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Question 1

Soya seeds contain a lot of protein and are often fed to farm animals.

Which characteristic of living things will benefit from the soya seeds?

A. excretion
B. growth
C. movement
D. sensitivity

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B1.1: Characteristics of living organisms — Identify and describe the characteristics of living organisms, including nutrition, growth, movement, excretion, sensitivity, respiration and reproduction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Soya seeds are rich in protein, which is an essential nutrient for building and repairing body tissues.
Protein is required for the synthesis of new cells and tissues, making it directly linked to the characteristic of growth.
Excretion, movement, and sensitivity do not depend on protein intake in this context.
Answer: (B)

Question 2

Pieces of potato of the same length were placed in sucrose solutions of different concentrations. Their length was measured again after two hours.

At which sucrose concentration were the pieces of potato most flaccid?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B3.2: Osmosis — Investigate and describe the effects of osmosis on plant tissues in solutions of different concentrations, and explain turgor and plasmolysis.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In osmosis, water moves from a region of lower solute concentration (higher water potential) to a region of higher solute concentration (lower water potential) through a semi-permeable membrane.
In a high-concentration sucrose solution, water leaves the potato cells by osmosis, causing the cells to lose turgor pressure and become flaccid (shrunken and soft).
The highest sucrose concentration (option D) would cause the greatest water loss, making the potato pieces the most flaccid.
Answer: (D)

Question 3

Four different foods labelled A, B, C and D are tested to find out which nutrients they contain.

Which food contains both starch and protein but no reducing sugar?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.1: Diet — Describe tests for starch (iodine solution), protein (Biuret test) and reducing sugars (Benedict’s test), and interpret results.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Starch is detected using iodine solution (turns blue-black if positive), protein is detected using the Biuret reagent (turns purple/violet if positive), and reducing sugars are detected using Benedict’s solution (turns brick-red/orange if positive).
The food that gives a positive result for starch and protein but a negative result for reducing sugar must be identified from the table — this corresponds to food B.
Answer: (B)

Question 4

When the phenol molecules in apples are exposed to air, they react with oxygen and the fruit turns brown. This is an enzyme-controlled reaction.

The graph shows the effect of pH on the time taken for pieces of apple to turn brown.

Which statements are correct?

  1. The optimum pH for this enzyme is between 5 and 6.
  2. As the pH increases from 3 to 5, the phenol molecules and the enzyme move faster.
  3. As the pH becomes higher than 6, the shape of the active site changes.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes — Describe the effect of pH on enzyme activity, explain the concept of the active site, and understand enzyme denaturation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The graph shows the shortest time (fastest reaction) at pH 5–6, confirming that the optimum pH is between 5 and 6 — so statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: increased molecular speed with rising temperature explains faster reactions, but pH changes do not directly cause enzyme or substrate molecules to move faster — pH affects the shape of the active site, not molecular speed.
Statement 3 is correct: above the optimum pH, the change in \([\text{H}^+]\) concentration alters the ionic interactions within the enzyme, distorting the shape of the active site and reducing enzyme activity (denaturation).
Answer: (C)

Question 5

What causes plant leaves to turn yellow?

A. a lack of magnesium in the soil
B. a lack of starch in the leaves
C. a reduction in the rate of photosynthesis
D. a reduction in the rate of respiration

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B6.1: Photosynthesis — Explain the importance of mineral ions, including magnesium for chlorophyll synthesis, and relate deficiency symptoms to the role of mineral ions.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Magnesium ions (\(\text{Mg}^{2+}\)) are an essential component of the chlorophyll molecule; without sufficient magnesium, the plant cannot synthesise enough chlorophyll.
A deficiency of chlorophyll causes leaves to turn yellow, a condition known as chlorosis.
While reduced photosynthesis is a consequence of chlorosis, it is not the direct cause — the root cause is the lack of magnesium needed to make chlorophyll.
Answer: (A)

Question 6

Which component of a balanced diet is needed to prevent constipation?

A. carbohydrate
B. fat
C. protein
D. fibre

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B7.1: Diet — Describe the components of a balanced diet and their functions, including the role of dietary fibre in preventing constipation.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Dietary fibre (roughage) consists of indigestible plant material, mainly cellulose, that adds bulk to food in the large intestine.
This bulk stimulates peristalsis — the muscular contractions that move food through the gut — helping to prevent constipation.
Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins provide energy or structural materials but do not directly stimulate gut movement in the same way.
Answer: (D)

Question 7

The diagram shows the life cycle of a plant that takes two years to grow from a seed and produce new seeds.

Which row about the large root in year 1 and in year 2 is correct?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.3: Sexual reproduction in plants — Understand the role of stored food in plant life cycles and how plants use stored nutrients during germination and reproduction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In year 1, the plant stores food (mainly carbohydrates) in its large root, so the root grows and is filled with stored food reserves.
In year 2, the plant uses the stored food in the root to fuel the growth of flowers and seeds for reproduction, so the root shrinks as the reserves are used up.
This means in year 1 the root is growing/storing, and in year 2 the root is shrinking/losing stored food — corresponding to row B.
Answer: (B)

Question 8

Which equation shows the metabolic process used in bread making?

A. \(\text{carbon dioxide} + \text{water} \rightarrow \text{glucose} + \text{oxygen}\)
B. \(\text{glucose} + \text{oxygen} \rightarrow \text{carbon dioxide} + \text{water}\)
C. \(\text{glucose} \rightarrow \text{ethanol} + \text{carbon dioxide}\)
D. \(\text{glucose} \rightarrow \text{lactic acid}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B5.1: Enzymes / Topic B12.1: Respiration — Describe anaerobic respiration in yeast (fermentation) and write the word equation: glucose → ethanol + carbon dioxide.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Bread making relies on yeast, which carries out anaerobic respiration (fermentation) in the absence of oxygen.
During fermentation, yeast converts glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide: \(\text{glucose} \rightarrow \text{ethanol} + \text{carbon dioxide}\).
The carbon dioxide gas produced causes the bread dough to rise (expand), giving bread its light, airy texture.
Answer: (C)

Question 9

What are examples of involuntary actions?

  1. widening of the pupil in dim light
  2. increasing the pulse rate during exercise
  3. contracting muscles to pick up a pencil

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B13.1: Coordination and response — Distinguish between voluntary and involuntary actions, and give examples of each.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Involuntary actions are those not under conscious control — they are controlled by the autonomic nervous system or occur as reflexes.
Pupil dilation in dim light (statement 1) and increasing heart rate during exercise (statement 2) are both automatic responses not consciously controlled, so they are involuntary.
Picking up a pencil (statement 3) is a deliberate, conscious action controlled by the brain — making it a voluntary action.
Answer: (B)

Question 10

The diagram shows a flower.

Which row names the structures labelled P, Q and R?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B15.3: Sexual reproduction in plants — Identify and describe the structure and function of the male and female parts of a flower, including the anther, filament, stigma, style, ovary and ovule.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In a typical flower, the anther (part of the stamen) produces pollen, the filament is the stalk supporting the anther, and the stigma is the sticky top of the carpel that receives pollen during pollination.
By identifying the positions of structures P, Q, and R in the diagram — with P at the pollen-producing top, Q as the supporting stalk, and R as the receptive sticky surface — the correct row is A.
Answer: (A)

Question 11

The boxes show the steps involved in artificial selection of an animal species.

Which sequence of steps is correct?
A. 2 → 1 → 4 → 3
B. 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
C. 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
D. 4 → 2 → 1 → 3

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B17.2: Selection — Describe the process of artificial selection, including the identification of desirable traits, selective breeding, and repetition over generations to improve the breed.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Artificial selection begins by identifying individuals with a desirable characteristic (step 4), then selecting and breeding those individuals together (step 2), allowing the offspring to be born (step 1), and finally selecting the offspring with the most desirable traits to breed again (step 3).
This cycle is repeated over many generations to gradually enhance the desired characteristic in the population.
The correct sequence is therefore 4 → 2 → 1 → 3.
Answer: (D)

Question 12

Which statement about all food chains is correct?

A. All the carnivores are producers.
B. All the consumers are carnivores.
C. All the herbivores are consumers.
D. All the producers are herbivores.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B18.2: Food chains and food webs — Define the terms producer, consumer, herbivore, carnivore and omnivore, and construct and interpret food chains.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Herbivores are organisms that eat only plants (producers); since they obtain energy by consuming another organism, they are by definition consumers.
Statement A is false — carnivores eat animals, not produce; statement B is false — consumers include herbivores and omnivores too; statement D is false — producers are plants, not herbivores.
Statement C is the only universally true statement: every herbivore consumes another organism (plants) and is therefore a consumer.
Answer: (C)

Question 13

The release of fertiliser into rivers and lakes causes eutrophication which can lead to the death of fish.

What causes the fish to die?

A. Decreased photosynthesis by producers reduces the carbon dioxide.
B. Increased photosynthesis by producers reduces the oxygen.
C. Increased decomposition reduces the carbon dioxide.
D. Increased decomposition reduces the oxygen.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic B19.1: Habitat destruction — Describe the process of eutrophication, including algal blooms, death of plants, increased decomposition, and reduced oxygen levels leading to death of aquatic organisms.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Fertiliser run-off causes rapid algal growth (algal bloom), which blocks sunlight, killing underwater plants; the dead algae and plants are then broken down by aerobic decomposers (bacteria).
The decomposers use up the dissolved oxygen in the water through their aerobic respiration, causing oxygen levels to fall dramatically — this is called deoxygenation.
Fish and other aquatic organisms die because there is insufficient dissolved oxygen for their own aerobic respiration.
Answer: (D)

Question 14

The numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons in four particles are shown.

Which two particles are isotopes of the same element?

A. W and X
B. W and Y
C. X and Y
D. Y and Z

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.3: Isotopes — Define isotopes as atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, and use this definition to identify isotopes.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Isotopes are defined as atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons; the number of protons determines the element’s identity (atomic number).
Particles W and Y share the same number of protons (making them the same element) but differ in their number of neutrons, satisfying the definition of isotopes.
Answer: (B)

Question 15

A sample of methane has mass 16.0 g at r.t.p. and contains the Avogadro number of molecules.

What is the volume of 4.0 g of methane at r.t.p.?

A. 4.0 dm³
B. 6.0 dm³
C. 16 dm³
D. 24 dm³

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C3.3: The mole and the Avogadro constant — Use the molar volume of a gas at r.t.p. (24 dm³/mol) to calculate volumes of gases, and relate mass, molar mass and moles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The molar mass of methane (\(\text{CH}_4\)) is \(12 + 4 = 16 \text{ g/mol}\), so 16.0 g = 1 mole, which occupies 24 dm³ at r.t.p.
Therefore, 4.0 g of methane = \(\dfrac{4.0}{16.0} = 0.25\) mol.
Volume = \(0.25 \times 24 = 6.0 \text{ dm}^3\).
Answer: (B)

Question 16

The diagram shows the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using inert electrodes.

Which statement about this experiment is correct?

A. Electrode X is positively charged.
B. The coloured fumes are produced at the negative electrode.
C. The electrolyte is lead(II) bromide.
D. The grey solid is lead(II) bromide.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C4.1: Electrolysis — Describe electrolysis of molten ionic compounds, identify products at anode and cathode, and explain the role of the electrolyte.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In electrolysis, the electrolyte is the substance that conducts electricity in its molten or dissolved state — here, molten lead(II) bromide is the electrolyte.
At the cathode (negative electrode), \(\text{Pb}^{2+}\) ions are reduced to form a grey solid of lead metal; at the anode (positive electrode), \(\text{Br}^-\) ions are oxidised to produce orange-brown bromine fumes.
Statement C is correct; A and B are false (bromine forms at the positive anode, not the negative electrode), and D is false (the grey solid is elemental lead, not lead(II) bromide).
Answer: (C)

Question 17

Which energy level diagram shows the activation energy for an exothermic reaction?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C5.1: Exothermic and endothermic reactions — Draw and interpret energy level diagrams for exothermic and endothermic reactions, and identify activation energy on such diagrams.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In an exothermic reaction, the energy of the products is lower than the energy of the reactants, so the overall energy change \(\Delta H\) is negative; the diagram must show products at a lower energy level than reactants.
The activation energy is the energy difference between the reactants’ energy level and the peak (transition state) of the energy profile curve.
Diagram C correctly shows: products at a lower level than reactants (exothermic) and the activation energy arrow pointing from reactants up to the peak of the curve.
Answer: (C)

Question 18

The apparatus used to determine the rate of a chemical reaction is shown.

For which reaction is the rate determined using this apparatus?

A. \(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\)
B. \(2\text{C}_2\text{H}_6 + 7\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 4\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}\)
C. \(\text{MgCO}_3 + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{MgCl}_2 + \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}\)
D. \(\text{Cl}_2 + 2\text{NaBr} \rightarrow \text{Br}_2 + 2\text{NaCl}\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe methods of measuring the rate of reaction, including collection of gas, and identify which reactions are suitable for each method.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The apparatus shown collects gas produced by a reaction (gas syringe or inverted measuring cylinder over water), which is used to measure the volume of gas over time.
Reaction C (\(\text{MgCO}_3 + 2\text{HCl}\)) takes place in aqueous solution at room temperature and produces \(\text{CO}_2\) gas that can be collected and measured with this apparatus.
Reactions A and B require high temperatures (not suitable for this apparatus), and reaction D is a displacement reaction in solution producing no gas.
Answer: (C)

Question 19

The equation for the reaction between magnesium and zinc sulfate is shown.

\[\text{Mg} + \text{ZnSO}_4 \rightarrow \text{Zn} + \text{MgSO}_4\]

What happens to magnesium in this reaction?

A. It is oxidised because it gains electrons.
B. It is oxidised because it loses electrons.
C. It is reduced because it gains electrons.
D. It is reduced because it loses electrons.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.3: Redox — Define oxidation as loss of electrons and reduction as gain of electrons (OIL RIG), and identify which species is oxidised and which is reduced in a given reaction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In this displacement reaction, magnesium atoms (\(\text{Mg}\)) lose two electrons each to form \(\text{Mg}^{2+}\) ions: \(\text{Mg} \rightarrow \text{Mg}^{2+} + 2e^-\).
According to the OIL RIG rule — Oxidation Is Loss (of electrons), Reduction Is Gain (of electrons) — losing electrons means magnesium is oxidised.
Answer: (B)

Question 20

Cobalt(II) chloride, cobalt(II) nitrate, and cobalt(II) sulfate are soluble in water. Cobalt(II) oxide and cobalt(II) carbonate are insoluble in water.

Which method can be used to prepare a sample of solid cobalt(II) sulfate?

A. Mix aqueous sodium sulfate and aqueous cobalt(II) nitrate, then filter.
B. Mix excess aqueous sulfuric acid and aqueous cobalt(II) chloride, then filter and evaporate the filtrate.
C. Mix dilute sulfuric acid and an excess of cobalt(II) oxide, then distil.
D. Mix dilute sulfuric acid and an excess of cobalt(II) carbonate, then filter and evaporate the filtrate.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.3: Preparation of salts — Describe methods for preparing soluble salts, including reacting an acid with an excess of an insoluble base or carbonate, filtering off the excess, and evaporating the filtrate.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
To prepare a soluble salt such as cobalt(II) sulfate, the standard method is: react dilute sulfuric acid with an insoluble reactant in excess, then filter to remove the unreacted solid, and evaporate the filtrate to crystallise the salt.
Cobalt(II) carbonate is insoluble, so it can be added in excess to dilute \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\); the excess carbonate is removed by filtration, and the filtrate is evaporated to yield solid cobalt(II) sulfate.
Option A would not work because both reactants are soluble (no precipitate forms and no simple separation is possible); options B and C are also flawed in their procedures.
Answer: (D)

Question 21

What is warmed with a salt to test for ammonium ions?

A. aqueous barium chloride
B. aqueous litmus
C. aqueous silver nitrate
D. aqueous sodium hydroxide

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C7.3: Preparation of salts / Qualitative analysis — Describe the test for ammonium ions using aqueous sodium hydroxide: warm the mixture and test the gas produced with damp red litmus paper, which turns blue.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The test for ammonium ions (\(\text{NH}_4^+\)) involves adding aqueous sodium hydroxide (\(\text{NaOH}\)) to the salt and warming the mixture.
If ammonium ions are present, ammonia gas (\(\text{NH}_3\)) is produced: \(\text{NH}_4^+ + \text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{NH}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{O}\); the gas is detected by holding damp red litmus paper near the tube, which turns blue.
Answer: (D)

Question 22

Which statement about the halogens is not correct?

A. Bromine is darker in colour than iodine.
B. Iodine is solid at room temperature.
C. They all have seven electrons in their outer shell.
D. They all form diatomic molecules.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.3: Group VII properties — Describe the colours and physical states of the halogens at room temperature, their electronic configuration, and their diatomic molecular structure.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Going down Group VII, the halogens become darker in colour: fluorine is pale yellow, chlorine is yellow-green, bromine is orange-brown, and iodine is grey-black (producing a violet vapour).
Therefore, iodine is darker than bromine — statement A is incorrect because it claims bromine is darker than iodine, which is the reverse of the truth.
Statements B, C, and D are all correct facts about the halogens.
Answer: (A)

Question 23

Which statement describes a typical transition element?

A. It has a high melting point, high density and forms a coloured salt.
B. It has a high melting point, low density and forms a white salt.
C. It has a low melting point, low density and forms a coloured salt.
D. It has a low melting point, high density and forms a white salt.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C8.4: Transition elements — Describe the characteristic physical and chemical properties of transition elements, including high melting points, high densities, and the formation of coloured compounds.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Transition elements (e.g. iron, copper, zinc) are characterised by high melting points and high densities due to strong metallic bonding involving d-electrons.
They also form coloured compounds/salts because electrons in their partially filled d-orbitals can absorb specific wavelengths of visible light when transitioning between energy levels.
These three features together — high melting point, high density, coloured salts — are hallmarks of transition metals, matching statement A.
Answer: (A)

Question 24

When iron is galvanized, it is coated with a layer of zinc.

Which statements about galvanizing are correct?

  1. Zinc has a greater tendency to form positive ions than iron.
  2. Zinc prevents iron from rusting by sacrificial protection.
  3. Iron is more reactive than zinc.
  4. Zinc acts as a barrier method of rust prevention if scratched.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C9.3: Alloys and their properties / Topic C9.5: Corrosion of metals — Explain sacrificial protection and barrier methods of preventing rusting, and relate to the reactivity series.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Zinc is more reactive than iron and has a greater tendency to form positive ions (statement 1 is correct; statement 3 is incorrect — it reverses the reactivity).
Because zinc is more reactive, even when the zinc coating is scratched, zinc preferentially oxidises instead of iron — this is sacrificial protection (statement 2 is correct).
Statement 4 is incorrect: once scratched, a barrier method fails completely; it is the sacrificial protection that continues to protect the iron through zinc’s preferential corrosion.
Answer: (A)

Question 25

Which three elements do most fertilizers contain?

A. Na, C, P
B. Na, P, K
C. K, C, N
D. K, P, N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C2.1: Elements, compounds and mixtures / Topic C10.2: Air quality and climate — State that most fertilisers contain the essential elements nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K), often abbreviated as NPK.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Most fertilisers are formulated to supply the three major plant nutrients: nitrogen (N) for leaf and shoot growth, phosphorus (P) for root development and energy transfer, and potassium (K) for flower/fruit production and disease resistance.
These are collectively known as NPK fertilisers; sodium (Na) and carbon (C) are not primary nutrients in commercial fertilisers.
Answer: (D)

Question 26

Which reaction that occurs in the Contact process requires the use of a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst?

A. \(\text{S} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{SO}_2\)
B. \(2\text{SO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{SO}_3\)
C. \(\text{SO}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7\)
D. \(\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\)

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C6.2: Rate of reaction — Describe the role of catalysts in speeding up reactions, and explain the use of vanadium(V) oxide (\(\text{V}_2\text{O}_5\)) as a catalyst in the Contact process for the manufacture of sulfuric acid.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The Contact process manufactures sulfuric acid through several stages; the key catalysed step is the oxidation of sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide: \(2\text{SO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{SO}_3\).
This reaction is slow without a catalyst, so vanadium(V) oxide (\(\text{V}_2\text{O}_5\)) is used at approximately 450°C to increase the rate while maintaining an acceptable yield.
The other reactions in the process (burning sulfur, absorbing \(\text{SO}_3\), and diluting oleum) do not require this specific catalyst.
Answer: (B)

Question 27

Reactants for three chemical processes are listed.

  1. ethene + steam
  2. ethene + hydrogen
  3. ethene forming poly(ethene)

Which processes form saturated hydrocarbons?

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic C11.4: Alkanes / Topic C11.5: Alkenes — Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons, and describe the addition reactions of ethene (hydration, hydrogenation, and polymerisation).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A saturated hydrocarbon contains only single C–C bonds (no double bonds), while an unsaturated hydrocarbon contains at least one double bond.
Process 1 (ethene + steam) produces ethanol (\(\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH}\)), which contains oxygen and is not a hydrocarbon at all, so it does not form a saturated hydrocarbon.
Process 2 (ethene + hydrogen) produces ethane (\(\text{C}_2\text{H}_6\)), a saturated hydrocarbon; process 3 (polymerisation of ethene) produces poly(ethene), which has a saturated carbon backbone (the double bonds open up during polymerisation) — so processes 2 and 3 both form saturated hydrocarbons.
Answer: (D)

Question 28

The diagrams show four solid blocks of equal mass.

Which block is made from the least dense material?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.4: Density — Define density as \(\rho = m/V\) and use this to compare densities; understand that for equal masses, the least dense material occupies the largest volume.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Density is defined as \(\rho = \dfrac{m}{V}\); since all four blocks have equal mass, the one with the greatest volume has the lowest density.
The block with the largest dimensions (largest volume) among those of equal mass therefore has the least dense material.
From the diagram, block D has the greatest volume for the same mass, making it the least dense.
Answer: (D)

Question 29

A person uses a bar that is 3.0 m long to lift a rock of weight 900 N off the ground. There is a pivot under the bar at 0.50 m from the rock. The person pushes vertically downwards on the other end of the bar from the rock, as shown.

Ignore the weight of the bar. What is the minimum force needed to lift the rock off the ground?

A. 150 N
B. 180 N
C. 4500 N
D. 5400 N

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.5: Forces — Apply the principle of moments to levers: sum of clockwise moments = sum of anticlockwise moments about the pivot, and use \(\text{moment} = \text{force} \times \text{perpendicular distance from pivot}\).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The pivot is 0.50 m from the rock and \((3.0 – 0.50) = 2.50\) m from where the person pushes.
Applying the principle of moments (clockwise moment = anticlockwise moment): \(F \times 2.50 = 900 \times 0.50\), giving \(F = \dfrac{450}{2.50} = 180 \text{ N}\).
Answer: (B)

Question 30

Which energy resource does not have the Sun as its source of energy?

A. coal
B. geothermal
C. hydroelectric
D. water waves

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.6: Energy, work and power — Identify renewable and non-renewable energy resources and trace their origins; distinguish which resources are ultimately derived from the Sun and which are not.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Coal is a fossil fuel formed from ancient plant material that originally captured energy from sunlight via photosynthesis; hydroelectric power depends on the water cycle driven by solar evaporation; water waves are generated by wind, which is caused by uneven solar heating of the Earth’s surface.
Geothermal energy, however, originates from the decay of radioactive elements within the Earth and from the heat remaining from the planet’s formation — it has no dependence on the Sun.
Answer: (B)

Question 31

A sample of gas is sealed inside a container. The volume of the container is slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas remains constant.

Which row describes and explains what happens to the pressure of the gas?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P1.7: Pressure — Apply Boyle’s Law (\(P \propto 1/V\) at constant temperature) and explain the relationship between gas pressure and volume in terms of molecular collisions with the container walls.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
By Boyle’s Law, at constant temperature, pressure and volume are inversely proportional: \(P \propto \dfrac{1}{V}\), so decreasing the volume increases the pressure.
The explanation is that the same number of gas molecules are now confined to a smaller space, so they collide with the container walls more frequently, exerting a greater force per unit area (greater pressure).
Row D correctly states that pressure increases and gives the correct molecular explanation of more frequent collisions.
Answer: (D)

Question 32

There is a vacuum in the space between the Sun and the Earth.

How is thermal energy transferred from the Sun to the Earth?

A. by conduction only
B. by convection only
C. by radiation only
D. by convection and radiation

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P2.3: Transfer of thermal energy — Explain that radiation (infrared electromagnetic waves) is the only method of energy transfer that can occur through a vacuum, unlike conduction and convection which require a medium.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Conduction requires physical contact between particles, and convection requires a fluid medium (liquid or gas) — neither can operate through a vacuum.
Radiation involves the emission of electromagnetic waves (including infrared), which can travel through a vacuum at the speed of light and do not require a medium.
Therefore, the only way thermal energy can travel from the Sun through the vacuum of space to Earth is by radiation.
Answer: (C)

Question 33

A light wave travelling in air is refracted as it enters a glass block.

Which row shows the effect on the speed and the wavelength of the light wave as it enters the glass?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.1: General properties of waves — Explain refraction as a change in wave speed when passing between media; use \(v = f\lambda\) to show that when frequency is constant and speed decreases, wavelength also decreases.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Glass is optically denser than air, so light slows down as it enters the glass block — this is the cause of refraction.
Since frequency remains unchanged (it is determined by the source), and using the wave equation \(v = f\lambda\), a decrease in wave speed \(v\) at constant frequency \(f\) means the wavelength \(\lambda\) also decreases.
Row A correctly shows both speed and wavelength decrease upon entering the glass.
Answer: (A)

Question 34

The diagram shows the formation of an image of an object by a converging lens. Three points are labelled X, Y and Z.

Which labelled point is a principal focus of the lens and which distance is the focal length?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P3.2.3: Thin converging lens — Define the principal focus as the point through which parallel rays converge after passing through the lens, and define the focal length as the distance from the optical centre to the principal focus.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The principal focus of a converging lens is the point on the principal axis where parallel rays of light converge after passing through the lens; it lies between the lens centre and the image for real images.
The focal length is the distance from the optical centre of the lens to the principal focus.
From the diagram, point X is the principal focus (where parallel rays meet) and the distance from the lens centre to X is the focal length — matching row A.
Answer: (A)

Question 35

The current–voltage characteristic for a filament lamp is shown.

As the current increases, what happens to the temperature of the lamp filament and what happens to the resistance of the lamp filament?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — Describe how resistance of a metallic conductor changes with temperature, and interpret the non-linear I–V characteristic of a filament lamp in terms of increasing temperature and resistance.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
As current increases through the filament lamp, more electrical energy is dissipated as heat, so the filament’s temperature increases.
Higher temperature causes the metal ions in the filament to vibrate more vigorously, increasing the resistance to electron flow — so resistance also increases.
This is confirmed by the curve’s decreasing gradient (the I–V graph curves, meaning more voltage is needed per unit of current as current rises), consistent with row D: temperature increases, resistance increases.
Answer: (D)

Question 36

A 12 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 6.0 Ω resistor.

What is the combined resistance of the two resistors?

A. 0.25 Ω
B. 4.0 Ω
C. 9.0 Ω
D. 18 Ω

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.4: Resistance — Use the formula for combined resistance in parallel: \(\dfrac{1}{R_{\text{total}}} = \dfrac{1}{R_1} + \dfrac{1}{R_2}\), and recognise that parallel resistance is always less than the smallest individual resistance.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
For resistors in parallel: \(\dfrac{1}{R_{\text{total}}} = \dfrac{1}{R_1} + \dfrac{1}{R_2} = \dfrac{1}{12} + \dfrac{1}{6} = \dfrac{1}{12} + \dfrac{2}{12} = \dfrac{3}{12} = \dfrac{1}{4}\).
Therefore \(R_{\text{total}} = 4.0\) Ω. Note that the combined resistance in parallel is always less than the smallest individual resistor (6.0 Ω), which confirms 4.0 Ω is correct.
Answer: (B)

Question 37

An electric motor is connected to a power supply by insulated wires. The circuit is protected by a fuse, but the wires become hot.

Which change prevents the wires from becoming so hot?

A. Connect a second identical fuse in the circuit.
B. Use a fuse with a higher current rating.
C. Use thicker connecting wires.
D. Use thicker insulation on the connecting wires.

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.2.5: Electrical energy and electrical power — Explain that power dissipated in a wire depends on \(P = I^2 R\); thicker wires have lower resistance, so they dissipate less power as heat for the same current.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The heating of wires is caused by the power dissipated due to the wire’s resistance: \(P = I^2 R\); a thicker wire has a larger cross-sectional area, giving it a lower resistance \(R\).
Lower resistance means less power is dissipated as heat for the same current, so the wires remain cooler.
Using a higher-rated fuse (option B) is dangerous and does not reduce heating; thicker insulation (option D) traps heat rather than reducing it; adding a second fuse in series (option A) would just increase the chance of blowing a fuse but not reduce wire heating.
Answer: (C)

Question 38

Which diagram shows the pattern and the direction of the magnetic field around a straight wire carrying a current into the page?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5: Electromagnetic effects — Describe the magnetic field pattern around a current-carrying straight wire as concentric circles, and use the right-hand grip rule to determine the direction of the field relative to current direction.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire forms concentric circles centred on the wire.
Using the right-hand grip rule: if the current goes into the page (represented by a cross ✕), the magnetic field circles the wire in a clockwise direction when viewed from the front.
Diagram A shows concentric circles with a clockwise direction for a current going into the page — this is correct.
Answer: (A)

Question 39

What is the purpose of the slip rings in an alternating current (a.c.) generator?

A. to allow each end of the coil to contact each carbon brush alternately
B. to allow each end of the coil to remain in contact with the same carbon brush at all times
C. to maintain a constant voltage in the output circuit while the coil is rotating
D. to remain stationary while the coil rotates between them

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P4.5: Electromagnetic effects — Describe the structure and function of an a.c. generator, distinguishing the roles of slip rings (a.c. generator) and split-ring commutator (d.c. generator).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
In an a.c. generator, slip rings rotate with the coil; each end of the coil is permanently connected to one slip ring, and each slip ring remains in contact with the same carbon brush throughout rotation.
This continuous contact allows current to flow to the external circuit without interruption, and because each end of the coil stays connected to the same brush, the output current alternates as the coil rotates — producing a.c.
This contrasts with a split-ring commutator (used in d.c. generators), which swaps connections every half turn to produce direct current.
Answer: (B)

Question 40

A radioactive source emits beta (β)-particles and gamma (γ)-rays. Both types of radiation enter the magnetic field between the poles of a magnet, as shown.

In which direction does each type of radiation travel after entering the magnetic field?

Most-appropriate topic codes (Cambridge IGCSE Co-ordinated Sciences 0654):

Topic P5.2.2: Radioactivity — Describe the behaviour of alpha, beta and gamma radiation in a magnetic field; explain that gamma rays are undeflected (no charge) and beta particles are deflected (negatively charged).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves with no charge, so they are not deflected by a magnetic field and continue in a straight line.
Beta particles are fast-moving electrons (charge \(-e\)) and are deflected by the magnetic field; the direction of deflection is given by Fleming’s left-hand rule (or the right-hand rule for negative charges), and beta particles deflect in the opposite direction to positive charges (alpha particles).
Row D correctly shows gamma going straight and beta being deflected — confirming the answer.
Answer: (D)
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