AP Statistics 2.7 Independent Events and Unions of Events- Exam Style Questions - FRQs - New Syllabus
Question
ii. Suppose two songs are selected at random to be played. What is the probability that both songs are rock songs? Show your work.
ii. What is the expected value for the random variable in part B (i)? Show your work.
ii. Suppose 4 rock songs are played during a particular one-hour period. Does this provide strong evidence that the song selection process was not truly random? Justify your answer without performing an inference procedure.
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(2.7\) — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Part \( \mathrm{A} \))
• Topic \(2.10\) — The Binomial Distribution (Parts \( \mathrm{B} \), \( \mathrm{C} \))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
A. i.
Let \(R\) represent selecting a rock song.
\(P(R) = \dfrac{\text{Number of rock songs}}{\text{Total number of songs}} = \dfrac{100}{1,000}\)
\(\boxed{P(R) = 0.10}\)
A. ii.
Because any song can be repeated, the selection of the second song is independent of the first.
\(P(\text{Both Rock}) = P(R) \times P(R) = 0.10 \times 0.10\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{Both Rock}) = 0.01}\)
B. i.
• Let \(X\) be the random variable representing the number of rock songs played in a one-hour period.
• The random variable \(X\) follows a binomial distribution, expressed as \(X \sim \text{Binomial}(n = 20, p = 0.10)\).
B. ii.
The expected value of a binomial distribution is given by the formula \(E(X) = n \cdot p\).
\(E(X) = 20 \times 0.10\)
\(\boxed{E(X) = 2\text{ songs}}\)
C. i.
We want to calculate \(P(X \ge 4) = 1 – P(X \le 3)\).
Using the binomial cumulative distribution formula, \(P(X \le 3) = \sum_{k=0}^{3} \binom{20}{k} (0.10)^k (0.90)^{20-k} \approx 0.8670\).
\(P(X \ge 4) = 1 – 0.8670\)
\(\boxed{P(X \ge 4) = 0.1330}\)
C. ii.
• No, this does not provide strong evidence that the song selection process was not truly random.
• The calculated probability of playing 4 or more rock songs is \(0.1330\), which is greater than conventional significance thresholds like \(\alpha = 0.05\), meaning an outcome of 4 rock songs is a relatively common chance occurrence.
Question

Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(2.7\) — Independent Events and Mutually Exclusive Events (Part \( \mathrm{b} \))
• Topic \(2.10\) — The Binomial Distribution (Part \( \mathrm{c} \))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)(i)
From the given two-way table, we can find the joint probability directly by looking at the intersection of the “Women” row and “Never” column.
\(P(\text{never and woman}) = 0.0636\)
(a)(ii)
To find this probability, we use the general addition rule by adding the marginal probability of “never” to the marginal probability of “woman”, and subtracting their intersection.
\(P(\text{never or woman}) = P(\text{never}) + P(\text{woman}) – P(\text{never and woman})\)
\(P(\text{never or woman}) = 0.1200 + 0.5300 – 0.0636 = 0.5864\)
(a)(iii)
For conditional probability, we divide the joint probability of both events occurring by the marginal probability of the given condition (“woman”).
\(P(\text{never} \mid \text{woman}) = \dfrac{P(\text{never and woman})}{P(\text{woman})}\)
\(P(\text{never} \mid \text{woman}) = \dfrac{0.0636}{0.5300} = 0.12\)
(b)
We can check for independence by seeing if the conditional probability of an event equals its marginal probability.
Since \(P(\text{never} \mid \text{woman}) = 0.12\) and the overall probability \(P(\text{never}) = 0.12\), the probabilities are identical.
Yes, this indicates that the event of responding “never” is perfectly independent of the event of being a “woman”.
(c)
This scenario can be modeled using a binomial distribution with \(n=5\) trials and a success probability of \(p=0.54\).
We need to find the probability of getting at least \(4\) successes, which means finding the sum of \(P(X=4)\) and \(P(X=5)\).
\(P(X \ge 4) = \binom{5}{4}(0.54)^4(0.46)^1 + \binom{5}{5}(0.54)^5(0.46)^0\)
\(P(X \ge 4) \approx 0.19557 + 0.04592 \approx 0.24149\)
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(2.7\) — Independent Events and Mutually Exclusive Events (Parts \( \mathrm{a} \), \( \mathrm{b} \))
• Topic \(2.10\) — The Binomial Distribution (Part \( \mathrm{c} \))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
Let \(L\) denote the event that a child is left-handed, \(M\) denote the event of a multiple birth, and \(S\) denote the event of a single birth.
We are given: \(P(M) = 0.035\), \(P(S) = 0.965\), \(P(L \mid M) = 0.22\), and \(P(L \mid S) = 0.11\).
Apply the Law of Total Probability:
\(P(L) = P(M) \cdot P(L \mid M) + P(S) \cdot P(L \mid S)\)
\(P(L) = (0.035)(0.22) + (0.965)(0.11)\)
\(P(L) = 0.0077 + 0.10615\)
\(\boxed{P(L) = 0.11385}\)
Think of this as a weighted average of the two left-handedness rates — you weight each group’s rate by how large that group is. Since single births make up the overwhelming majority (96.5%), they drive the overall rate, which lands very close to 11%. The small multiple-birth group nudges it up just slightly to about 11.4%.
(b)
We use the definition of conditional probability to find \(P(M \mid L)\).
\(P(M \mid L) = \dfrac{P(M \cap L)}{P(L)}\)
The joint probability \(P(M \cap L)\) is found using the multiplication rule:
\(P(M \cap L) = P(M) \cdot P(L \mid M) = (0.035)(0.22) = 0.0077\)
Using \(P(L) = 0.11385\) from part (a):
\(P(M \mid L) = \dfrac{0.0077}{0.11385}\)
\(\boxed{P(M \mid L) \approx 0.0676}\)
This is a classic Bayes-style reversal — we flipped from “given multiple birth, what’s the chance of being left-handed?” to “given left-handed, what’s the chance of multiple birth?” Even though multiple-birth children are twice as likely to be left-handed (22% vs. 11%), they are so rare (only 3.5% of all births) that among all left-handed children, only about 6.8% actually come from multiple births. Rarity wins.
(c)
Let \(X\) represent the number of left-handed children in a random sample of \(20\). Since each child is selected independently with the same probability of being left-handed, \(X\) follows a binomial distribution:
\(X \sim \operatorname{Binomial}(n = 20,\; p = 0.11385)\)
We want \(P(X \geq 3)\). Using the complement:
\(P(X \geq 3) = 1 – P(X \leq 2) = 1 – \bigl[P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)\bigr]\)
Using the binomial formula \(\displaystyle P(X = k) = \binom{20}{k}(0.11385)^{k}(0.88615)^{20-k}\):
\(P(X = 0) = \dbinom{20}{0}(0.11385)^{0}(0.88615)^{20} \approx 0.0891\)
\(P(X = 1) = \dbinom{20}{1}(0.11385)^{1}(0.88615)^{19} \approx 0.2289\)
\(P(X = 2) = \dbinom{20}{2}(0.11385)^{2}(0.88615)^{18} \approx 0.2797\)
Summing the complement terms:
\(P(X \leq 2) \approx 0.0891 + 0.2289 + 0.2797 = 0.5977\)
\(P(X \geq 3) = 1 – 0.5977\)
\(\boxed{P(X \geq 3) \approx 0.402}\)
The complement trick is your best friend here — instead of adding up \(P(X=3) + P(X=4) + \cdots + P(X=20)\), which would take forever, you subtract the small pile of easy cases (0, 1, or 2 left-handed kids) from 1. With only about an 11.4% chance per child, there’s roughly a 40% chance that 3 or more kids in a group of 20 will be left-handed — higher than you might expect, because “at least 3” covers most of the distribution.
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(2.7\) — Independent Events and Mutually Exclusive Events (Parts \( \mathrm{b} \), \( \mathrm{c} \))
• Topic \(2.11\) — The Normal Distribution (Part \( \mathrm{a} \))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
Let \(X\) denote the diameter (in mm) of a randomly selected melon from Distributor J. We are told that \(X\) follows an approximately normal distribution with mean \(\mu = 133\) mm and standard deviation \(\sigma = 5\) mm.
First, convert the boundary value to a \(z\)-score:
\( z = \dfrac{137 – 133}{5} = \dfrac{4}{5} = 0.8 \)
Now find the probability to the right of \(z = 0.8\) using the standard normal table:
\( P(X > 137) = P(Z > 0.8) = 1 – P(Z < 0.8) = 1 – 0.7881 \)
\( \boxed{P(X > 137) = 0.2119} \)
(b)
Define the following events:
\(J\): the melon is from Distributor J
\(K\): the melon is from Distributor K
\(G\): the melon has a diameter greater than \(137\) mm
We are given \(P(J) = 0.70\), \(P(K) = 0.30\), \(P(G \mid J) = 0.2119\), and \(P(G \mid K) = 0.8413\).
Using the Law of Total Probability:
\( P(G) = P(G \mid J)\cdot P(J) + P(G \mid K)\cdot P(K) \)
\( P(G) = (0.2119)(0.70) + (0.8413)(0.30) \)
\( P(G) = 0.14833 + 0.25239 \)
\( \boxed{P(G) = 0.4007} \)
(c)
We want the conditional probability that the melon is from Distributor J, given that its diameter is greater than \(137\) mm. Using the definition of conditional probability:
\( P(J \mid G) = \dfrac{P(J \cap G)}{P(G)} \)
The joint probability \(P(J \cap G)\) was found in part (b):
\( P(J \cap G) = P(G \mid J)\cdot P(J) = (0.2119)(0.70) = 0.14833 \)
Substituting into the formula:
\( P(J \mid G) = \dfrac{0.14833}{0.40072} \)
\( \boxed{P(J \mid G) \approx 0.3701} \)
Even though Distributor J supplies \(70\%\) of the melons in the store, only about \(37\%\) of the large-diameter melons (over \(137\) mm) come from Distributor J — this makes sense because Distributor K’s melons are much more likely to be large, so they dominate that group despite being the smaller supplier.
Question

(i) Complete the table below by calculating the probability of each arrangement occurring if the sequential coin flip method is used.


(i) Complete the table below by calculating the probability of each arrangement occurring if the chip method is used.

Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(2.6\) — Conditional Probability (Parts \( \mathrm{a} \), \( \mathrm{b} \))
• Topic \(2.7\) — Independent Events and Mutually Exclusive Events (Parts \( \mathrm{a} \), \( \mathrm{b} \))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)(i)
Let T (tail) represent being assigned to the treatment group and H (head) represent being assigned to the control group. The process stops as soon as one group fills up. We trace each possible sequence of flips:

(a)(ii)
Man 1 and Man 2 are assigned to the same group only in Arrangements A (both in treatment) and D (both in control). So the probability is:
\(P(A) + P(D) = \dfrac{1}{4} + \dfrac{1}{4} = \boxed{\dfrac{1}{2}}\)
(b)(i)
Let T represent being assigned to the treatment group and C represent being assigned to the control group. Since chips are drawn without replacement from a pool of 2 T chips and 2 C chips, the probabilities change at each draw. Working through each arrangement:

(b)(ii)
Man 1 and Man 2 are in the same group only in Arrangements A and D. Therefore:
\(P(A) + P(D) = \dfrac{1}{6} + \dfrac{1}{6} = \boxed{\dfrac{1}{3}}\)
(c)
The chip method should be used. Here is the reasoning:
From parts (a)(i) and (b)(i), the chip method gives every arrangement an equal probability of \(\dfrac{1}{6}\), while the coin flip method assigns unequal probabilities — arrangements A and D each have probability \(\dfrac{1}{4}\), while B, C, E, and F each have probability \(\dfrac{1}{8}\).
From parts (a)(ii) and (b)(ii), the probability that both men end up in the same group is \(\dfrac{1}{2}\) under the coin method but only \(\dfrac{1}{3}\) under the chip method. Since students enter first and teachers enter next, the coin flip method is more likely to place all students together in one group — if teachers and students have different food preferences, this imbalance would make it impossible to tell whether any observed difference in lunch preference is due to the treatment (type of lunch) or the role of the participant (teacher vs. student).
The chip method, by giving all arrangements an equal chance, is therefore more appropriate for this experiment.
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(2.7\) — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Parts \( \mathrm{a} \), \( \mathrm{b} \))
• Topic \(3.6\) — \(p\)-Values (Part \( \mathrm{c} \))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
Since failures are independent and the failure rate is \(p = 0.15\), the probability that a single super igniter successfully launches a rocket is:
\(P(\text{success}) = 1 – 0.15 = 0.85\)
For the first 30 super igniters to all successfully launch, each of the 30 independent trials must be a success:
\(P(\text{first 30 all succeed}) = (0.85)^{30}\)
\(P(\text{first 30 all succeed}) = (0.85)^{30} \approx 0.0076\)
\(\boxed{P \approx 0.0076}\)
(b)
We are told the first 30 igniters all succeeded. We want the probability that the first failure occurs on either the 31st or the 32nd igniter tested.
For the first failure to occur on the 31st igniter, the 31st must fail. Since failures are independent and we are conditioning on the 30 prior successes:
\(P(\text{failure on 31st}) = 0.15\)
For the first failure to occur on the 32nd igniter, the 31st must succeed AND the 32nd must fail:
\(P(\text{failure on 32nd}) = (0.85)(0.15) = 0.1275\)
These two events are mutually exclusive, so:
\(P(\text{first failure on 31st or 32nd}) = 0.15 + (0.85)(0.15)\)
\(= 0.15 + 0.1275 = 0.2775\)
\(\boxed{P \approx 0.2775}\)
(c)
Yes, it is reasonable to believe that the failure rate of the super igniters is less than 15 percent.
If the failure rate were truly 15 percent (same as the original igniters), the probability of the first 30 super igniters all successfully launching rockets would be only about \(0.0076\), or less than 1 percent. This is an extremely unlikely outcome under the assumption that the failure rate is 15 percent.
Because observing 30 consecutive successes would be so rare if the failure rate were really 15 percent, getting this result in the test provides strong evidence that the true failure rate of the super igniters is lower than 15 percent. The data are inconsistent with a 15 percent failure rate, so it is indeed reasonable to believe the super igniters have a lower failure rate than the original igniters.
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(4.1\) — Sampling Distributions for Sample Means (Part \( \mathrm{b} \))
• Topic \(2.6\) — Probability Rules and Calculations of Probability (Part \( \mathrm{c} \))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
The daily number of absences follows an approximately normal distribution with \(\mu = 120\) and \(\sigma = 10.5\). We need \(P(X > 140)\).
First, compute the \(z\)-score for \(x = 140\):
\(z = \dfrac{x – \mu}{\sigma} = \dfrac{140 – 120}{10.5} \approx 1.90\)
From the standard normal table, \(P(Z \leq 1.90) = 0.9713\), so:
\(P(X > 140) = 1 – P(Z \leq 1.90) = 1 – 0.9713 = 0.0287\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{lose funding}) \approx 0.0287}\)
(b)
High School A would be less likely to lose funding under the suggested plan.
Under the suggested plan, the relevant quantity is the sample mean \(\bar{x}\) of absences over 3 days. By the Central Limit Theorem, \(\bar{x}\) is approximately normally distributed with the same mean \(\mu_{\bar{x}} = 120\) but a smaller standard deviation:
\(\sigma_{\bar{x}} = \dfrac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}} = \dfrac{10.5}{\sqrt{3}} \approx 6.062\)
Now compute the \(z\)-score for \(\bar{x} = 140\):
\(z = \dfrac{140 – 120}{6.062} \approx 3.30\)
From the standard normal table, \(P(Z \leq 3.30) = 0.9995\), so:
\(P(\bar{x} > 140) = 1 – 0.9995 = 0.0005\)
Since \(0.0005 < 0.0287\), the school is less likely to lose funding under the 3-day plan. Taking the average over multiple days reduces variability, making it much harder for the mean to stray as far as 140 from the center of 120.
(c)
A typical school week has 5 days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday. The “bad” days (Monday or Friday) number 2 out of 5, while the “safe” days (Tuesday, Wednesday, or Thursday) number 3 out of 5.
We want the probability that none of the 3 days chosen (one from each of 3 weeks) is a Tuesday, Wednesday, or Thursday — meaning all 3 days must be Monday or Friday.
For any one week, the probability of choosing a Monday or Friday is:
\(P(\text{Mon or Fri}) = \dfrac{2}{5} = 0.4\)
Since the day chosen each week is independent of the other weeks:
\(P(\text{none of the 3 days is Tue, Wed, or Thu}) = (0.4)^3 = 0.064\)
\(\boxed{P = 0.064}\)
Question



Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic 2.7 — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Part b)
• Topic 2.1 — Tabular and Graphical Representations for the Distributions of Two Categorical Variables (Part c)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
We need to find the conditional probability that a voter is registered for Party Y, given they are male. Looking only at the “Male” row, there are $200$ total males, and $48$ of them are registered for Party Y.
$P(\text{Party Y} \mid \text{Male}) = \frac{48}{200} = 0.24$
(b)
No, the events “is a male” and “is registered for Party Y” are not independent.
Two events $A$ and $B$ are independent if $P(A \mid B) = P(A)$. Let’s compare the conditional probability from part (a) to the overall marginal probability of being registered for Party Y.
$P(\text{Party Y}) = \frac{168}{500} = 0.336$
Since $P(\text{Party Y} \mid \text{Male}) = 0.24$ and $P(\text{Party Y}) = 0.336$, the probabilities are not equal ($0.24 \neq 0.336$). Knowing that a randomly selected voter is male changes the probability that they are registered for Party Y, so the events are dependent.
(c)
Because party registration is independent of gender in Lawrence Township, the distribution of party registration for both males and females must be identical to the overall marginal distribution of the town.
We first calculate the overall proportions for each party (which are the same as Franklin Township’s overall proportions):
Party W: $\frac{88}{500} = 0.176$
Party X: $\frac{244}{500} = 0.488$
Party Y: $\frac{168}{500} = 0.336$
To complete the segmented bar graph, you would draw identical bars for both the Male and Female categories with the following dividing lines:
• The segment for Party W starts at $0.0$ and ends at $0.176$.
• The segment for Party X starts at $0.176$ and ends at $0.176 + 0.488 = 0.664$.
• The segment for Party Y starts at $0.664$ and extends to $1.0$.

Question


Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic 2.6 — Conditional Probability (Part b)
• Topic 2.7 — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Part c)
• Topic 3.4 — Justifying a Claim Based on a Confidence Interval for a Population Proportion (Part d)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
We want to construct a 99% confidence interval for the true proportion $p$.
First, calculate our point estimate and confirm design guidelines:
$\hat{p} = \frac{2,688}{9,600} = 0.28$
$n\hat{p} = 2,688 \ge 10 \quad \text{and} \quad n(1-\hat{p}) = 9,600 – 2,688 = 6,912 \ge 10$
The sample is random, and success/failure counts are well above 10, satisfying normality criteria. Using critical value $z^* = 2.576$:
$\text{Margin of Error} = z^* \sqrt{\frac{\hat{p}(1-\hat{p})}{9,600}} = 2.576 \sqrt{\frac{0.28 \times 0.72}{9,600}} = 2.576 \times 0.004583 = 0.0118$
$\text{Interval} = 0.28 \pm 0.0118 \rightarrow (0.2682, 0.2918)$
Interpretation: We are 99% confident that the true proportion of all United States twelfth-grade students who would answer this history question correctly is between $0.2682$ and $0.2918$.
(b)

The branches are filled based on the structural logic given in the problem prompt:
• The top initial branch represents the probability a student Knows the answer, which is: $k$
• The bottom initial branch represents the probability a student Does not know the answer, which is: $1 – k$
• Given they know the answer, they choose the correct option with absolute certainty, making the conditional probability of a Correct response: $1$
• Given they do not know the answer, they choose by random guessing out of 4 options, making the conditional probability of a Correct response: $\frac{1}{4} = 0.25$
(c)
To find the overall proportion $p$ of correct answers, accumulate the final correct path terminals from your tree model:
$p = P(\text{Knows}) \times P(\text{Correct} \mid \text{Knows}) + P(\text{Doesn’t Know}) \times P(\text{Correct} \mid \text{Doesn’t Know})$
$p = k(1) + (1-k)(0.25)$
$p = k + 0.25 – 0.25k = 0.75k + 0.25$
(d)
To construct a 99% interval for $k$, isolate $k$ from our part (c) linear transformation model:
$p = 0.75k + 0.25 \implies p – 0.25 = 0.75k \implies k = \frac{p – 0.25}{0.75}$
Now, substitute the lower and upper bounds of $p$ from part (a) into this equation:
$\text{Lower Bound for } k = \frac{0.2682 – 0.25}{0.75} = \frac{0.0182}{0.75} = 0.0243$
$\text{Upper Bound for } k = \frac{0.2918 – 0.25}{0.75} = \frac{0.0418}{0.75} = 0.0557$
The resulting 99% confidence interval for the proportion of students who actually know the answer is $(0.0243, 0.0557)$.
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic 2.10 — The Binomial Distribution (Part a)
• Topic 2.7 — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Part a)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
Let \(Y\) denote the number of flights Sam must make until he receives his first upgrade. The random variable \(Y\) follows a geometric distribution with \(p = 0.1\).
The probability that Sam’s upgrade will occur after his third flight is equivalent to the probability that he receives no upgrade on his first three flights.
\(P(Y \ge 4) = 1 – P(Y \le 3)\)
\(= 1 – [P(Y=1) + P(Y=2) + P(Y=3)]\)
\(= 1 – [0.1 + 0.9(0.1) + (0.9)^2(0.1)]\)
\(= 1 – [0.1 + 0.09 + 0.081]\)
\(= 0.729\)
\(\boxed{0.729}\)
(b)
Let \(X\) denote the number of upgrades Sam will receive in \(20\) flights. The random variable \(X\) follows a binomial distribution with \(n = 20\) independent trials and \(p = 0.1\).
The probability that Sam will be upgraded exactly \(2\) times is calculated as follows:
\(P(X = 2) = \binom{20}{2}(0.1)^2(0.9)^{18}\)
\(\approx 0.2852\)
\(\boxed{P(X = 2) \approx 0.2852}\)
(c)
Let \(X\) denote the number of upgrades Sam will receive in \(104\) flights. The random variable \(X\) follows a binomial distribution with \(n = 104\) independent trials and \(p = 0.1\).
We need to find the probability of receiving more than \(20\) upgrades:
\(P(X > 20) = 1 – P(X \le 20)\)
\(\approx 1 – 0.9986\)
\(\approx 0.0014\)
Because this probability is so small (less than \(1\%\)), it is very unlikely that Sam would receive more than \(20\) upgrades in \(104\) flights if the airline’s claim is correct. This would be expected to happen less than \(1\) percent of the time.
Therefore, I would be surprised if Sam receives more than \(20\) upgrades during the year.
Question

(d) The company wants to conduct a statistical test to investigate whether there is an association between educational achievement and primary source for news for adults in the city. What is the name of the statistical test that should be used?
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(2.6\) — Conditional Probability (Part \(\mathrm{b}\))
• Topic \(2.7\) — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Parts \(\mathrm{a}\), \(\mathrm{c}\))
• Topic \(3.14\) — Setting Up a Chi-Square Test for Homogeneity or Independence (Part \(\mathrm{d}\))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
Let \(C\) = event that the adult is a college graduate, and \(I\) = event that the adult obtains news primarily from the internet.
Using the Addition Rule:
\(P(C \cup I) = P(C) + P(I) – P(C \cap I)\)
Reading the values directly from the table:
\(P(C) = \frac{693}{2500}, \qquad P(I) = \frac{687}{2500}, \qquad P(C \cap I) = \frac{245}{2500}\)
\(P(C \cup I) = \frac{693}{2500} + \frac{687}{2500} – \frac{245}{2500} = \frac{693 + 687 – 245}{2500} = \frac{1135}{2500}\)
\(\boxed{P(C \cup I) = \frac{1135}{2500} = 0.454}\)
Don’t forget to subtract the overlap — college graduates who use the internet get counted in both the college graduate total and the internet total, so we subtract them once to avoid double-counting.
(b)
We want the conditional probability that an adult obtains news from the internet, given that the adult is a college graduate. From the table, among the 693 college graduates, 245 primarily use the internet:
\(P(I \mid C) = \frac{P(C \cap I)}{P(C)} = \frac{\dfrac{245}{2500}}{\dfrac{693}{2500}} = \frac{245}{693}\)
\(\boxed{P(I \mid C) = \frac{245}{693} \approx 0.354}\)
This is a conditional probability — we’ve already restricted our pool to only the 693 college graduates, so 693 becomes the new denominator. The 2,500 total cancels out entirely.
(c)
Two events are independent if and only if \(P(A \cap B) = P(A) \cdot P(B)\), which is equivalent to checking whether \(P(I \mid C) = P(I)\).
From the table:
\(P(I) = \frac{687}{2500} = 0.275\)
\(P(I \mid C) = \frac{245}{693} \approx 0.354\)
Since \(P(I \mid C) \approx 0.354 \neq 0.275 = P(I)\), the two events are not independent.
We can also verify using the multiplication rule directly:
\(P(C) \cdot P(I) = \frac{693}{2500} \times \frac{687}{2500} = \frac{476{,}091}{6{,}250{,}000} \approx 0.0762\)
\(P(C \cap I) = \frac{245}{2500} = 0.098\)
Since \(0.098 \neq 0.0762\), the events are confirmed to be not independent. In real terms, college graduates are noticeably more likely to get their news from the internet than the general adult population — that difference in rates is exactly what “not independent” means here.
(d)
The appropriate test is the Chi-Square Test of Association (or Independence).
This test is used when we want to determine whether there is an association between two categorical variables — here, educational achievement (3 categories) and primary news source (5 categories).
The degrees of freedom are calculated as:
\(\text{df} = (\text{number of rows} – 1) \times (\text{number of columns} – 1)\)
\(\text{df} = (5 – 1) \times (3 – 1) = 4 \times 2 = \boxed{8}\)
There are 5 rows (news source categories) and 3 columns (education levels), not counting the totals row and column. The degrees of freedom formula captures how many cells in the table are “free to vary” once the row and column totals are fixed.
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(2.7\) — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Part \(\mathrm{c}\))
• Topic \(2.5\) — Mutually Exclusive Events (Part \(\mathrm{c}\), complement rule)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
Out of the 500 blood samples known to not contain HIV, the ELISA returned a positive result for 37 of them.
So the estimated probability that the ELISA is positive given no HIV is:
\(P(\text{positive} \mid \text{no HIV}) = \frac{37}{500} = 0.074\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{positive} \mid \text{no HIV}) \approx 0.074}\)
(b)
First, find the total number of blood samples that returned a positive ELISA result across both groups:
\(489 + 37 = 526 \text{ positive results in total}\)
Of those 526 positive results, 489 actually came from samples that truly contained HIV.
So the proportion of positive ELISA results that actually contained HIV is:
\(\frac{489}{526} \approx 0.9297\)
\(\boxed{\frac{489}{526} \approx 0.9297}\)
(c)
From part (a), the probability the ELISA is positive for a sample with no HIV is \(0.074\), and therefore the probability it is negative is \(1 – 0.074 = 0.926\).
A sample with no HIV will be sent for the expensive test if: the 1st ELISA is positive AND at least one of the 2 follow-up ELISAs is also positive.
Find the probability that at least one of the two follow-up tests is positive (using the complement):
\(P(\text{at least one positive in 2 follow-ups}) = 1 – P(\text{both negative}) = 1 – (0.926)^2\)
\(= 1 – 0.857476 = 0.142524\)
Now multiply by the probability the first ELISA is positive:
\(P(\text{subjected to expensive test}) = (0.074)(0.142524)\)
\(= 0.010547\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{subjected to expensive test}) \approx 0.0105}\)
Question



Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic \(2.9\) — Parameters of Random Variables (Part \(\mathrm{a}\))
• Topic \(2.7\) — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Parts \(\mathrm{b}\), \(\mathrm{c}\), \(\mathrm{d}\))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
The expected value (mean) of a discrete random variable is \(\mu = \sum x_i \cdot P(x_i)\). We apply this to each player’s distribution.
For Josephine:
\(\mu_J = 16(0.10) + 17(0.30) + 18(0.40) + 19(0.20)\)
\(\mu_J = 1.6 + 5.1 + 7.2 + 3.8 = \boxed{17.7}\)
For Crystal:
\(\mu_C = 17(0.45) + 18(0.40) + 19(0.15)\)
\(\mu_C = 7.65 + 7.20 + 2.85 = \boxed{17.7}\)
Both players have the same expected score of \(17.7\).
(b)
We need all pairs \((J, C)\) such that \(J – C = -1\), i.e., Josephine’s score is exactly 1 less than Crystal’s. Since scores are independent, the probability of each pair is the product of the individual probabilities.
\(J = 16,\ C = 17\): \(\quad P = (0.10)(0.45) = 0.045\)
\(J = 17,\ C = 18\): \(\quad P = (0.30)(0.40) = 0.120\)
\(J = 18,\ C = 19\): \(\quad P = (0.40)(0.15) = 0.060\)
These are the only three combinations that produce a difference of \(-1\).
(c)
Since the three combinations in part (b) are mutually exclusive, we simply add their probabilities:
\(P(J – C = -1) = 0.045 + 0.120 + 0.060\)
\(\boxed{P(J – C = -1) = 0.225}\)
(d)
First, we find the missing probability for a difference of \(-2\). Since all probabilities in the distribution must sum to 1:
\(P(J – C = -2) = 1 – 0.015 – 0.225 – 0.325 – 0.260 – 0.090\)
\(P(J – C = -2) = 1 – 0.915 = \boxed{0.085}\)
The completed distribution table is:

Crystal’s score is higher than Josephine’s when the difference \(J – C < 0\), i.e., when the difference is \(-3\), \(-2\), or \(-1\).
\(P(\text{Crystal} > \text{Josephine}) = P(J – C < 0) = 0.015 + 0.085 + 0.225\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{Crystal} > \text{Josephine}) = 0.325}\)
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic 2.7 — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Part \(\mathrm{b}\))
• Topic 2.12 — Sampling Distributions and the Central Limit Theorem (Part \(\mathrm{c}\))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
Since \(M = D + E\) is a normal random variable plus a constant, \(M\) is also normally distributed.
With true depth \(D = 2\) feet, the distribution of \(M\) has:
\(\mu_M = 2\,\text{feet}, \qquad \sigma_M = 1.5\,\text{feet}\)
We want \(P(M < 0)\). Standardizing:
\(P(M < 0) = P\!\left(Z < \frac{0 – 2}{1.5}\right) = P(Z < -1.33)\)
Using the standard normal table:
\(\boxed{P(M < 0) \approx 0.0918}\)
(b)
Let each individual measurement be negative with probability \(p = 0.0918\) (from part (a)), and let the three measurements be independent.
Using the complement rule — it is easier to find the probability that none of the three measurements is negative, then subtract from 1:
\(P(\text{at least one negative}) = 1 – P(\text{none negative})\)
\(= 1 – (1 – 0.0918)^3\)
\(= 1 – (0.9082)^3\)
\(= 1 – 0.7491\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{at least one negative}) \approx 0.2509}\)
(c)
Let \(\bar{X}\) denote the mean of three independent depth measurements where the true depth is \(2\) feet.
Since each measurement is normally distributed, the sampling distribution of \(\bar{X}\) is also normal with:
\(\mu_{\bar{X}} = 2\,\text{feet}, \qquad \sigma_{\bar{X}} = \frac{1.5}{\sqrt{3}} = 0.8660\,\text{feet}\)
We want \(P(\bar{X} < 0)\). Standardizing:
\(P(\bar{X} < 0) = P\!\left(Z < \frac{0 – 2}{1.5/\sqrt{3}}\right) = P\!\left(Z < \frac{-2}{0.8660}\right) = P(Z < -2.31)\)
Using the standard normal table:
\(\boxed{P(\bar{X} < 0) \approx 0.0104}\)
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic 2.10 — The Binomial Distribution (Part \(\mathrm{b}\))
• Topic 2.7 — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Part \(\mathrm{b}\))
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
Let \(D\) represent the distance a randomly selected ball travels. We are given that \(D\) is normally distributed with mean \(\mu = 288\) yards and standard deviation \(\sigma = 2.8\) yards.
A ball travels “too far” if it exceeds 291.2 yards, so we need:
\(P(D > 291.2)\)
Converting to a \(z\)-score:
\(z = \frac{291.2 – 288}{2.8} = \frac{3.2}{2.8} = 1.14\)
\(P(D > 291.2) = P(Z > 1.14) = 1 – P(Z \leq 1.14) = 1 – 0.8729 = 0.1271\)
\(\boxed{P(D > 291.2) \approx 0.1271}\)
(b)
Since five balls are independently tested and the probability that any one ball exceeds 291.2 yards is \(p = 0.1271\) (from part a), the number of balls exceeding the limit follows a binomial distribution with \(n = 5\) and \(p = 0.1271\).
Using the complement rule:
\(P(\text{at least one} > 291.2) = 1 – P(\text{none} > 291.2)\)
\(= 1 – P(\text{all five} \leq 291.2)\)
\(= 1 – (1 – 0.1271)^5\)
\(= 1 – (0.8729)^5\)
\(= 1 – 0.5068\)
\(= 0.4932\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{at least one ball exceeds 291.2 yards}) \approx 0.4932}\)
(c)
We want the manufacturer to be 99 percent certain that a randomly selected ball will not exceed 291.2 yards, meaning:
\(P(D \leq 291.2) = 0.99\)
The 99th percentile of the standard normal distribution corresponds to \(z^* = 2.33\).
Setting up the equation with the unknown mean \(\mu\):
\(\frac{291.2 – \mu}{2.8} = 2.33\)
Solving for \(\mu\):
\(291.2 – \mu = 2.33 \times 2.8 = 6.524\)
\(\mu = 291.2 – 6.524 = 284.676\)
\(\boxed{\mu = 284.676 \text{ yards}}\)
In order to be 99 percent certain that a randomly selected ball will not exceed the maximum distance of 291.2 yards, the largest mean that can be used in the manufacturing process is 284.676 yards.
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic 2.7 — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Part a,b)
• Topic 2.4 — Introduction to Probability (Part b)
• Topic 2.3 — Estimating Probabilities Using Simulation (Part c)
•Topic 1.12 — Potential Problems with Sampling (Part d)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
The probability distribution of \(X\) is not binomial because the bones are selected without replacement from a finite population of only 20 femurs. For a binomial distribution to apply, each trial must be independent — that is, the probability of success (selecting a male femur) must remain constant from one draw to the next. However, when sampling without replacement, the composition of the remaining pool changes with each selection, so the probability of drawing a male femur on each successive draw depends on what was drawn before it. Since the trials are not independent and the probability of success is not fixed, the distribution of \(X\) is hypergeometric, not binomial.
\(\boxed{X \text{ is not binomial because sampling is without replacement, making trials dependent}}\)
(b)
With 10 males and 10 females among the 20 brontosaurs, compute the probability that all 4 selected femurs are male using the multiplication rule for dependent events (without replacement):
\(P(\text{1st is male}) = \dfrac{10}{20}\)
\(P(\text{2nd is male} \mid \text{1st is male}) = \dfrac{9}{19}\)
\(P(\text{3rd is male} \mid \text{first two are male}) = \dfrac{8}{18}\)
\(P(\text{4th is male} \mid \text{first three are male}) = \dfrac{7}{17}\)
Therefore:
\(P(\text{all 4 are male}) = \dfrac{10}{20} \times \dfrac{9}{19} \times \dfrac{8}{18} \times \dfrac{7}{17}\)
\(= \dfrac{10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7}{20 \times 19 \times 18 \times 17} = \dfrac{5040}{116280} \approx 0.0433\)
This can also be expressed using combinations:
\(P(\text{all 4 are male}) = \dfrac{\dbinom{10}{4}}{\dbinom{20}{4}} = \dfrac{210}{4845} \approx 0.0433\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{all 4 male}) \approx 0.0433}\)
(c)
No, it does not seem likely that males and females were equally represented in the group of 20 brontosaurs. From part (b), if the group had exactly 10 males and 10 females, the probability of randomly selecting 4 males in a row is only about \(4.33\%\). Since this probability is quite small (less than 5%), observing all 4 selected femurs being male is an unusual result under the assumption of equal representation. It is therefore more reasonable to think that males outnumbered females in this particular group of brontosaurs trapped in the swamp, though equal representation is possible — just unlikely given the data.
\(\boxed{\text{Equal representation is unlikely; evidence suggests more males than females in the group}}\)
(d)
No, it is not reasonable to generalize the conclusion from part (c) to the entire population of brontosaurs. The 20 brontosaurs found at the site do not constitute a random sample from the population of all brontosaurs — they represent only those individuals that happened to wander into that particular swamp and become trapped. This is a highly specific and non-random group. It is plausible that behavioral differences between male and female brontosaurs (for example, males may have been more likely to venture into deep swamp areas while foraging) could explain why males are overrepresented in this particular site. Such a non-representative sample cannot be used to draw conclusions about the broader population of all brontosaurs.
\(\boxed{\text{Cannot generalize; the 20 brontosaurs are not a random sample of all brontosaurs}}\)
Question
Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic 2.8 — Introduction to Random Variables and Probability Distributions (Part b)
• Topic 2.9 — Parameters of Random Variables (Parts b, c)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
Under Plan I, a child is cured if antibiotic A works, or if A fails but antibiotic B then works. Since the antibiotics act independently:
\(P(\text{cured} \mid \text{Plan I}) = P(A \text{ cures}) + P(A \text{ fails}) \times P(B \text{ cures})\)
\(= 0.60 + (0.40)(0.90)\)
\(= 0.60 + 0.36\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{cured} \mid \text{Plan I}) = 0.96}\)
Under Plan II, a child is cured if antibiotic B works, or if B fails but antibiotic A then works:
\(P(\text{cured} \mid \text{Plan II}) = P(B \text{ cures}) + P(B \text{ fails}) \times P(A \text{ cures})\)
\(= 0.90 + (0.10)(0.60)\)
\(= 0.90 + 0.06\)
\(\boxed{P(\text{cured} \mid \text{Plan II}) = 0.96}\)
Both plans result in the same probability of curing the infection: \(0.96\).
(b)
For Plan I, there are two possible treatment scenarios:
— Antibiotic A cures the child (probability \(0.60\)): cost \(= \$50\)
— Antibiotic A fails, then antibiotic B is administered (probability \(0.40\)): cost \(= \$50 + \$80 = \$130\)
\(E(\text{cost} \mid \text{Plan I}) = (0.60)(\$50) + (0.40)(\$130)\)
\(= \$30 + \$52\)
\(\boxed{E(\text{cost} \mid \text{Plan I}) = \$82}\)
For Plan II, there are two possible treatment scenarios:
— Antibiotic B cures the child (probability \(0.90\)): cost \(= \$80\)
— Antibiotic B fails, then antibiotic A is administered (probability \(0.10\)): cost \(= \$80 + \$50 = \$130\)
\(E(\text{cost} \mid \text{Plan II}) = (0.90)(\$80) + (0.10)(\$130)\)
\(= \$72 + \$13\)
\(\boxed{E(\text{cost} \mid \text{Plan II}) = \$85}\)
(c)
Plan I is the better recommendation. Both plans produce identical probabilities of curing the infection (\(0.96\)), so neither plan has an advantage in terms of treatment effectiveness. However, Plan I has a lower expected cost per child (\(\$82\)) compared to Plan II (\(\$85\)). Since the insurance company is equally likely to achieve a cure under either plan but will spend \(\$3\) less per child on average under Plan I, recommending Plan I is the more cost-effective choice.
\(\boxed{\text{Recommend Plan I: same cure probability (0.96), lower expected cost (\$82 vs. \$85)}}\)
Question

Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic 2.6 — Conditional Probability (Part b)
• Topic 2.7 — Independent Events and Unions of Events (Part c)
• Topic 2.2 — Summary Statistics for Two Categorical Variables (Part a)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
We want the probability that a randomly selected person from the sample falls in the 31–45 age category.
The total number of people in the sample is 207, and the number in the 31–45 age group is 89.
\( P(\text{age } 31\text{–}45) = \frac{89}{207} \approx 0.42995 \)
\(\boxed{P(\text{age } 31\text{–}45) \approx 0.4300}\)
(b)
We now want the conditional probability that a person is in the 31–45 age category, given that their income is over \(\$50{,}000\).
From the table, the total number of people with income over \(\$50{,}000\) is 96, and among those, 35 are in the 31–45 age group.
\( P(\text{age } 31\text{–}45 \mid \text{income over } \$50{,}000) = \frac{35}{96} \approx 0.36458 \)
\(\boxed{P(\text{age } 31\text{–}45 \mid \text{income over } \$50{,}000) \approx 0.3646}\)
(c)
For two variables to be independent, knowing the value of one variable should not change the probability of the other — in other words, the marginal probability and the conditional probability must be equal.
From part (a), \(P(\text{age } 31\text{–}45) \approx 0.4300\), and from part (b), \(P(\text{age } 31\text{–}45 \mid \text{income over } \$50{,}000) \approx 0.3646\).
Since these two probabilities are not equal (\(0.4300 \neq 0.3646\)), knowing a person’s income category does change the probability of being in the 31–45 age group.
Therefore, annual income and age category are not independent for those in this sample.
Question

- The contestant spins the wheel.
- If the result is a skunk, no money is won and the contestant’s turn is finished.
- If the result is a number, the corresponding amount in dollars is won. The contestant can then stop with those winnings or can choose to spin again, and his or her turn continues.
- If the contestant spins again and the result is a skunk, all of the money earned on that turn is lost and the turn ends.
- The contestant may continue adding to his or her winnings until he or she chooses to stop or until a spin results in a skunk.

Most-appropriate topic codes (AP Statistics):
• Topic 2.9 — Parameters of Random Variables (Part b)
• Topic 3.14 — Setting Up a Chi-Square Test for Homogeneity or Independence (Part c)
• Topic 3.15 — Carrying Out a Chi-Square Test for Homogeneity or Independence (Part c)
▶️ Answer/Explanation
(a)
There are four equally likely outcomes on the wheel: Skunk, \(\$100\), \(\$200\), and \(\$500\). So the probability of landing on a number (i.e., not a skunk) on any single spin is \(\dfrac{3}{4}\).
Since spins are independent, the probability of getting a number on all three of the first three spins is:
\( P(\text{number on all 3 spins}) = \left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^3 = \frac{27}{64} \approx 0.4219 \)
\(\boxed{P \approx 0.4219}\)
(b)
The contestant currently has \(\$800\) and chooses to spin a fourth time. The four equally likely outcomes on the fourth spin lead to the following total winnings:
The expected value of total winnings is:
\( E(\text{total winnings}) = 0\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) + 900\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) + 1000\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) + 1300\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) \)
\( = \frac{0 + 900 + 1000 + 1300}{4} = \frac{3200}{4} = \$800 \)
Alternatively, the expected gain from the fourth spin alone is:
\( E(\text{4th spin gain}) = (-800)\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) + 100\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) + 200\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) + 500\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) = \frac{-800+100+200+500}{4} = 0 \)
So the expected total winnings \(= \$800 + \$0 = \boxed{\$800}\).
Interestingly, the expected value of spinning again is exactly equal to the amount already won — so on average the fourth spin neither helps nor hurts.
(c)
Hypotheses:
\( H_0: p_1 = p_2 = p_3 = p_4 = \frac{1}{4} \quad \text{(all four outcomes are equally likely)} \)
\( H_a: \text{at least one } p_i \neq \frac{1}{4} \quad \text{(the four outcomes are not equally likely)} \)
Test: Chi-square goodness-of-fit test.
Conditions: The spins are independent (stated in the problem), and the expected count for each outcome is \(100 \times \frac{1}{4} = 25 > 5\), so the sample size is large enough to proceed.
Expected counts: 25 for each of the four outcomes.
Test statistic:
\( \chi^2 = \sum \frac{(\text{Observed} – \text{Expected})^2}{\text{Expected}} \)
\( = \frac{(33-25)^2}{25} + \frac{(21-25)^2}{25} + \frac{(20-25)^2}{25} + \frac{(26-25)^2}{25} \)
\( = \frac{64}{25} + \frac{16}{25} + \frac{25}{25} + \frac{1}{25} = \frac{106}{25} = 4.24 \)
Degrees of freedom: \(df = 4 – 1 = 3\)
P-value: \(p\text{-value} \approx 0.237\) (from chi-square table with \(df = 3\), the test statistic of 4.24 falls well below the critical value of 7.81 at \(\alpha = 0.05\)).
Conclusion: Since the \(p\text{-value} \approx 0.237 > 0.05\), we fail to reject \(H_0\). There is not convincing statistical evidence that the four outcomes on the wheel are not equally likely — the data are consistent with a fair wheel.
