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Question 1:

Auxin is a chemical that is produced in shoot tips.
With which characteristics of living things is auxin involved?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

Question 2:

Which statement about the named cells is correct?
(A) Palisade mesophyll cells have many chloroplasts.
(B) Red blood cells have a haploid nucleus.
(C) Root hair cells have many chloroplasts.
(D) Sperm cells have a diploid nucleus.

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

Question 3:

Which large molecule is made from many smaller glucose molecules?
(A) amino acid
(B) glycerol
(C) glycogen
(D) protein

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: C

Question 4:

Some bacteria live in acidic, hot springs.
What are the optimum conditions for the enzymes of these bacteria?
(A) 20 ºC and pH4
(B) 20 ºC and pH9
(C) 80 ºC and pH4
(D) 80 ºC and pH9

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: C

Question 5:

Which statement about the process of photosynthesis is correct?
(A)  Chlorophyll produces chemical energy for the synthesis of carbohydrates.
(B)  Chlorophyll produces light energy for the synthesis of carbohydrates.
(C)  Chlorophyll transfers chemical energy to light energy for the synthesis of carbohydrates.
(D) Chlorophyll transfers light energy to chemical energy for the synthesis of carbohydrates.

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: D

Question 6:

Protein shakes are used by athletes to supplement their diet. They are a drink made by dissolving protein powders in water or milk.
Which types of digestion will be required before they can be absorbed?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 7:

Which component of blood is matched to its function?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: D

Question 8:

Changes in the body occur as a result of increased physical activity.

What are effects R and S?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans:  C

Question 9:

A plant was placed horizontally in complete darkness.
The diagram shows how the plant had grown after one week.

Which response has the shoot made?
(A)  gravitropism away from gravity
(B)  gravitropism towards gravity
(C)  phototropism away from light
(D)  phototropism towards light

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

Question 10:

What processes occur in the oviduct?
(A)  fertilisation and then the zygote undergoes meiosis
(B)  fertilisation and then the zygote undergoes mitosis
(C)  zygote undergoes meiosis and then fertilisation occurs
(D) zygote undergoes mitosis and then fertilisation occurs

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 11:

The pedigree diagram shows the inheritance of a recessive condition.

Which statements are correct with reference to this condition?
       1   P and Q are both heterozygous for the condition.
       2  Q and R have different genotypes.
       3  P and R have the same genotype.

(A)  1, 2 and 3

(B)  1 and 2 only

(C)  1 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: C

Question 12:

What is a description of a trophic level?
(A)  the ability of an organism to make its own food through photosynthesis
(B)  the death of organisms due to increased availability of nitrates
(C)  the interaction of an organism with its environment
(D)  the position of an organism in a food chain

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: D

Question 13:

Which graph represents a pollution incident in a lake causing eutrophication?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 14:

The bonding in potassium iodide is ionic.
Which row describes the potassium iodide lattice structure?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: C

Question 15:

What is the definition of the relative atomic mass, Ar, of an element?
(A)  the average mass of atoms of the element on a scale in which an atom of  $^{12}$C has a mass of exactly 12 units
(B)  the average mass of atoms of the element on a scale in which an atom of  $^{1}$H has a mass of exactly 1 unit
(C)  the average mass of atoms of the element on a scale in which an atom of  $^{12}$C has a mass of exactly 1 unit
(D)  the mass in grams of one mole of atoms of the element

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

Question 16:

Which statements about the electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate are correct?
     1  Oxygen is produced at the anode when carbon electrodes are used.
     2  Copper is produced at the cathode when copper electrodes are used.
     3  Hydrogen is produced at the cathode when carbon electrodes are used.
     4  Electrolysis does not occur when inert electrodes are used.

(A)  1 and 2

(B)  1 and 4

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4y

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

Question 17:

What describes an endothermic reaction?
(A)  a reaction in which all the bonds in all the reactants are broken
(B)  a reaction in which energy is released to the surroundings
(C)  a reaction which goes to completion
(D) a reaction in which energy is taken in from the surroundings

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: D

Question 18:

The rate of a reaction that produces carbon dioxide gas is investigated.
Which piece of apparatus gives the least accurate measurement for the gas production?
(A)  burette
(B)  gas syringe
(C) measuring cylinder
(D) 3-decimal-place digital balance

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: C

Question 19:

What happens when an acid reacts with an alkali?
(A)  Neutralisation takes place and the temperature falls.
(B)  Neutralisation takes place and the temperature rises.
(C)  Reduction takes place and the temperature falls.
(D)  Reduction takes place and the temperature rises.

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 20:

A student tests an aqueous solution for the presence of sulfate ions.
What is the test and observation for sulfate ions?
(A)  Acidify the solution and add aqueous barium ions to produce a white precipitate.
(B)  Acidify the solution and add aqueous silver ions to produce a cream precipitate.
(C)  Add aqueous iron(III) ions to produce a brown precipitate.
(D)  Add aqueous copper(II) ions to produce a pale blue precipitate.

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

Question 21:

Elements in Group VI share similar chemical and physical trends as elements in Group VII.
Which statement about the elements of Group VI is correct?
(A)  Atoms of Group VI elements form cations when they react with sodium.
(B)  Sulfur has a lower boiling point than tellurium.
(C)  Selenium displaces sulfur from metal sulfides.
(D)  The elements become lighter in colour as Group VI is descended.

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 22:

The reactions of four different metals W, X, Y and Z with aqueous solutions of their ions are
listed.
● W reacts with aqueous ions of X and of Z but not with aqueous ions of Y.
● X does not react with aqueous ions of W, Y or Z.
● Y reacts with aqueous ions of W, X and Z.
● Z reacts with aqueous ions of X but not with aqueous ions of Y or W.
Which row shows the tendency of the metals to form positive ions?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 23:

A sample of air is analysed before and after it is used in an experiment.
The percentage composition of the air before and after the experiment is recorded.


Which process does not produce this change in the composition of the air?
(A)  combustion of coal
(B)  combustion of natural gas
(C)  combustion of sulfur
(D)  respiration

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: C

Question 24:

What is the catalyst used in the Contact process?
(A)  yeast
(B)  iron
(C)  nickel
(D)  vanadium(V) oxide

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: D

Question 25:

What is the word equation for the manufacture of lime?
(A)  calcium carbonate → calcium hydroxide + carbon dioxide
(B)  calcium carbonate → calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
(C)  calcium sulfate → calcium hydroxide + sulfur dioxide
(D)  calcium sulfate → calcium oxide + sulfur dioxide

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 26:

Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation.
Which row shows the uses of the named fractions?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans:  D

Question 27:

Which substance decolourises aqueous bromine?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: C

Question 28:

The weight of a man on the Earth is 600 N, where the gravitational field strength is 10 N/ kg.
The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N/ kg.
What is the weight of the man on the Moon?
(A)  60 N

(B)  96 N

(C)  600 N

(D)  960 N

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 29:

A uniform beam of length 20 cm is balanced on a pivot at its centre.
A 20 N load is placed at one end of the beam and a 30 N load is placed at the other end.
A 25 N load is also placed on the beam to balance it.

How far from the pivot is the 25 N load placed?
(A)  4.0 cm

(B)  5.0 cm

(C)  8.0 cm

(D)  10 cm

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

Question 30:

A rope is used to pull a block of mass 25 kg up a slope from point X to point Y.
Three distances are shown on the diagram.
The gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg.

What is the increase in gravitational potential energy of the block?
(A)  125 J

(B)  750 J

(C) 1000 J

(D) 1250 J

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 31:

A liquid starts to evaporate.
Which molecules escape and what happens to the temperature of the remaining liquid?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: C

Question 32:

Water in a metal pan is heated on a gas burner.
What are the main methods by which heat is transferred through the metal pan to the water and throughout the water?
(A)  conduction through the metal pan and convection in the water
(B)  convection through the metal pan and conduction in the water
(C)  convection through the metal pan and radiation in the water
(D) radiation through the metal pan and conduction in the water

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

Question 33:

The critical angle of water is 49º.
A ray of light from the bottom of a swimming pool has an angle of incidence of 50º at the surface of the water.
What happens to the ray of light?
(A)  It is all refracted with an angle of refraction of 49º.
(B)  It is partly reflected and partly refracted.
(C)  It is totally internally reflected with an angle of reflection of 50º.
(D)  It travels along the surface of the water.

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: C

Question 34:

Humans can hear sounds with a range of frequencies.
Which row shows the smallest frequency and the greatest frequency that can be heard by a healthy human ear?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 35:

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth.
The rod becomes positively charged.
What happens to the rod and what happens to the cloth?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

Question 36:

The circuit shown contains a battery, two resistors, a voltmeter and an ammeter.
One of the resistors has a resistance of 2.0 Ω. The reading on each meter is shown.

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the battery?
(A)  3.0V

(B)  6.0V

(C)  8.0V

(D)  11V

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: D

Question 37:

A heating element in an electric kettle has a resistance of 24 Ω.
When the kettle is connected to a 240V supply, it takes 2.5 minutes to boil some water.
How much energy is used to boil the water?
(A)  16 J

(B)  960 J

(C) 6000 J

(D) 360 000J

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: D

Question 38:

A student connects the circuit shown.

When the switch is closed, the fuse blows and stops the current.
What is a possible reason for this?
(A)  The current rating of the fuse is too high.
(B)  The current is too large.
(C)  The lamp is too dim.
(D) The voltage is too small.

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: B

Question 39:

Electrical energy from a power station is transmitted over a large distance. A 100% efficient
transformer is used near to the power station. This transformer reduces the energy that is wasted thermally in the transmission cables.

How does the transformer reduce the energy that is wasted?
(A)  It decreases the power transmitted so the current and the voltage are both larger.
(B)  It decreases the power transmitted so the current and the voltage are both smaller.
(C)  It increases the current so the voltage is smaller.
(D)  It increases the voltage so the current is smaller.

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: D

Question 40:

The diagram shows a radioactive source emitting three types of ionising radiation, X, Y and Z.
The radiation passes through an electric field between two metal plates, as shown.

Which row identifies the three types of radiation?

▶️Answer/Explanation

Ans: A

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