Question 1
Soya seeds contain a lot of protein and are often fed to farm animals.
Which characteristic of living things will benefit from the soya seeds?
A. excretion
B. growth
C. movement
D. sensitivity
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Protein is required for the synthesis of new cells and tissues, making it directly linked to the characteristic of growth.
Excretion, movement, and sensitivity do not depend on protein intake in this context.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 2
Pieces of potato of the same length were placed in sucrose solutions of different concentrations. Their length was measured again after two hours.
At which sucrose concentration were the pieces of potato most flaccid?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a high-concentration sucrose solution, water leaves the potato cells by osmosis, causing the cells to lose turgor pressure and become flaccid (shrunken and soft).
The highest sucrose concentration (option D) would cause the greatest water loss, making the potato pieces the most flaccid.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 3
Four different foods labelled A, B, C and D are tested to find out which nutrients they contain.
Which food contains both starch and protein but no reducing sugar?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The food that gives a positive result for starch and protein but a negative result for reducing sugar must be identified from the table — this corresponds to food B.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 4
When the phenol molecules in apples are exposed to air, they react with oxygen and the fruit turns brown. This is an enzyme-controlled reaction.
The graph shows the effect of pH on the time taken for pieces of apple to turn brown.

Which statements are correct?
- The optimum pH for this enzyme is between 5 and 6.
- As the pH increases from 3 to 5, the phenol molecules and the enzyme move faster.
- As the pH becomes higher than 6, the shape of the active site changes.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Statement 2 is incorrect: increased molecular speed with rising temperature explains faster reactions, but pH changes do not directly cause enzyme or substrate molecules to move faster — pH affects the shape of the active site, not molecular speed.
Statement 3 is correct: above the optimum pH, the change in \([\text{H}^+]\) concentration alters the ionic interactions within the enzyme, distorting the shape of the active site and reducing enzyme activity (denaturation).
✅ Answer: (C)
Question 5
What causes plant leaves to turn yellow?
A. a lack of magnesium in the soil
B. a lack of starch in the leaves
C. a reduction in the rate of photosynthesis
D. a reduction in the rate of respiration
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A deficiency of chlorophyll causes leaves to turn yellow, a condition known as chlorosis.
While reduced photosynthesis is a consequence of chlorosis, it is not the direct cause — the root cause is the lack of magnesium needed to make chlorophyll.
✅ Answer: (A)
Question 6
Which component of a balanced diet is needed to prevent constipation?
A. carbohydrate
B. fat
C. protein
D. fibre
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
This bulk stimulates peristalsis — the muscular contractions that move food through the gut — helping to prevent constipation.
Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins provide energy or structural materials but do not directly stimulate gut movement in the same way.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 7
The diagram shows the life cycle of a plant that takes two years to grow from a seed and produce new seeds.

Which row about the large root in year 1 and in year 2 is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In year 2, the plant uses the stored food in the root to fuel the growth of flowers and seeds for reproduction, so the root shrinks as the reserves are used up.
This means in year 1 the root is growing/storing, and in year 2 the root is shrinking/losing stored food — corresponding to row B.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 8
Which equation shows the metabolic process used in bread making?
A. \(\text{carbon dioxide} + \text{water} \rightarrow \text{glucose} + \text{oxygen}\)
B. \(\text{glucose} + \text{oxygen} \rightarrow \text{carbon dioxide} + \text{water}\)
C. \(\text{glucose} \rightarrow \text{ethanol} + \text{carbon dioxide}\)
D. \(\text{glucose} \rightarrow \text{lactic acid}\)
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
During fermentation, yeast converts glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide: \(\text{glucose} \rightarrow \text{ethanol} + \text{carbon dioxide}\).
The carbon dioxide gas produced causes the bread dough to rise (expand), giving bread its light, airy texture.
✅ Answer: (C)
Question 9
What are examples of involuntary actions?
- widening of the pupil in dim light
- increasing the pulse rate during exercise
- contracting muscles to pick up a pencil
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Pupil dilation in dim light (statement 1) and increasing heart rate during exercise (statement 2) are both automatic responses not consciously controlled, so they are involuntary.
Picking up a pencil (statement 3) is a deliberate, conscious action controlled by the brain — making it a voluntary action.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 10
The diagram shows a flower.

Which row names the structures labelled P, Q and R?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
By identifying the positions of structures P, Q, and R in the diagram — with P at the pollen-producing top, Q as the supporting stalk, and R as the receptive sticky surface — the correct row is A.
✅ Answer: (A)
Question 11
The boxes show the steps involved in artificial selection of an animal species.

Which sequence of steps is correct?
A. 2 → 1 → 4 → 3
B. 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
C. 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
D. 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
This cycle is repeated over many generations to gradually enhance the desired characteristic in the population.
The correct sequence is therefore 4 → 2 → 1 → 3.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 12
Which statement about all food chains is correct?
A. All the carnivores are producers.
B. All the consumers are carnivores.
C. All the herbivores are consumers.
D. All the producers are herbivores.
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Statement A is false — carnivores eat animals, not produce; statement B is false — consumers include herbivores and omnivores too; statement D is false — producers are plants, not herbivores.
Statement C is the only universally true statement: every herbivore consumes another organism (plants) and is therefore a consumer.
✅ Answer: (C)
Question 13
The release of fertiliser into rivers and lakes causes eutrophication which can lead to the death of fish.
What causes the fish to die?
A. Decreased photosynthesis by producers reduces the carbon dioxide.
B. Increased photosynthesis by producers reduces the oxygen.
C. Increased decomposition reduces the carbon dioxide.
D. Increased decomposition reduces the oxygen.
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The decomposers use up the dissolved oxygen in the water through their aerobic respiration, causing oxygen levels to fall dramatically — this is called deoxygenation.
Fish and other aquatic organisms die because there is insufficient dissolved oxygen for their own aerobic respiration.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 14
The numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons in four particles are shown.

Which two particles are isotopes of the same element?
A. W and X
B. W and Y
C. X and Y
D. Y and Z
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Particles W and Y share the same number of protons (making them the same element) but differ in their number of neutrons, satisfying the definition of isotopes.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 15
A sample of methane has mass 16.0 g at r.t.p. and contains the Avogadro number of molecules.
What is the volume of 4.0 g of methane at r.t.p.?
A. 4.0 dm³
B. 6.0 dm³
C. 16 dm³
D. 24 dm³
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Therefore, 4.0 g of methane = \(\dfrac{4.0}{16.0} = 0.25\) mol.
Volume = \(0.25 \times 24 = 6.0 \text{ dm}^3\).
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 16
The diagram shows the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using inert electrodes.

Which statement about this experiment is correct?
A. Electrode X is positively charged.
B. The coloured fumes are produced at the negative electrode.
C. The electrolyte is lead(II) bromide.
D. The grey solid is lead(II) bromide.
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
At the cathode (negative electrode), \(\text{Pb}^{2+}\) ions are reduced to form a grey solid of lead metal; at the anode (positive electrode), \(\text{Br}^-\) ions are oxidised to produce orange-brown bromine fumes.
Statement C is correct; A and B are false (bromine forms at the positive anode, not the negative electrode), and D is false (the grey solid is elemental lead, not lead(II) bromide).
✅ Answer: (C)
Question 17
Which energy level diagram shows the activation energy for an exothermic reaction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The activation energy is the energy difference between the reactants’ energy level and the peak (transition state) of the energy profile curve.
Diagram C correctly shows: products at a lower level than reactants (exothermic) and the activation energy arrow pointing from reactants up to the peak of the curve.
✅ Answer: (C)
Question 18
The apparatus used to determine the rate of a chemical reaction is shown.

For which reaction is the rate determined using this apparatus?
A. \(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\)
B. \(2\text{C}_2\text{H}_6 + 7\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 4\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}\)
C. \(\text{MgCO}_3 + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{MgCl}_2 + \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}\)
D. \(\text{Cl}_2 + 2\text{NaBr} \rightarrow \text{Br}_2 + 2\text{NaCl}\)
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Reaction C (\(\text{MgCO}_3 + 2\text{HCl}\)) takes place in aqueous solution at room temperature and produces \(\text{CO}_2\) gas that can be collected and measured with this apparatus.
Reactions A and B require high temperatures (not suitable for this apparatus), and reaction D is a displacement reaction in solution producing no gas.
✅ Answer: (C)
Question 19
The equation for the reaction between magnesium and zinc sulfate is shown.
\[\text{Mg} + \text{ZnSO}_4 \rightarrow \text{Zn} + \text{MgSO}_4\]
What happens to magnesium in this reaction?
A. It is oxidised because it gains electrons.
B. It is oxidised because it loses electrons.
C. It is reduced because it gains electrons.
D. It is reduced because it loses electrons.
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
According to the OIL RIG rule — Oxidation Is Loss (of electrons), Reduction Is Gain (of electrons) — losing electrons means magnesium is oxidised.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 20
Cobalt(II) chloride, cobalt(II) nitrate, and cobalt(II) sulfate are soluble in water. Cobalt(II) oxide and cobalt(II) carbonate are insoluble in water.
Which method can be used to prepare a sample of solid cobalt(II) sulfate?
A. Mix aqueous sodium sulfate and aqueous cobalt(II) nitrate, then filter.
B. Mix excess aqueous sulfuric acid and aqueous cobalt(II) chloride, then filter and evaporate the filtrate.
C. Mix dilute sulfuric acid and an excess of cobalt(II) oxide, then distil.
D. Mix dilute sulfuric acid and an excess of cobalt(II) carbonate, then filter and evaporate the filtrate.
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Cobalt(II) carbonate is insoluble, so it can be added in excess to dilute \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\); the excess carbonate is removed by filtration, and the filtrate is evaporated to yield solid cobalt(II) sulfate.
Option A would not work because both reactants are soluble (no precipitate forms and no simple separation is possible); options B and C are also flawed in their procedures.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 21
What is warmed with a salt to test for ammonium ions?
A. aqueous barium chloride
B. aqueous litmus
C. aqueous silver nitrate
D. aqueous sodium hydroxide
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
If ammonium ions are present, ammonia gas (\(\text{NH}_3\)) is produced: \(\text{NH}_4^+ + \text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{NH}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{O}\); the gas is detected by holding damp red litmus paper near the tube, which turns blue.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 22
Which statement about the halogens is not correct?
A. Bromine is darker in colour than iodine.
B. Iodine is solid at room temperature.
C. They all have seven electrons in their outer shell.
D. They all form diatomic molecules.
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Therefore, iodine is darker than bromine — statement A is incorrect because it claims bromine is darker than iodine, which is the reverse of the truth.
Statements B, C, and D are all correct facts about the halogens.
✅ Answer: (A)
Question 23
Which statement describes a typical transition element?
A. It has a high melting point, high density and forms a coloured salt.
B. It has a high melting point, low density and forms a white salt.
C. It has a low melting point, low density and forms a coloured salt.
D. It has a low melting point, high density and forms a white salt.
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
They also form coloured compounds/salts because electrons in their partially filled d-orbitals can absorb specific wavelengths of visible light when transitioning between energy levels.
These three features together — high melting point, high density, coloured salts — are hallmarks of transition metals, matching statement A.
✅ Answer: (A)
Question 24
When iron is galvanized, it is coated with a layer of zinc.
Which statements about galvanizing are correct?
- Zinc has a greater tendency to form positive ions than iron.
- Zinc prevents iron from rusting by sacrificial protection.
- Iron is more reactive than zinc.
- Zinc acts as a barrier method of rust prevention if scratched.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Because zinc is more reactive, even when the zinc coating is scratched, zinc preferentially oxidises instead of iron — this is sacrificial protection (statement 2 is correct).
Statement 4 is incorrect: once scratched, a barrier method fails completely; it is the sacrificial protection that continues to protect the iron through zinc’s preferential corrosion.
✅ Answer: (A)
Question 25
Which three elements do most fertilizers contain?
A. Na, C, P
B. Na, P, K
C. K, C, N
D. K, P, N
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
These are collectively known as NPK fertilisers; sodium (Na) and carbon (C) are not primary nutrients in commercial fertilisers.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 26
Which reaction that occurs in the Contact process requires the use of a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst?
A. \(\text{S} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{SO}_2\)
B. \(2\text{SO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{SO}_3\)
C. \(\text{SO}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7\)
D. \(\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\)
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
This reaction is slow without a catalyst, so vanadium(V) oxide (\(\text{V}_2\text{O}_5\)) is used at approximately 450°C to increase the rate while maintaining an acceptable yield.
The other reactions in the process (burning sulfur, absorbing \(\text{SO}_3\), and diluting oleum) do not require this specific catalyst.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 27
Reactants for three chemical processes are listed.
- ethene + steam
- ethene + hydrogen
- ethene forming poly(ethene)
Which processes form saturated hydrocarbons?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Process 1 (ethene + steam) produces ethanol (\(\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH}\)), which contains oxygen and is not a hydrocarbon at all, so it does not form a saturated hydrocarbon.
Process 2 (ethene + hydrogen) produces ethane (\(\text{C}_2\text{H}_6\)), a saturated hydrocarbon; process 3 (polymerisation of ethene) produces poly(ethene), which has a saturated carbon backbone (the double bonds open up during polymerisation) — so processes 2 and 3 both form saturated hydrocarbons.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 28
The diagrams show four solid blocks of equal mass.
Which block is made from the least dense material?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The block with the largest dimensions (largest volume) among those of equal mass therefore has the least dense material.
From the diagram, block D has the greatest volume for the same mass, making it the least dense.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 29
A person uses a bar that is 3.0 m long to lift a rock of weight 900 N off the ground. There is a pivot under the bar at 0.50 m from the rock. The person pushes vertically downwards on the other end of the bar from the rock, as shown.

Ignore the weight of the bar. What is the minimum force needed to lift the rock off the ground?
A. 150 N
B. 180 N
C. 4500 N
D. 5400 N
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Applying the principle of moments (clockwise moment = anticlockwise moment): \(F \times 2.50 = 900 \times 0.50\), giving \(F = \dfrac{450}{2.50} = 180 \text{ N}\).
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 30
Which energy resource does not have the Sun as its source of energy?
A. coal
B. geothermal
C. hydroelectric
D. water waves
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Geothermal energy, however, originates from the decay of radioactive elements within the Earth and from the heat remaining from the planet’s formation — it has no dependence on the Sun.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 31
A sample of gas is sealed inside a container. The volume of the container is slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas remains constant.
Which row describes and explains what happens to the pressure of the gas?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The explanation is that the same number of gas molecules are now confined to a smaller space, so they collide with the container walls more frequently, exerting a greater force per unit area (greater pressure).
Row D correctly states that pressure increases and gives the correct molecular explanation of more frequent collisions.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 32
There is a vacuum in the space between the Sun and the Earth.
How is thermal energy transferred from the Sun to the Earth?
A. by conduction only
B. by convection only
C. by radiation only
D. by convection and radiation
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Radiation involves the emission of electromagnetic waves (including infrared), which can travel through a vacuum at the speed of light and do not require a medium.
Therefore, the only way thermal energy can travel from the Sun through the vacuum of space to Earth is by radiation.
✅ Answer: (C)
Question 33
A light wave travelling in air is refracted as it enters a glass block.
Which row shows the effect on the speed and the wavelength of the light wave as it enters the glass?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Since frequency remains unchanged (it is determined by the source), and using the wave equation \(v = f\lambda\), a decrease in wave speed \(v\) at constant frequency \(f\) means the wavelength \(\lambda\) also decreases.
Row A correctly shows both speed and wavelength decrease upon entering the glass.
✅ Answer: (A)
Question 34
The diagram shows the formation of an image of an object by a converging lens. Three points are labelled X, Y and Z.

Which labelled point is a principal focus of the lens and which distance is the focal length?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The focal length is the distance from the optical centre of the lens to the principal focus.
From the diagram, point X is the principal focus (where parallel rays meet) and the distance from the lens centre to X is the focal length — matching row A.
✅ Answer: (A)
Question 35
The current–voltage characteristic for a filament lamp is shown.

As the current increases, what happens to the temperature of the lamp filament and what happens to the resistance of the lamp filament?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Higher temperature causes the metal ions in the filament to vibrate more vigorously, increasing the resistance to electron flow — so resistance also increases.
This is confirmed by the curve’s decreasing gradient (the I–V graph curves, meaning more voltage is needed per unit of current as current rises), consistent with row D: temperature increases, resistance increases.
✅ Answer: (D)
Question 36
A 12 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 6.0 Ω resistor.
What is the combined resistance of the two resistors?
A. 0.25 Ω
B. 4.0 Ω
C. 9.0 Ω
D. 18 Ω
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Therefore \(R_{\text{total}} = 4.0\) Ω. Note that the combined resistance in parallel is always less than the smallest individual resistor (6.0 Ω), which confirms 4.0 Ω is correct.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 37
An electric motor is connected to a power supply by insulated wires. The circuit is protected by a fuse, but the wires become hot.

Which change prevents the wires from becoming so hot?
A. Connect a second identical fuse in the circuit.
B. Use a fuse with a higher current rating.
C. Use thicker connecting wires.
D. Use thicker insulation on the connecting wires.
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Lower resistance means less power is dissipated as heat for the same current, so the wires remain cooler.
Using a higher-rated fuse (option B) is dangerous and does not reduce heating; thicker insulation (option D) traps heat rather than reducing it; adding a second fuse in series (option A) would just increase the chance of blowing a fuse but not reduce wire heating.
✅ Answer: (C)
Question 38
Which diagram shows the pattern and the direction of the magnetic field around a straight wire carrying a current into the page?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Using the right-hand grip rule: if the current goes into the page (represented by a cross ✕), the magnetic field circles the wire in a clockwise direction when viewed from the front.
Diagram A shows concentric circles with a clockwise direction for a current going into the page — this is correct.
✅ Answer: (A)
Question 39
What is the purpose of the slip rings in an alternating current (a.c.) generator?
A. to allow each end of the coil to contact each carbon brush alternately
B. to allow each end of the coil to remain in contact with the same carbon brush at all times
C. to maintain a constant voltage in the output circuit while the coil is rotating
D. to remain stationary while the coil rotates between them
Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
This continuous contact allows current to flow to the external circuit without interruption, and because each end of the coil stays connected to the same brush, the output current alternates as the coil rotates — producing a.c.
This contrasts with a split-ring commutator (used in d.c. generators), which swaps connections every half turn to produce direct current.
✅ Answer: (B)
Question 40
A radioactive source emits beta (β)-particles and gamma (γ)-rays. Both types of radiation enter the magnetic field between the poles of a magnet, as shown.

In which direction does each type of radiation travel after entering the magnetic field?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Beta particles are fast-moving electrons (charge \(-e\)) and are deflected by the magnetic field; the direction of deflection is given by Fleming’s left-hand rule (or the right-hand rule for negative charges), and beta particles deflect in the opposite direction to positive charges (alpha particles).
Row D correctly shows gamma going straight and beta being deflected — confirming the answer.
✅ Answer: (D)
