?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — Interpret the non-linear I–V characteristic of a filament lamp.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As voltage across a filament lamp increases, its temperature rises, which increases its resistance.
This means current increases less than proportionally with voltage, producing a curve that flattens out rather than a straight line.
Answer: (D)

Question 37

A lamp is connected in four circuits in turn. The batteries are identical and the resistors are identical.

In which circuit is the lamp the brightest?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — Compare lamp brightness across different series/parallel resistor arrangements.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Lamp brightness increases with more current through it, which happens when the total circuit resistance is lowest.
Placing resistors in parallel (rather than in series) with the lamp reduces the overall resistance the battery has to drive current through, allowing more current to flow through the lamp.
Circuit D has the arrangement that gives the lowest effective resistance in the lamp’s branch, making the lamp brightest.
Answer: (D)

Question 38

The series circuit shown includes a single component hidden in a box. The switch is open.

The switch is now closed and the lamp lights briefly before going off. The switch is now opened, and then closed again. This time the lamp does not light.

Which symbol represents the component in the box?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.1: Circuit diagrams and circuit components — Identify a fuse from its one-time-only breaking behaviour.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The lamp lighting briefly then going off, and never lighting again after the switch is reopened and closed, is the classic behaviour of a fuse blowing.
A fuse melts and permanently breaks the circuit once, unlike a switch, resistor or diode, which would not behave this way.
Answer: (A)

Question 39

The diagrams show a wire carrying a current out of the page.

Which diagram shows the pattern of magnetic field lines near the wire?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.3: Magnetic effect of current — Apply the right-hand grip rule to determine field direction around a straight current-carrying wire.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire forms concentric circles centred on the wire.
Using the right-hand grip rule, with the current coming out of the page, the field circles counterclockwise around the wire.
Answer: (D)

Question 40

Electric and magnetic fields can cause deflection of ionising radiation.

Which statements about the deflection are correct?

1 In an electric field, \(\alpha\)-particles and \(\beta\)-particles are deflected in opposite directions.
2 In a magnetic field, \(\alpha\)-particles and \(\beta\)-particles are deflected in the same direction.
3 \(\gamma\)-rays are not deflected by electric fields or by magnetic fields.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission — Compare deflection behaviour of alpha, beta and gamma radiation in fields.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Alpha particles are positive and beta particles are negative, so in an electric field they are pushed toward opposite plates, deflecting in opposite directions; statement 1 is correct.
In a magnetic field, opposite charges moving in the same direction experience force in opposite directions, so alpha and beta particles deflect in opposite ways, making statement 2 incorrect.
Gamma rays are uncharged electromagnetic radiation, so they are undeflected by both electric and magnetic fields; statement 3 is correct.
Answer: (A)
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