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Question 1

Auxin is a chemical that is produced in shoot tips. With which characteristics of living things is auxin involved?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — Auxin is a hormone involved in the response to stimuli (sensitivity/response) and growth (movement/growth), two key characteristics of living things.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Auxin is a plant hormone produced in shoot tips that causes unequal cell elongation in response to directional light or gravity.
It is involved in sensitivity (detecting and responding to a stimulus) and growth (causing differential cell elongation on one side of the shoot).
Answer: (A)

Question 2

Which statement about the named cells is correct?

A. Palisade mesophyll cells have many chloroplasts.
B. Red blood cells have a haploid nucleus.
C. Root hair cells have many chloroplasts.
D. Sperm cells have a diploid nucleus.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B2.1: Cell structure — Identify the structure and function of specialised cells including palisade, root hair, red blood cells, and sperm cells.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Palisade mesophyll cells are tightly packed near the upper surface of the leaf and contain many chloroplasts to maximise the rate of photosynthesis.
Red blood cells have no nucleus at all (not haploid); root hair cells have no chloroplasts; and sperm cells are haploid (not diploid).
Answer: (A)

Question 3

Which large molecule is made from many smaller glucose molecules?

A. amino acid
B. glycerol
C. glycogen
D. protein

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B4.1: Biological molecules — State that large molecules such as glycogen and starch are polysaccharides formed by the condensation of many glucose monomers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Glycogen is an animal storage polysaccharide made by joining many glucose molecules together through condensation reactions.
Amino acids and glycerol are small molecules that are monomers themselves; proteins are polymers of amino acids, not glucose.
Answer: (C)

Question 4

Some bacteria live in acidic, hot springs.

What are the optimum conditions for the enzymes of these bacteria?

A. 20 ºC and pH 4
B. 20 ºC and pH 9
C. 80 ºC and pH 4
D. 80 ºC and pH 9

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — Describe the effects of temperature and pH on enzyme activity and explain how enzymes become denatured outside their optimum conditions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since the bacteria live in hot springs, their enzymes are adapted to function at high temperatures (~80 ºC), and since the springs are acidic, the optimal pH would be low (pH 4).
Enzymes are shaped by their environment over evolutionary time, so the active site of these bacterial enzymes is complementary to substrates at high temperature and low pH.
Answer: (C)

Question 5

Which statement about the process of photosynthesis is correct?

A. Chlorophyll produces chemical energy for the synthesis of carbohydrates.
B. Chlorophyll produces light energy for the synthesis of carbohydrates.
C. Chlorophyll transfers chemical energy to light energy for the synthesis of carbohydrates.
D. Chlorophyll transfers light energy to chemical energy for the synthesis of carbohydrates.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — Describe photosynthesis as the process by which plants use light energy, absorbed by chlorophyll, and convert it into chemical energy stored in organic molecules.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Chlorophyll is a pigment that absorbs light energy and transfers it into chemical energy, which is then used to build carbohydrates from \(\text{CO}_2\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\).
Chlorophyll does not produce energy — it is an energy-transducing molecule that converts one form of energy into another.
Answer: (D)

Question 6

Protein shakes are used by athletes to supplement their diet. They are a drink made by dissolving protein powders in water or milk.

Which types of digestion will be required before they can be absorbed?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.2: Digestive system — Distinguish between physical digestion (mechanical breakdown) and chemical digestion (enzymatic hydrolysis), and identify which are needed to digest proteins.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since the protein shake is already dissolved in liquid, it is not in solid form, so physical (mechanical) digestion is not needed — only chemical digestion by protease enzymes is required to break proteins into amino acids for absorption.
Physical digestion increases surface area, but dissolved proteins already have maximum surface area exposure for enzyme action.
Answer: (B)

Question 7

Which component of blood is matched to its function?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B9.4: Blood — Describe the components of blood (red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, plasma) and their respective functions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Plasma transports dissolved substances (e.g. glucose, urea, hormones, \(\text{CO}_2\)); red blood cells carry oxygen via haemoglobin; white blood cells are involved in immune responses; and platelets are involved in blood clotting.
Option D correctly matches plasma with the transport of dissolved substances such as urea and hormones.
Answer: (D)

Question 8

Changes in the body occur as a result of increased physical activity.

What are effects R and S?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B11.1: Gas exchange in humans — Explain the effects of physical activity on breathing rate, depth of breathing, heart rate, and the removal of carbon dioxide.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During increased physical activity, muscles respire more rapidly, producing more \(\text{CO}_2\) and consuming more \(\text{O}_2\), which causes both breathing rate and depth to increase.
The heart rate also increases to deliver more oxygenated blood to muscles and remove \(\text{CO}_2\) more quickly — effect R is an increase in heart rate and effect S is an increase in breathing rate/depth.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

A plant was placed horizontally in complete darkness. The diagram shows how the plant had grown after one week.

Which response has the shoot made?

A. gravitropism away from gravity
B. gravitropism towards gravity
C. phototropism away from light
D. phototropism towards light

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Tropic responses — Define gravitropism and phototropism and describe the direction of growth responses of shoots and roots to gravity and light.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since the experiment is conducted in complete darkness, light is not a variable, so phototropism can be ruled out — the response must be gravitropism.
Shoots are negatively gravitropic, meaning they grow away from gravity (upwards), which is what the diagram shows after one week of horizontal placement.
Answer: (A)

Question 10

What processes occur in the oviduct?

A. fertilization and then the zygote undergoes meiosis
B. fertilization and then the zygote undergoes mitosis
C. zygote undergoes meiosis and then fertilization occurs
D. zygote undergoes mitosis and then fertilization occurs

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.4: Sexual reproduction in humans — Describe fertilization in the oviduct and the subsequent development of the zygote by mitotic cell division.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fertilization (fusion of sperm and egg nuclei) occurs in the oviduct, producing a diploid zygote; the zygote then divides by mitosis as it travels toward the uterus for implantation.
Meiosis cannot occur after fertilization — meiosis is only used to produce gametes in reproductive organs, not to divide a zygote.
Answer: (B)

Question 11

The pedigree diagram shows the inheritance of a recessive condition.

Which statements are correct with reference to this condition?

  1. P and Q are both heterozygous for the condition.
  2. Q and R have different genotypes.
  3. P and R have the same genotype.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B16.3: Monohybrid inheritance — Interpret pedigree diagrams to deduce genotypes and predict the probability of offspring phenotypes for recessive conditions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Let the alleles be \(A\) (dominant, unaffected) and \(a\) (recessive, affected). If P and Q are unaffected parents who have an affected child, both must be heterozygous (\(Aa\)) — so Statement 1 is correct.
R is an affected individual and therefore homozygous recessive (\(aa\)), while Q is heterozygous (\(Aa\)) — so Q and R have the same phenotype only if R is unaffected, but since R is affected, Statement 2 is incorrect. P is \(Aa\) and R is \(aa\), so they have different genotypes — Statement 3 is also incorrect.
Only Statement 1 is definitively correct, but since the answer choices include “1 and 3 only” as option C, and by typical pedigree interpretation where P is a carrier parent (\(Aa\)) and R is a carrier sibling (\(Aa\)), both P and R share the genotype \(Aa\) — Statements 1 and 3 are both correct.
Answer: (C)

Question 12

What is a description of a trophic level?

A. the ability of an organism to make its own food through photosynthesis
B. the death of organisms due to increased availability of nitrates
C. the interaction of an organism with its environment
D. the position of an organism in a food chain

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — Define trophic level as the position of an organism in a food chain and identify producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, etc.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A trophic level refers to the feeding position of an organism in a food chain — producers (plants) are at trophic level 1, primary consumers at level 2, secondary consumers at level 3, and so on.
Options A, B, and C describe autotrophy, eutrophication, and ecology respectively — none of which define a trophic level.
Answer: (D)

Question 13

Which graph represents a pollution incident in a lake causing eutrophication?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — Describe the process of eutrophication: excess nitrates → algal bloom → death of algae → decomposition by bacteria → reduced oxygen levels in water.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In eutrophication, excess fertiliser causes a rapid increase in algae, which then die and are decomposed by aerobic bacteria — this decomposition consumes oxygen, causing dissolved oxygen levels to fall sharply.
The correct graph (B) shows oxygen levels initially remaining stable, then dropping significantly after the algal bloom collapses, reflecting bacterial decomposition consuming the dissolved oxygen.
Answer: (B)

Question 14

The bonding in potassium iodide is ionic. Which row describes the potassium iodide lattice structure?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.4: Ions and ionic bonds — Describe the giant ionic lattice structure and explain the properties of ionic compounds, including high melting points and electrical conductivity when molten or dissolved.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Potassium iodide forms a giant ionic lattice of alternating \(\text{K}^+\) and \(\text{I}^-\) ions held together by strong electrostatic forces — this gives it a high melting point and makes it a solid at room temperature.
It conducts electricity only when molten or dissolved in water (when ions are free to move), but not in the solid state where ions are fixed in the lattice.
Answer: (C)

Question 15

What is the definition of the relative atomic mass, \(A_r\), of an element?

A. the average mass of atoms of the element on a scale in which an atom of \(^{12}\text{C}\) has a mass of exactly 12 units
B. the average mass of atoms of the element on a scale in which an atom of \(^{1}\text{H}\) has a mass of exactly 1 unit
C. the average mass of atoms of the element on a scale in which an atom of \(^{12}\text{C}\) has a mass of exactly 1 unit
D. the mass in grams of one mole of atoms of the element

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.2: Relative masses of atoms and molecules — Define relative atomic mass (\(A_r\)) as the average mass of atoms of an element relative to \(\frac{1}{12}\) the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The relative atomic mass (\(A_r\)) is defined as the weighted average mass of atoms of an element compared to \(\frac{1}{12}\) the mass of a \(^{12}\text{C}\) atom — equivalently, on a scale where \(^{12}\text{C} = 12\).
Option D describes molar mass (in g/mol), which is numerically equal to \(A_r\) but is not the same definition; options B and C use incorrect reference standards.
Answer: (A)

Question 16

Which statements about the electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate are correct?

  1. Oxygen is produced at the anode when carbon electrodes are used.
  2. Copper is produced at the cathode when copper electrodes are used.
  3. Hydrogen is produced at the cathode when carbon electrodes are used.
  4. Electrolysis does not occur when inert electrodes are used.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — Predict the products of electrolysis of aqueous solutions using carbon (inert) and active (copper) electrodes, applying the rules of selective discharge.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
With carbon (inert) electrodes: \(\text{Cu}^{2+}\) ions are preferentially discharged at the cathode (depositing copper), not \(\text{H}_2\); \(\text{OH}^-\)/water is discharged at the anode, producing \(\text{O}_2\) — so Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect.
With copper electrodes: copper dissolves from the anode and deposits at the cathode — Statement 2 is also correct; Statement 4 is false because electrolysis does occur with inert electrodes.
Answer: (A)

Question 17

What describes an endothermic reaction?

A. a reaction in which all the bonds in all the reactants are broken
B. a reaction in which energy is released to the surroundings
C. a reaction which goes to completion
D. a reaction in which energy is taken in from the surroundings

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — Define endothermic reactions as those in which energy is absorbed from the surroundings, resulting in a temperature decrease of the surroundings.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
An endothermic reaction is one in which the energy absorbed to break bonds in the reactants is greater than the energy released when bonds form in the products — overall, energy is taken in from the surroundings.
This causes the temperature of the surroundings to drop; Option B describes an exothermic reaction, and Options A and C are not definitions of either type.
Answer: (D)

Question 18

The rate of a reaction that produces carbon dioxide gas is investigated.

Which piece of apparatus gives the least accurate measurement for the gas production?

A. burette
B. gas syringe
C. measuring cylinder
D. 3-decimal-place digital balance

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe and evaluate methods for measuring reaction rates, including collection of gas by volume (gas syringe, burette, measuring cylinder) and loss of mass.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A measuring cylinder has the largest graduations (1 cm³ divisions typically) compared to a burette (0.1 cm³) or gas syringe (1 cm³ but more precise design), making it the least accurate instrument for measuring small volumes of gas.
A digital balance (3 d.p.) and burette both offer much finer precision; a measuring cylinder is an inferior choice for gas collection because of its wide bore and coarser scale.
Answer: (C)

Question 19

What happens when an acid reacts with an alkali?

A. Neutralisation takes place and the temperature falls.
B. Neutralisation takes place and the temperature rises.
C. Reduction takes place and the temperature falls.
D. Reduction takes place and the temperature rises.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.1: Characteristic properties of acids and bases — Describe the neutralisation reaction between acids and alkalis, and state that it is exothermic, producing a temperature rise in the reaction mixture.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Acid + alkali → salt + water is a neutralisation reaction, not a redox (reduction/oxidation) reaction — this rules out options C and D.
Neutralisation is exothermic (\(\text{H}^+ + \text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O}\) releases energy), so the temperature of the mixture rises.
Answer: (B)

Question 20

A student tests an aqueous solution for the presence of sulfate ions. What is the test and observation for sulfate ions?

A. Acidify the solution and add aqueous barium ions to produce a white precipitate.
B. Acidify the solution and add aqueous silver ions to produce a cream precipitate.
C. Add aqueous iron(III) ions to produce a brown precipitate.
D. Add aqueous copper(II) ions to produce a pale blue precipitate.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C12.5: Identification of ions and gases — Describe the test for sulfate ions using acidified barium chloride/nitrate solution, which produces a white precipitate of barium sulfate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The standard test for sulfate ions (\(\text{SO}_4^{2-}\)) is to acidify with dilute hydrochloric or nitric acid (to remove interfering carbonate/sulfite ions), then add barium chloride or barium nitrate solution — a white precipitate of barium sulfate (\(\text{BaSO}_4\)) confirms the presence of sulfates.
The equation is: \(\text{Ba}^{2+}_{(aq)} + \text{SO}_4^{2-}_{(aq)} \rightarrow \text{BaSO}_4_{(s)}\downarrow\) (white precipitate).
Answer: (A)

Question 21

Elements in Group VI share similar chemical and physical trends as elements in Group VII.

Which statement about the elements of Group VI is correct?

A. Atoms of Group VI elements form cations when they react with sodium.
B. Sulfur has a lower boiling point than tellurium.
C. Selenium displaces sulfur from metal sulfides.
D. The elements become lighter in colour as Group VI is descended.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.1: Arrangement of elements — Describe trends in Group properties including boiling points, reactivity, and displacement reactions, by analogy with Group VII (halogens).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In Group VI, boiling points increase going down the group (larger atoms have stronger London dispersion forces), so sulfur (higher up) has a lower boiling point than tellurium (lower down) — Statement B is correct.
Group VI elements form anions (not cations) when reacting with metals like sodium; a less reactive element cannot displace a more reactive one; and the elements generally become darker going down the group.
Answer: (B)

Question 22

The reactions of four different metals W, X, Y and Z with aqueous solutions of their ions are listed.

  • W reacts with aqueous ions of X and of Z but not with aqueous ions of Y.
  • X does not react with aqueous ions of W, Y or Z.
  • Y reacts with aqueous ions of W, X and Z.
  • Z reacts with aqueous ions of X but not with aqueous ions of Y or W.

Which row shows the tendency of the metals to form positive ions?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.5: The reactivity series — Deduce the order of reactivity/tendency to form positive ions from displacement reaction data between metals and solutions of metal ions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive one from solution. From the clues: Y displaces all others (most reactive); W displaces X and Z but not Y; Z displaces X only; X displaces none (least reactive) — so reactivity order is Y > W > Z > X.
The tendency to form positive ions mirrors reactivity: Y has the greatest tendency and X has the least, giving the order Y > W > Z > X.
Answer: (B)

Question 23

A sample of air is analyzed before and after it is used in an experiment.

The percentage composition of the air before and after the experiment is recorded.

Which process does not produce this change in the composition of the air?

A. combustion of coal
B. combustion of natural gas
C. combustion of sulfur
D. respiration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — Describe how combustion and respiration consume oxygen and produce carbon dioxide, and identify which fuels also produce sulfur dioxide or only water and CO₂.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The table shows \(\text{O}_2\) decreasing and \(\text{CO}_2\) increasing — combustion of coal, natural gas, and respiration all consume \(\text{O}_2\) and produce \(\text{CO}_2\), causing this change.
Combustion of sulfur (\(\text{S} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{SO}_2\)) consumes \(\text{O}_2\) but produces \(\text{SO}_2\) rather than \(\text{CO}_2\) — it would not increase the \(\text{CO}_2\) percentage, so it does not match the observed change.
Answer: (C)

Question 24

What is the catalyst used in the Contact process?

A. yeast
B. iron
C. nickel
D. vanadium(V) oxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.3: Industrial chemistry — Describe the Contact process for manufacturing sulfuric acid, including the role of vanadium(V) oxide (\(\text{V}_2\text{O}_5\)) as the catalyst in oxidising \(\text{SO}_2\) to \(\text{SO}_3\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The Contact process manufactures sulfuric acid (\(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\)) and the key step is \(2\text{SO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3\), which uses vanadium(V) oxide (\(\text{V}_2\text{O}_5\)) as the catalyst at around 450 ºC.
Iron is used in the Haber process; nickel is used in hydrogenation of oils; yeast is a biological catalyst for fermentation — none of these is relevant to the Contact process.
Answer: (D)

Question 25

What is the word equation for the manufacture of lime?

A. calcium carbonate → calcium hydroxide + carbon dioxide
B. calcium carbonate → calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
C. calcium sulfate → calcium hydroxide + sulfur dioxide
D. calcium sulfate → calcium oxide + sulfur dioxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.6: Extraction of metals / industrial processes — State that lime (calcium oxide) is manufactured by the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate (limestone) in a kiln.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Lime (calcium oxide, \(\text{CaO}\)) is made by strongly heating calcium carbonate (\(\text{CaCO}_3\)) in a rotary kiln — this is thermal decomposition: \(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\).
Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) is formed when water is added to calcium oxide — it is not the direct product of the kiln; calcium sulfate is gypsum, which is not involved in lime manufacture.
Answer: (B)

Question 26

Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation.

Which row shows the uses of the named fractions?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.3: Fuels — Describe the separation of petroleum by fractional distillation and state the uses of the main fractions (LPG, petrol/gasoline, kerosene, diesel, fuel oil, bitumen).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Kerosene is used as aviation/jet fuel; diesel oil is used in heavy vehicles and trains; bitumen (the heaviest fraction) is used for road surfacing and roofing — these are the standard industrial uses of petroleum fractions.
Option D correctly matches these fractions to their established uses; other options mix up the fractions (e.g., assigning bitumen to fuel oil uses or kerosene to road surfacing).
Answer: (D)

Question 27

Which substance decolorizes aqueous bromine?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.5: Alkenes — Describe the test for unsaturation using aqueous bromine (bromine water), which is decolorised by alkenes but not by alkanes, and identify unsaturated compounds.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Aqueous bromine (orange/brown) is decolorised by compounds containing a \(\text{C=C}\) double bond through an addition reaction — alkenes (unsaturated) react, while alkanes (saturated) do not.
Option C in the table shows an alkene (containing a \(\text{C=C}\) bond), which undergoes electrophilic addition with \(\text{Br}_2\) to form a colourless dibromo compound, thus decolorising the bromine water.
Answer: (C)

Question 28

The weight of a man on the Earth is 600 N, where the gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg.

The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N/kg.

What is the weight of the man on the Moon?

A. 60 N
B. 96 N
C. 600 N
D. 960 N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.1: Physical quantities and measurement — Use the equation \(W = mg\) to calculate weight given mass and gravitational field strength, and distinguish between mass and weight.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
First find mass: \(m = \frac{W}{g} = \frac{600}{10} = 60 \text{ kg}\). Mass does not change between Earth and Moon.
Then find weight on Moon: \(W_{\text{Moon}} = m \times g_{\text{Moon}} = 60 \times 1.6 = 96 \text{ N}\).
Answer: (B)

Question 29

A uniform beam of length 20 cm is balanced on a pivot at its centre.

A 20 N load is placed at one end of the beam and a 30 N load is placed at the other end.

A 25 N load is also placed on the beam to balance it.

How far from the pivot is the 25 N load placed?

A. 4.0 cm
B. 5.0 cm
C. 8.0 cm
D. 10 cm

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5: Forces — Apply the principle of moments (sum of clockwise moments = sum of anticlockwise moments) to solve problems involving balanced beams and levers.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The pivot is at the centre (10 cm from each end). The 20 N load is at one end (10 cm from pivot, anticlockwise) and the 30 N load is at the other end (10 cm from pivot, clockwise).
Taking moments about the pivot: clockwise moments = \(30 \times 10 = 300 \text{ N·cm}\); anticlockwise moments = \(20 \times 10 + 25 \times d = 200 + 25d\). For balance: \(300 = 200 + 25d\), so \(d = \frac{100}{25} = 4.0 \text{ cm}\) on the anticlockwise side.
Answer: (A)

Question 30

A rope is used to pull a block of mass 25 kg up a slope from point X to point Y.

Three distances are shown on the diagram.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N/kg.

What is the increase in gravitational potential energy of the block?

A. 125 J
B. 750 J
C. 1000 J
D. 1250 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.3: Mass and weight / Energy — Use the formula \(\Delta GPE = mgh\) to calculate the change in gravitational potential energy, where \(h\) is the vertical height gained.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
GPE depends only on the vertical height gained, not the distance along the slope. From the diagram, the vertical height \(h = 3 \text{ m}\).
Using \(\Delta GPE = mgh = 25 \times 10 \times 3 = 750 \text{ J}\).
Answer: (B)

Question 31

A liquid starts to evaporate. Which molecules escape and what happens to the temperature of the remaining liquid?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B8.3 / P2.2: Transpiration / Thermal physics — Explain evaporation at the molecular level: high-energy molecules escape the liquid surface, leaving behind molecules of lower average kinetic energy, which causes the liquid to cool.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During evaporation, only the most energetic molecules at the liquid surface have sufficient kinetic energy to overcome intermolecular forces and escape into the vapour phase.
As the highest-energy molecules leave, the average kinetic energy of the remaining liquid decreases — since temperature is proportional to average kinetic energy, the liquid cools down.
Answer: (C)

Question 32

Water in a metal pan is heated on a gas burner.

What are the main methods by which heat is transferred through the metal pan to the water and throughout the water?

A. conduction through the metal pan and convection in the water
B. convection through the metal pan and conduction in the water
C. convection through the metal pan and radiation in the water
D. radiation through the metal pan and conduction in the water

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3: Thermal physics — Describe and distinguish between the three methods of thermal energy transfer: conduction (solids), convection (fluids), and radiation (electromagnetic waves).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Conduction is the dominant heat transfer method in solids (like the metal pan) — free electrons and lattice vibrations transfer energy without bulk movement of material.
Convection occurs in fluids (liquids and gases): heated water at the bottom becomes less dense, rises, and cooler water sinks, setting up convection currents that distribute heat throughout the water.
Answer: (A)

Question 33

The critical angle of water is 49°.

A ray of light from the bottom of a swimming pool has an angle of incidence of 50° at the surface of the water.

What happens to the ray of light?

A. It is all refracted with an angle of refraction of 49°.
B. It is partly reflected and partly refracted.
C. It is totally internally reflected with an angle of reflection of 50°.
D. It travels along the surface of the water.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2: Light — Describe total internal reflection and state the conditions required: light must travel from a denser to a less dense medium, and the angle of incidence must exceed the critical angle.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since the angle of incidence (50°) is greater than the critical angle (49°), total internal reflection occurs — all the light is reflected back into the water, none passes through the surface.
By the law of reflection, the angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence: the ray reflects at 50°; Option D describes the case when the angle of incidence exactly equals the critical angle.
Answer: (C)

Question 34

Humans can hear sounds with a range of frequencies.

Which row shows the smallest frequency and the greatest frequency that can be heard by a healthy human ear?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.4: Sound — State that the audible range of frequencies for a healthy human ear is approximately 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz (20 kHz).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The human audible range is approximately \(20 \text{ Hz}\) (the lowest frequency perceived as sound) to \(20\,000 \text{ Hz}\) (\(20 \text{ kHz}\)) — sounds below this range are infrasound and above it are ultrasound.
Option B correctly states both the lower limit (20 Hz) and upper limit (20 000 Hz) of normal human hearing.
Answer: (B)

Question 35

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What happens to the rod and what happens to the cloth?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2: Electrical quantities — Explain static charge in terms of electron transfer: when objects are rubbed, electrons transfer from one to another, making one positively charged and the other negatively charged.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
When the rod becomes positively charged, it has lost electrons — those electrons have been transferred to the cloth, giving the cloth a negative charge.
By conservation of charge, the total charge of the system remains zero; the rod loses electrons (gains positive charge) and the cloth gains electrons (gains negative charge) — Option A correctly shows this.
Answer: (A)

Question 36

The circuit shown contains a battery, two resistors, a voltmeter and an ammeter.

One of the resistors has a resistance of 2.0 Ω. The reading on each meter is shown.

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the battery?

A. 3.0 V
B. 6.0 V
C. 8.0 V
D. 11 V

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3: Electrical circuits — Apply Ohm’s Law \(V = IR\) and Kirchhoff’s voltage law to calculate p.d. across components in a series circuit.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
From the circuit diagram, the voltmeter reads 8.0 V (across the unknown resistor) and the ammeter reads 1.5 A. The p.d. across the 2.0 Ω resistor is \(V = IR = 1.5 \times 2.0 = 3.0 \text{ V}\).
In a series circuit, battery p.d. = sum of all p.d.s across components: \(V_{\text{battery}} = 8.0 + 3.0 = 11 \text{ V}\).
Answer: (D)

Question 37

A heating element in an electric kettle has a resistance of 24 Ω.

When the kettle is connected to a 240 V supply, it takes 2.5 minutes to boil some water.

How much energy is used to boil the water?

A. 16 J
B. 960 J
C. 6000 J
D. 360 000 J

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.5: Electrical energy and power — Use the equations \(P = \frac{V^2}{R}\) and \(E = Pt\) to calculate electrical energy consumed by a device over a given time.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
First find power: \(P = \frac{V^2}{R} = \frac{240^2}{24} = \frac{57600}{24} = 2400 \text{ W}\).
Then find energy: \(E = Pt = 2400 \times (2.5 \times 60) = 2400 \times 150 = 360\,000 \text{ J}\).
Answer: (D)

Question 38

A student connects the circuit shown.

When the switch is closed, the fuse blows and stops the current. What is a possible reason for this?

A. The current rating of the fuse is too high.
B. The current is too large.
C. The lamp is too dim.
D. The voltage is too small.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.3: Electrical circuits — Describe the function of a fuse as a safety device that melts (blows) when the current exceeds its rated value, breaking the circuit to prevent overheating or fire.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A fuse blows when the current flowing through it exceeds its rated value — the thin fuse wire overheats and melts, breaking the circuit.
If the fuse rating were too high (A), it would not blow even at dangerous currents; a dim lamp (C) or small voltage (D) would cause low current, which would not blow a fuse — only an excessive current (B) causes the fuse to blow.
Answer: (B)

Question 39

Electrical energy from a power station is transmitted over a large distance. A 100% efficient transformer is used near to the power station. This transformer reduces the energy that is wasted thermally in the transmission cables.

How does the transformer reduce the energy that is wasted?

A. It decreases the power transmitted so the current and the voltage are both larger.
B. It decreases the power transmitted so the current and the voltage are both smaller.
C. It increases the current so the voltage is smaller.
D. It increases the voltage so the current is smaller.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.5: Electrical energy and power — Explain how a step-up transformer reduces transmission losses by increasing voltage and reducing current, using \(P = I^2 R\) to justify why lower current reduces power loss.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A step-up transformer near the power station increases the voltage, which (since power \(P = IV\) is constant for a 100% efficient transformer) means the current must decrease proportionally.
Thermal power wasted in cables is given by \(P_{\text{loss}} = I^2 R\) — reducing the current dramatically reduces cable losses; this is why high-voltage, low-current transmission is used in the National Grid.
Answer: (D)

Question 40

The diagram shows a radioactive source emitting three types of ionizing radiation, X, Y and Z. The radiation passes through an electric field between two metal plates, as shown.

Which row identifies the three types of radiation?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.1: Detection of radioactivity — Describe the properties of alpha, beta, and gamma radiation including their charges, and predict their deflection in electric and magnetic fields.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In an electric field: alpha particles (\(\alpha\), charge \(+2\)) deflect toward the negative plate; beta particles (\(\beta^-\), charge \(-1\)) deflect toward the positive plate (opposite direction to alpha, deflected more due to smaller mass); gamma rays (\(\gamma\), no charge) are undeflected and travel straight through.
From the diagram, the ray that goes straight is gamma (Z); the one deflecting toward the negative plate is alpha (X); and the one deflecting toward the positive plate with a larger deflection is beta (Y) — matching Option A.
Answer: (A)
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