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Question 1

A person throws a ball which their dog runs after and brings back to them.

Which characteristics of living things is the dog showing by this action?

A. growth and nutrition
B. movement and nutrition
C. movement and sensitivity
D. sensitivity and growth

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — identifying movement and sensitivity as life processes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chasing after the ball is movement, a physical response of the whole organism.
Bringing the ball back shows the dog is detecting and responding to a stimulus (sensitivity).
Nutrition and growth are not involved in this behaviour at all.
Answer: (C)

Question 2

The diagram shows a section through a red blood cell.

Which statement is correct for red blood cells?

A. The cell has no nucleus to minimise oxygen binding.
B. The cell membrane has a small surface area in relation to volume.
C. The cytoplasm contains haemoglobin.
D. The flat structure makes it easier to be carried through arteries.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — relating red blood cell structure (no nucleus, biconcave shape) to function.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The cytoplasm of a red blood cell is packed with haemoglobin, which binds oxygen.
The absence of a nucleus increases (not minimises) space for oxygen binding, so A is wrong.
The biconcave shape gives a large surface area to volume ratio and is not related to travel through arteries.
Answer: (C)

Question 3

Which food test requires heating?

A. fat
B. protein
C. reducing sugar
D. starch

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — recalling the food tests and their procedures.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The test for reducing sugar uses Benedict’s solution, which must be heated to form a coloured (brick-red) precipitate.
The fat (ethanol emulsion), protein (biuret) and starch (iodine) tests are all carried out at room temperature.
Answer: (C)

Question 4

The diagram shows the effect of temperature on enzyme activity.

What has increased the enzyme activity between points X and Y?

A. decreased denaturation
B. decreased kinetic energy
C. increased denaturation
D. increased kinetic energy

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — explaining the effect of temperature on enzyme-catalysed reaction rate below the optimum.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Between X and Y the temperature is still rising towards the optimum, so no denaturation has occurred yet.
As temperature rises, enzyme and substrate molecules gain more kinetic energy and move faster.
This causes more frequent successful collisions between enzyme and substrate, increasing the rate of reaction.
Answer: (D)

Question 5

Plants need magnesium ions and nitrate ions.

Which statements correctly show what the plants make using these ions?

  1. Magnesium ions are needed for making amino acids.
  2. Nitrate ions are needed for making amino acids.
  3. Magnesium ions are needed for making chlorophyll.
  4. Nitrate ions are needed for making chlorophyll.

A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. 4 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — roles of magnesium and nitrate ions in plant nutrition.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Nitrate ions provide the nitrogen needed to make amino acids, which are then built into proteins.
Magnesium ions are needed to make chlorophyll, the pigment used in photosynthesis.
So statement 2 (nitrate → amino acids) and statement 3 (magnesium → chlorophyll) are both correct.
Answer: (B)

Question 6

Which statements about mechanical digestion are correct?

  1. Food is broken down into smaller pieces.
  2. Food molecules do not undergo chemical changes.
  3. Soluble molecules are formed from insoluble ones.
  4. Large molecules are broken down to smaller ones.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.3: Digestion — distinguishing mechanical from chemical digestion.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Mechanical digestion physically breaks food into smaller pieces, e.g. by chewing, increasing surface area.
No chemical bonds are broken, so the food molecules themselves are unchanged (statement 2).
Turning large molecules into small soluble ones (statements 3 and 4) is chemical digestion, not mechanical.
Answer: (A)

Question 7

Which row names the substances carried by xylem vessels and the direction of travel?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.1: Xylem and phloem — transport of water and minerals in the xylem.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Xylem vessels transport water and dissolved mineral ions absorbed by the roots.
The direction of flow in xylem is always from the roots up to the leaves, driven by transpiration.
Sucrose is carried by phloem, not xylem, ruling out rows A and B.
Answer: (D)

Question 8

What is the expected concentration of oxygen and the water vapour content in expired air?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B11.1: Gas exchange in humans — composition of inspired versus expired air.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During gas exchange, some of the oxygen in inhaled air (about 21%) is absorbed into the blood, so expired air contains a lower concentration, around 16%.
Air is moistened as it passes through the airways and lungs, so expired air is always saturated with water vapour.
Answer: (A)

Question 9

Which statement about the role of blood vessels in the skin is correct?

A. If the environment is too cold, vasoconstriction of capillaries occurs.
B. If the environment is too cold, vasodilation of arterioles occurs.
C. If the environment is too hot, vasoconstriction of capillaries occurs.
D. If the environment is too hot, vasodilation of arterioles occurs.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.3: Homeostasis — vasodilation and vasoconstriction in temperature regulation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In hot conditions, arterioles supplying skin capillaries dilate (vasodilation), increasing blood flow to the skin surface.
This allows more heat to be lost by radiation, cooling the body down.
In cold conditions the opposite occurs: arterioles constrict (vasoconstriction) to reduce heat loss.
Answer: (D)

Question 10

The table shows some features of insect-pollinated flowers and wind-pollinated flowers.

Which rows are correct?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.3: Sexual reproduction in plants — features of insect- and wind-pollinated flowers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Insect-pollinated flowers have large, often scented petals to attract insects, so statement 2 is correct.
Wind-pollinated flowers have stigmas that dangle outside the flower to catch airborne pollen, so statement 4 is correct.
Statements 1 and 3 describe the features the wrong way round, so they are incorrect.
Answer: (C)

Question 11

What is a difference between a haploid nucleus and a diploid nucleus from the same plant?

A. The diploid nucleus has more chromosomes.
B. The diploid nucleus is the result of meiosis.
C. The haploid nucleus is the result of mitosis.
D. The haploid nucleus has more alleles.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.1: Chromosomes and genes — comparing haploid and diploid chromosome numbers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A diploid nucleus contains two full sets of chromosomes, while a haploid nucleus contains only one set.
So the diploid nucleus always has more chromosomes than the haploid nucleus from the same organism.
Haploid nuclei are produced by meiosis (not mitosis), so B and C are incorrect.
Answer: (A)

Question 12

What is an ecosystem?

A. a network of interconnected food chains in a given area
B. all the members of one species in a given habitat
C. all the organisms and their environment interacting together in a given area
D. all the transfer of energy in a given habitat

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.1: Energy flow — definition of an ecosystem.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An ecosystem is defined as a unit made up of all the organisms in a given area interacting with each other and with the non-living parts of their environment.
Option B describes a population, and A and D only describe parts of an ecosystem (food chains and energy transfer), not the whole system.
Answer: (C)

Question 13

Which row describes the effects of deforestation?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — effects of deforestation on carbon dioxide levels and flooding.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Removing trees means less carbon dioxide is absorbed by photosynthesis, so atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase.
With fewer roots to hold soil together and take up water, rainfall runs off more quickly into rivers, increasing the risk of flooding.
Answer: (D)

Question 14

The colours in an ink are separated by chromatography.

Which diagram shows the assembled apparatus?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.3: Chromatography — correct set-up with the spot of ink above the level of the solvent.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For chromatography to work correctly, the spot of ink must be placed above the level of the solvent.
If the solvent covers the ink spot, the ink dissolves straight into the solvent rather than being carried up the paper.
Only diagram C shows the spot correctly positioned above the solvent surface.
Answer: (C)

Question 15

Which diagram represents a mixture of an element and a compound?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures — identifying particle diagrams of elements, compounds and mixtures.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An element is shown as particles of only one type (one colour/shape), while a compound is shown as particles containing two or more different atoms joined together.
A mixture of an element and a compound must show separate single-type particles alongside separate joined two-atom particles, not chemically combined.
Diagram B is the only one showing this combination correctly.
Answer: (B)

Question 16

X and Y are isotopes of the same element.

Which statement about X and Y is correct?

A. They have the same nucleon number but different numbers of protons.
B. They have the same number of neutrons but different numbers of electrons.
C. They have the same atomic number but different numbers of electrons.
D. They have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.3: Isotopes — definition of isotopes in terms of protons and neutrons.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes are atoms of the same element, so by definition they have the same number of protons (same atomic number).
Isotopes differ in the number of neutrons in the nucleus, which changes their nucleon (mass) number.
Since the number of protons is unchanged, the number of electrons is also the same, ruling out B and C.
Answer: (D)

Question 17

Nonane, \(C_{9}H_{20}\), burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water.

The equation for this reaction is shown.

\(C_{9}H_{20} + 14O_{2} → 9CO_{2} + 10H_{2}O\)

What is the mass of oxygen required for the complete combustion of 64 g of nonane?

A. 32 g
B. 224 g
C. 396 g
D. 448 g

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — using molar masses and reacting ratios in a balanced equation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The molar mass of \( C_9H_{20} \) is \( (9\times12)+(20\times1)=128 \text{ g/mol} \), so 64 g is \( \frac{64}{128}=0.5 \) mol of nonane.
From the equation, each mole of nonane needs 14 mol of \( O_2 \), so 0.5 mol needs \( 0.5\times14=7 \) mol of \( O_2 \).
Mass of oxygen \( = 7 \times 32 = 224 \text{ g} \) (using \( M_r(O_2)=32 \)).
Answer: (B)

Question 18

Which statement correctly describes how aluminium is changed during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide?

A. At the anode, aluminium ions gain electrons and so are oxidised.
B. At the anode, aluminium ions lose electrons and so are oxidised.
C. At the cathode, aluminium ions gain electrons and so are reduced.
D. At the cathode, aluminium ions lose electrons and so are reduced.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — reactions occurring at the cathode during electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Positively charged aluminium ions, \( Al^{3+} \), are attracted to the negative cathode.
At the cathode each \( Al^{3+} \) ion gains three electrons: \( Al^{3+} + 3e^- \rightarrow Al \).
Gaining electrons is reduction, so this happens at the cathode, not the anode.
Answer: (C)

Question 19

Dilute hydrochloric acid is reacted with magnesium. The reaction is repeated using a higher concentration of acid.

Which statement about the second reaction is not correct?

A. The rate of reaction is greater.
B. The particles have more energy.
C. There are more frequent collisions between reacting particles.
D. There are more reacting particles.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — effect of concentration on collision frequency and reaction rate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A higher concentration means more acid particles are packed into the same volume, giving more frequent collisions and a faster rate — so A, C and D are all correct effects.
Concentration does not change the energy of individual particles; only a temperature increase does that.
So the statement that particles “have more energy” is the one that is not correct.
Answer: (B)

Question 20

A piece of damp blue litmus paper is put in a test-tube of a gas. The litmus paper turns red and then changes to white.

What is the gas?

A. ammonia
B. carbon dioxide
C. chlorine
D. oxygen

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — test for chlorine gas using damp litmus paper.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chlorine gas dissolves in the moisture on the litmus paper to form an acidic solution, which turns the blue litmus red.
Chlorine then bleaches the litmus paper, turning it white.
Ammonia turns damp red litmus blue (not blue litmus red), and CO₂ and oxygen do not bleach litmus at all.
Answer: (C)

Question 21

The elements in Group I of the Periodic Table are metals.

What are the trends as the group is descended?

A. decrease in melting point and less reactive with water
B. decrease in melting point and more reactive with water
C. increase in melting point and less reactive with water
D. increase in melting point and more reactive with water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.2: Group I properties — trends in melting point and reactivity with water down Group I.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Going down Group I, the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost, so reactivity with water increases.
Melting points decrease down the group as the metallic bonding gets weaker with increasing atomic size.
Answer: (B)

Question 22

Why is argon used in lamps?

A. It is heavier than air.
B. It is lighter than air.
C. It is reactive.
D. It is unreactive.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.5: Noble gases — unreactivity of argon and its use in filament lamps.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Argon is a noble gas with a full outer shell of electrons, making it chemically unreactive.
This unreactivity means it does not react with the hot filament in a lamp, preventing it from burning out quickly.
Answer: (D)

Question 23

Which metal can only be extracted from its ore using electrolysis?

A. calcium
B. copper
C. iron
D. zinc

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals — choosing the extraction method based on position in the reactivity series.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Metals more reactive than carbon, such as calcium, cannot be displaced from their ores by carbon reduction.
These very reactive metals must instead be extracted by electrolysis of their molten compounds.
Copper, iron and zinc are all less reactive than carbon and can be extracted by heating with carbon.
Answer: (A)

Question 24

Which row shows the conditions used for making ammonia by the Haber process?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction (closest match)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The standard industrial conditions for the Haber process are a pressure of 250 atm, a temperature of 450°C, and an iron catalyst.
These conditions balance a reasonably fast rate of reaction with an acceptable equilibrium yield of ammonia.
Answer: (A)

Question 25

Four reaction equations involving sulfur and its compounds are shown.

  1. \( S + O_2 \rightarrow SO_2 \)
  2. \( SO_2 + H_2O \rightarrow H_2SO_3 \)
  3. \( 2H_2SO_3 + O_2 \rightarrow 2H_2SO_4 \)
  4. \( H_2SO_4 + SO_3 \rightarrow H_2S_2O_7 \)

Which reactions take place in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate (closest match, via sulfur/sulfur dioxide)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In the Contact process, sulfur is first burned to form sulfur dioxide (reaction 1).
Sulfur trioxide is then dissolved in concentrated sulfuric acid (not water directly) to form oleum, which reacts with water — this is reaction 4, \( H_2SO_4 + SO_3 \rightarrow H_2S_2O_7 \).
Reactions 2 and 3 describe a different, non-standard route via sulfurous acid, which is not the industrial process.
Answer: (B)

Question 26

Which formula represents but-1-ene?

A. \( CH_3CH{=}CH_2 \)
B. \( CH_3CH_2CH_2CH_3 \)
C. \( CH_3CH_2CH{=}CH_2 \)
D. \( CH_3CH{=}CHCH_3 \)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.2: Naming organic compounds — identifying the structural formula of but-1-ene.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
But-1-ene has 4 carbon atoms with the C=C double bond starting at carbon 1.
This gives the structure \( CH_3CH_2CH{=}CH_2 \), with the double bond between the first and second carbons.
Option D is but-2-ene (double bond in the middle), and B is butane (no double bond).
Answer: (C)

Question 27

The structure of the monomer chloroethene is shown.

What is a part of the structure of the addition polymer formed from this monomer?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.7: Polymers — repeat unit structure of an addition polymer (PVC) from its monomer.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In addition polymerisation, the C=C double bond in each chloroethene monomer opens up to form a single bond.
Monomers then join end-to-end through these single bonds, keeping the chlorine atom attached to every other carbon.
The repeat unit must show single C–C bonds throughout the backbone with one Cl per carbon, which matches diagram A.
Answer: (A)

Question 28

The graph shows the variation of speed with time for an object moving in a straight line.

Which statement about the motion of the object is correct?

A. At time 0, the acceleration is zero.
B. The acceleration decreases with time.
C. The gradient of the line is equal to the distance travelled.
D. The velocity of the object decreases with time.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.2: Motion — interpreting the gradient of a speed–time graph.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The gradient of a speed–time graph represents acceleration, and the curve is steep at first then flattens out over time.
A decreasing gradient means the acceleration is getting smaller as time goes on, even though the speed itself keeps increasing.
The gradient equals acceleration, not distance travelled (distance is the area under the graph), ruling out C.
Answer: (B)

Question 29

Diagram 1 shows a spring with its length indicated. Diagram 2 shows the same spring with a 20 N load hung from it, and the new length of the spring.

The spring obeys Hooke’s Law.

Which graph is the extension–load graph for the spring?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5.1: Effects of forces — Hooke’s Law and the extension–load graph for a spring.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The extension of the spring is \( 25 – 15 = 10 \text{ cm} \) for a 20 N load, so extension is directly proportional to load, as Hooke’s Law requires.
This means the graph must be a straight line through the origin.
Only diagram D shows a straight line through the origin passing through the point (20, 10).
Answer: (D)

Question 30

A force of 4.0 N acts on an object for 4.0 s. The object moves a distance of 8.0 m in the direction of the force.

What is the work done by the force?

A. 1.0 J
B. 2.0 J
C. 16 J
D. 32 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.2: Work — calculating work done using \( W = F \times d \).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Work done is calculated as \( W = F \times d \), using only the force and the distance moved in the direction of the force.
\( W = 4.0 \text{ N} \times 8.0 \text{ m} = 32 \text{ J} \).
The time of 4.0 s given in the question is not needed for this calculation.
Answer: (D)

Question 31

An electric motor transfers 4000 J of electrical energy to useful energy and 12 000 J of electrical energy is wasted.

What is the efficiency of the motor?

A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 75%

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6.4: Power — calculating efficiency as a percentage of useful energy output.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Total electrical energy input \( = 4000 + 12\,000 = 16\,000 \text{ J} \).
Efficiency \( = \dfrac{\text{useful energy output}}{\text{total energy input}} \times 100 = \dfrac{4000}{16\,000}\times100 \).
This gives an efficiency of 25%.
Answer: (A)

Question 32

The pressure of a gas in a container is caused by gas molecules colliding with the walls.

The pressure can be increased by heating the gas or by reducing its volume.

Which row explains why the pressure increases in each case?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.1.3: Pressure changes — kinetic particle explanation of gas pressure changes with temperature and volume.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Heating the gas gives the molecules more kinetic energy, so they move faster and hit the walls harder and more often.
Reducing the volume packs the same number of molecules into a smaller space, so they hit the walls more frequently, but each collision is no harder since their speed hasn’t changed.
Answer: (B)

Question 33

Which statement explains why metals are better thermal conductors than non-metals?

A. Atoms in metals are fixed in a lattice by bonds.
B. Atoms in metals vibrate about fixed positions.
C. Metals contain free electrons.
D. Metals contain free protons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3.1: Conduction — role of free (delocalised) electrons in metallic thermal conduction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Metals contain free (delocalised) electrons that can move freely through the metal lattice.
These electrons gain kinetic energy at the hot end and transfer it quickly through the metal by colliding with other electrons and ions.
Non-metals lack these free electrons, so they can only transfer energy by slower atomic vibrations.
Answer: (C)

Question 34

The sound heard from the siren of a police car becomes quieter and lower pitched as the car moves away from an observer.

Which row describes what happens to the amplitude and frequency of the sound wave heard by the observer?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — Doppler effect on amplitude (loudness) and frequency (pitch) as a source moves away.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As the car moves further away, less sound energy reaches the observer, so the amplitude (loudness) decreases.
Because the source is moving away, the sound waves are stretched out, giving a lower frequency (the Doppler effect), which is heard as a lower pitch.
Answer: (A)

Question 35

A bar magnet is brought near to a metal rod. The metal rod is attracted to the magnet.

The magnet is then turned around so that the N-pole is on the right.

The magnet is again brought near to the metal rod and is again attracted to the magnet.

What could the metal rod be?

A. another bar magnet
B. a piece of aluminium
C. a piece of copper
D. a piece of iron

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.1: Simple phenomena of magnetism — distinguishing magnetic materials from magnets by attraction regardless of pole orientation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The rod is attracted no matter which pole of the magnet faces it, so it cannot itself be a permanent magnet (a magnet would be repelled by one pole).
This rules out A, and it must instead be a magnetic material such as iron, which is always attracted to either pole.
Aluminium and copper are not magnetic materials, so they would not be attracted at all.
Answer: (D)

Question 36

Four resistors are connected into circuits. The current in each resistor and the potential difference (p.d.) across each resistor are shown.

Which resistor has a resistance of 2.0 Ω?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — calculating resistance using \( R = V / I \).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Resistance is calculated using \( R = \dfrac{V}{I} \) for each row.
For row D: \( R = \dfrac{8.0}{4.0} = 2.0\ \Omega \), which matches.
Checking the others: A gives 0.5 Ω, B gives 0.5 Ω, and C gives 0.5 Ω, so only D gives 2.0 Ω.
Answer: (D)

Question 37

Two lamps can be connected to a battery either in series or in parallel.

Which statement is not a benefit of connecting two lamps in parallel rather than in series?

A. If one lamp breaks, the other lamp stays lit.
B. The lamps are brighter.
C. The lamps can be controlled individually using switches.
D. There is a smaller current in the battery.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3.2: Series and parallel circuits — comparing benefits of parallel over series connections.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In parallel, each lamp gets the full battery voltage, stays lit independently if the other breaks, and can be switched individually — so A, B and C are genuine benefits.
However, in parallel the total current drawn from the battery is actually larger (it’s the sum of the branch currents), not smaller.
So “smaller current in the battery” is not a real benefit of parallel connection.
Answer: (D)

Question 38

What is the purpose of a fuse in an electric circuit?

A. to make the circuit more efficient
B. to protect the circuit from damage by a large current
C. to provide a constant current in the circuit
D. to provide a constant potential difference (p.d.) across the circuit

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.4: Electrical safety — function of a fuse in protecting circuits.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse contains a thin wire that melts and breaks the circuit if the current becomes too large.
This protects the circuit and appliance from damage or fire caused by excessive current, such as from a fault.
A fuse does not regulate current or voltage to a constant value — it simply disconnects the circuit when overloaded.
Answer: (B)

Question 39

A current-carrying wire is placed between the poles P and Q of a magnet, as shown.

The direction of the current is shown.

A force acts on the wire upwards, as shown.

What is the direction of the magnetic field?

A. from P to Q
B. from Q to P
C. towards the bottom of the page
D. towards the top of the page

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5.4: Force on a current-carrying conductor — applying the left-hand (motor) rule to find field direction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Using Fleming’s left-hand rule, with the thumb (force) pointing up and the second finger (current) in the given direction, the First finger (field) must point from P to Q.
This orientation of the three mutually perpendicular directions is what produces an upward force on the wire.
Answer: (A)

Question 40

The diagram shows a beam of β-particles and a beam of γ-rays entering the electric field between two charged plates.

What is the effect of the electric field on each of the beams?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: The three types of nuclear emission — behaviour of β-particles and γ-rays in an electric field.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Beta particles are negatively charged, so they are attracted towards the positive plate and deflected in that direction.
Gamma rays have no charge and no mass in the usual sense, so they pass straight through an electric field undeflected.
Answer: (C)
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