Home / Biology_ Exploring the Diversity of Life_6

Question 1

Which of the following occurred during land plant evolution?
a. becoming seedless
b. producing only one type of spore
c. producing nonmotile gametes
d. haploid generation becoming dominant
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is c.
Early land plants required water for fertilization as they had motile (swimming) sperm.
Evolution led to nonmotile gametes (like pollen) to facilitate reproduction without surface water.
Option a is incorrect because plants evolved toward having seeds, not away from them.
Option b is incorrect as many advanced plants are heterosporous, producing two types of spores.
Option d is incorrect because the diploid (\(2n\)) sporophyte became the dominant generation.
This transition allowed plants to colonize diverse terrestrial environments successfully.

Question 2

Which of the following occurs in the life cycle of both mosses and angiosperms?
a. The sporophyte is the dominant generation.
b. The gametophyte is the dominant generation.
c. Spores develop into sporophytes.
d. The sporophyte produces spores.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is d.
Both mosses (bryophytes) and angiosperms exhibit alternation of generations.
The sporophyte ($2n$) is the diploid phase that undergoes meiosis.
Through the process of meiosis, the sporophyte produces haploid spores ($n$).
In mosses, the gametophyte is dominant, while in angiosperms, the sporophyte is dominant.
However, the function of the sporophyte to produce spores remains a universal trait in both.
Spores actually develop into gametophytes, making option c biologically incorrect.

Question 3

Which of these evolutionary innovations freed land plants from requiring water for reproduction?
a. lignified stems
b. fruits and roots
c. seeds and pollen
d. flowers and leaves
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is c. seeds and pollen.

Pollen allows for the transfer of male gametes via wind or animals instead of swimming through water.
Seeds protect the embryo and provide nutrients, allowing for survival in dry environments.
Earlier plants like ferns and mosses require a film of moisture for sperm to reach the egg.
Lignified stems and roots assist with structural support and water transport, not reproduction.
Flowers and fruits are later innovations that primarily aid in pollination efficiency and seed dispersal.
Therefore, seeds and pollen were the primary “independence” factors from external water sources.

Question 4

Which of these statements applies to archegonia?
a. They are found in all land plants.
b. They are found in all land plants except seed plants.
c. They are found in all land plants except angiosperms.
d. They are found in nonvascular land plants, but not in vascular plants.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is c.
Archegonia are multicellular structures that produce and contain the female gamete (egg).
They are present in bryophytes (nonvascular plants) and pteridophytes (ferns).
In seed plants, they are found in gymnosperms, though they are highly reduced.
Angiosperms (flowering plants) have lost the archegonia entirely during evolution.
In angiosperms, the female gametophyte is the embryo sac, which lacks archegonia.
Therefore, they are found in all land plants except for the angiosperms.

Question 5

Which of these statements applies to antheridia?
a. They are found in all land plants.
b. They are found in all land plants except seed plants.
c. They are found in all land plants except angiosperms.
d. They are found in nonvascular land plants, but not in vascular plants.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is b.
Antheridia are male gametangia that produce sperm in bryophytes and seedless vascular plants.
In seed plants ($gymnosperms$ and $angiosperms$), the male gametophyte is highly reduced.
Seed plants produce pollen grains rather than distinct, multicellular antheridia.
Therefore, antheridia are present in all land plant lineages except for the seed-bearing ones.
This makes statement b the most accurate description of their distribution.

Question 6

Which plant group is correctly paired with its phylum?
a. cycads and Hepatophyta
b. horsetails and Pterophyta
c. gnetophytes and Bryophyta
d. angiosperms and Coniferophyta
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is b.
Horsetails belong to the phylum Pterophyta (or Monilophyta), which includes ferns and whisk ferns.
Cycads belong to Cycadophyta, while Hepatophyta refers to liverworts.
Gnetophytes belong to Gnetophyta, while Bryophyta refers to mosses.
Angiosperms belong to Anthophyta, while Coniferophyta refers to conifers like pines.
Therefore, only option b provides a matching pair of a plant group and its biological phylum.

Question 7

Horsetails are most closely related to which of the following plant groups?
a. ferns and whisk ferns
b. mosses and whisk ferns
c. liverworts and hornworts
d. gnetophytes and gymnosperms
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

Horsetails belong to the group Monilophyta.
This group also includes ferns and whisk ferns.
They are all seedless vascular plants.
Molecular data shows they share a more recent common ancestor with each other than with lycophytes.
Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts are non-vascular bryophytes.
Gymnosperms and gnetophytes are seed-bearing plants.
Therefore, the correct answer is a.

Question 8

In which of these groups is the evolution of true roots first seen?
a. mosses
b. conifers
c. liverworts
d. seedless vascular plants
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is d. seedless vascular plants.
True roots contain vascular tissue ($xylem$ and $phloem$) for transport.
Mosses and liverworts are non-vascular and possess $rhizoids$ instead of true roots.
Seedless vascular plants (like ferns) were the first to evolve these specialized structures.
Conifers evolved much later in the evolutionary timeline than seedless vascular plants.
Therefore, the transition to a dominant $sporophyte$ led to the first appearance of true roots in this group.

Question 9

Your neighbour notices moss growing between bricks on her patio. Closer examination reveals tiny brown stalks with round tops emerging from leafy shoots. Which of the following are those brown structures most likely?
a. antheridia
b. archegonia
c. a gametophyte generation
d. a sporophyte generation
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

Ans : d. a sporophyte generation
The tiny brown stalks with round tops are sporophytes in mosses. The leafy shoots are the gametophyte, from which the sporophyte emerges after fertilization. The round tops are spore capsules.

Explanation :
In moss life cycle, the green leafy part is the dominant haploid gametophyte.
Antheridia (a) are male gametangia producing sperm on the gametophyte.
Archegonia (b) are female gametangia producing eggs on the gametophyte.
Gametophyte generation (c) refers to the leafy base, not the emerging stalks.
Sporophyte generation (d) is the diploid phase: a stalk (seta) with a round capsule containing spores.
These brown structures match the sporophyte, which depends on the gametophyte for nutrition.
This alternation of generations is typical in bryophytes like mosses.
The description fits common moss sporophytes seen in damp areas like patios.

Question 10

Which of the following is the order in which these features occurred during the evolution of land plants?
a. seeds, vascular tissue, gametangia, flowers
b. vascular tissue, gametangia, flowers, seeds
c. gametangia, vascular tissue, flowers, seeds
d. gametangia, vascular tissue, seeds, flowers
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

Gametangia (protective structures for gametes) appeared first in early non-vascular land plants (bryophytes).
Vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) evolved next, allowing plants to grow taller (seedless vascular plants).
Seeds evolved later to protect the embryo and allow dispersal without water (gymnosperms).
Flowers are the most recent adaptation, evolving to enhance pollination efficiency (angiosperms).
The correct chronological sequence is therefore: gametangia $\rightarrow$ vascular tissue $\rightarrow$ seeds $\rightarrow$ flowers.
Thus, the correct option is d.

Question 11

Which of these characteristics is most likely the reason that mosses are so short?
a. lack of true leaves
b. lack of vascular tissues
c. lack of true roots
d. lack of bark
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is b. lack of vascular tissues.
Mosses are non-vascular plants, meaning they lack specialized conducting tissues like xylem and phloem.
Without these tissues, they cannot transport water and nutrients efficiently over long distances against gravity.
They rely on simple diffusion and osmosis, which only work effectively over very short distances.
Additionally, vascular tissue provides structural support through lignin, which mosses lack.
This structural limitation prevents them from growing tall like tracheophytes (vascular plants).
Therefore, their height is restricted to just a few centimeters to ensure all cells receive necessary resources.

Question 12

Suppose that you found a leafless sporophyte with a waxy cuticle to reduce water loss, and stomata for gas exchange. Which of these plants is this plant most likely?
a. a moss
b. a fern
c. a pine tree
d. an angiosperm
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: a. a moss

Detailed solution

In bryophytes like mosses, the sporophyte is a stalk-like structure that often lacks true leaves.
The moss sporophyte consists of a foot, seta, and a capsule where spores are produced.
Despite being leafless, these sporophytes possess a waxy cuticle to prevent desiccation.
They also feature stomata on the capsule for regulated gas exchange during development.
In contrast, ferns, pine trees, and angiosperms have dominant, leafy sporophyte generations.
Therefore, a leafless sporophyte with these specific adaptations is most characteristic of a moss.

Question 13

Which of these factors is most likely a constraint for seedless vascular plants?
a. short height
b. dependence on moist environments
c. dependence on shade
d. decreased photosynthesis
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is b. dependence on moist environments.
Seedless vascular plants, such as ferns, possess vascular tissue which allows them to grow taller than bryophytes.
However, they still rely on flagellated sperm for reproduction.
These sperm must swim through a film of water to reach the egg for fertilization.
Because of this requirement, these plants are restricted to moist or damp habitats.
Unlike seed plants, they cannot reproduce effectively in very arid conditions.
Therefore, water availability remains a primary environmental constraint.

Question 14

Which of these statements is most likely the advantage of taller plants over shorter plants?
a. They can capture more $\text{CO}_2$.
b. They can fertilize better.
c. They can capture sunlight better.
d. They can release seeds better.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is c. They can capture sunlight better.
In a crowded ecosystem, plants compete intensely for light resources.
Taller plants can extend their leaves above the canopy of shorter neighbors.
This prevents them from being shaded out by surrounding vegetation.
By capturing more direct photons, they increase their rate of photosynthesis.
While height can aid seed dispersal, the primary evolutionary driver for vertical growth is light access.
$\text{CO}_2$ levels are generally uniform in the air, so height offers no specific advantage for gas capture.

Question 15

Which of the following are considered to be key innovations in animal evolution?
a. patterns of body symmetry, heterotrophy
b. patterns of body symmetry, presence of different tissues
c. multicellularity, presence of different tissues
d. multicellularity, heterotrophy
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is b.
Key innovations refer to traits that evolved within the animal lineage to drive diversification.

Heterotrophy and multicellularity are ancestral traits shared with fungi or protist ancestors.
The evolution of symmetry (radial and bilateral) allowed for directed movement and cephalization.
The development of specialized tissues enabled complex organ systems and physiological division of labor.
These two features distinguishes Parazoa (sponges) from Eumetazoa (true animals).
Therefore, symmetry and tissue differentiation are the primary evolutionary “milestones” listed.

Question 16

Which of these characteristics distinguishes a protostome from a deuterostome?
a. Protostomes are not animals.
b. A protostome coelom forms from space within the outpocketing.
c. Protostomes undergo spiral cleavage of the embryo.
d. A protostome blastopore develops into an anus.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is c.
In protostomes, the early embryonic cells divide at an angle, known as spiral cleavage.
Deuterostomes, by contrast, exhibit radial cleavage where cells align directly atop one another.
The term “protostome” literally means “first mouth,” as the blastopore becomes the mouth, not the anus.
Coelom formation in protostomes occurs via schizocoely (splitting of mesoderm), unlike the outpocketing seen in deuterostomes.
Both groups are classified as animals within the clade Bilateria.
Therefore, spiral cleavage is a definitive developmental hallmark of the protostome lineage.

Question 17

How many basal phyla do scientists identify?
a. $1$
b. $2$
c. $3$
d. $4$
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is d. $4$.
Basal phyla are those that diverged early from the main animal lineage.
Scientists generally identify $4$ distinct basal animal phyla.
These include Porifera (sponges) and Cnidaria (jellyfish and corals).
They also include Ctenophora (comb jellies) and Placozoa.
These groups lack the complex bilateral symmetry found in Bilateria.
They represent the most primitive branches of the animal phylogenetic tree.

Question 18

Which phylum has a species count vastly greater than any other phylum?
a. Cnidaria
b. Echinodermata
c. Arthropoda
d. Chordata
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is c. Arthropoda.
Phylum Arthropoda is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom.
It includes insects, spiders, and crustaceans, accounting for over $80\%$ of all known animal species.
Scientists have identified over $1,000,000$ distinct species within this group.
Their success is due to features like a chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages.
In comparison, Phylum Chordata and others have significantly fewer described species.
This vast diversity makes Arthropoda the most species-rich taxon on Earth.

Question 19

Which of these features is an example of a unique internal anatomy of echinoderms among animals?
a. lack of excretory and respiratory systems
b. well-defined pseudocoelom
c. incomplete digestive system
d. lack of sensory cells in the skin
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is a. lack of excretory and respiratory systems.
Echinoderms are unique because they lack specialized, complex internal organs for excretion and respiration.
Instead, they rely on their water vascular system and coelomic fluid for transport.
Nitrogenous waste (mostly ammonia) diffuses out through the tube feet or papulae.
Gas exchange also occurs primarily through these thin-walled projections via simple diffusion.
Unlike many other complex animals, they do not possess a centralized kidney or lung-like system.
Options b, c, and d are incorrect as echinoderms are true coelomates with complete digestive systems and sensory capabilities.

Question 20

Which one of these body symmetries do echinoderms exhibit?
a. primary radial
b. secondary radial
c. primary bilateral
d. secondary bilateral
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is b. secondary radial.
Echinoderms are evolutionarily derived from bilaterally symmetrical ancestors.
Their larval stages exhibit bilateral symmetry, which is considered their primary state.
During metamorphosis, they develop penta-radial symmetry as adults.
Because the radial symmetry is acquired later in the life cycle, it is termed secondary radial symmetry.
This adaptation is thought to be an evolutionary shift related to a sedentary or slow-moving lifestyle.

Question 21

Which of these features are unique to all chordates?
a. a notochord, but not a dorsal hollow nerve cord, gill slits, or a post-anal tail
b. a notochord and a dorsal hollow nerve cord, but not gill slits or a post-anal tail
c. a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, and gill slits, but not a post-anal tail
d. a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, gill slits, and a post-anal tail
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The phylum Chordata is defined by four primary diagnostic characteristics.
All chordates possess a notochord, which provides skeletal support.
They feature a dorsal hollow nerve cord that develops into the central nervous system.
Pharyngeal slits (or gill slits) are present at some stage of development.
A post-anal tail is a muscular extension extending past the anus.
These four traits must appear during the life cycle for an animal to be a chordate.
Therefore, the correct option is d.

Question 22

Suppose that you found an unknown organism that is a motile heterotroph without cell walls in its body. Which of the following is this organism most likely?
a. a bacterium
b. a fungus
c. an animal
d. a plant
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is c. an animal.
Organisms in Kingdom Animalia are characterized by being multicellular heterotrophs.
Unlike plants, fungi, and most bacteria, animal cells lack a cell wall.
Most animals exhibit motility (the ability to move spontaneously) at some stage in their life cycle.
Bacteria typically possess cell walls made of peptidoglycan.
Fungi have cell walls composed of chitin and are generally non-motile.
Plants are autotrophs with cell walls made of cellulose.

Question 23

Suppose that you isolate one cell from a starfish embryo, and you continue culturing it in the lab, separate from the original embryo. What is most likely going to happen with the embryo and the isolated cell?
a. The original embryo will develop into a starfish, but the isolated cell will die.
b. The cell will develop into a starfish, but the original embryo will die.
c. Each will develop into a starfish.
d. Both will die.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

c. Each will develop into a starfish.

– Starfish embryos undergo regulative development in early stages.

– Cells at the blastula stage are totipotent, meaning they can form a complete organism.

– Isolating one cell allows it to divide and differentiate independently into a full starfish.

– The original embryo can compensate for the lost cell through cell rearrangement and proliferation.

– This phenomenon is observed in echinoderms like starfish and sea urchins.

– Thus, both the isolated cell and the remaining embryo develop into complete starfish.

Question 24

Suppose that your friend found a medusa and you want to impress her. Which of these phyla can you correctly tell her that it belongs to?
a. Cnidaria
b. Arthropoda
c. Echinodermata
d. Porifera
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is a. Cnidaria.
A medusa is one of the two primary body forms found in the phylum Cnidaria.
It is characterized by a bell-shaped, free-swimming body with tentacles hanging downward.
Common examples of the medusa form include jellyfish.
The other primary body form in this phylum is the sessile polyp, such as sea anemones.
Phyla like Arthropoda, Echinodermata, and Porifera do not exhibit the medusa body plan.

Question 25

Suppose that you go out for dinner and you order a seafood dish that contains clams, scallops, and mussels. Which class of animals are you about to eat?
a. Cephalopoda
b. Scaphopoda
c. Gastropoda
d. Bivalvia
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is d. Bivalvia.
Clams, scallops, and mussels all belong to the phylum Mollusca.
They are specifically categorized under the class Bivalvia because they possess two hinged shells (valves).
Cephalopoda includes organisms like octopuses and squids with prominent heads and tentacles.
Scaphopoda refers to “tusk shells,” which are elongated and tubular.
Gastropoda includes snails and slugs, which typically have a single spiral shell or no shell at all.
Therefore, a dish with clams, scallops, and mussels consists entirely of Bivalves.

Question 26

Suppose that you expose a tardigrade to an extreme dehydration. Which of the following will most likely happen to the tardigrade?
a. It will die right away.
b. It will become more active and will search for water.
c. It will dry out and turn into a dust in about a few hours.
d. It will dry out, but will revive if placed in water.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is d.
Tardigrades are famous for a survival strategy called anhydrobiosis.
When facing extreme dehydration, they lose over $95\%$ of their body water.
They retract their legs and head to form a dormant, shriveled state called a tun.
In this state, their metabolism slows to less than $0.01\%$ of normal levels.
This allows them to survive for years in extreme environments.
Once re-exposed to water, they rehydrate and return to an active state within hours.

Question 27

Suppose that your friend asks you to provide one characteristic of insects that has a special importance for coevolution with plants. Which of the following could it be?
a. mouthparts
b. Malpighian tubules
c. wings
d. metamorphosis
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Correct Option: (a) mouthparts
Detailed solution

Insects and plants have undergone extensive coevolution, particularly regarding pollination and herbivory.
Mouthparts are highly specialized structures that have evolved to match specific plant morphologies.
For instance, long proboscises in moths or bees correspond to the depth of specific floral tubes.
This specialization ensures that the insect receives nectar while effectively transferring pollen.
Other options like Malpighian tubules relate to excretion and do not directly drive plant coevolution.
Therefore, modifications in mouthparts represent a primary mechanism for mutualistic adaptation between the two groups.

Question 28

Which of these statements is the reason why a pseudocoelom is $NOT$ a true coelom?
a. It is not completely lined by the mesoderm.
b. It is completely lined by the endoderm.
c. It is not completely lined by the endoderm.
d. It is completely lined by the mesoderm.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

A true coelom must be a body cavity completely surrounded by tissue derived from the mesoderm.
In pseudocoelomates, the cavity exists between the mesoderm and the endoderm.
Because the inner boundary (the gut side) lacks a mesodermal lining, it is considered “false.”
This means the cavity is not completely lined by the mesoderm, which defines a pseudocoelom.
Organisms like nematodes (roundworms) are classic examples of this body plan.
Therefore, the correct anatomical reason is stated in option a.

Question 29

In which of these animals would you most likely find flame cells?
a. round worms
b. flatworms
c. arrow worms
d. tapeworms
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer includes both b. flatworms and d. tapeworms (as tapeworms are a type of flatworm).
Flame cells are specialized excretory cells found in the simplest freshwater invertebrates.
They function like a kidney, helping the animal to remove waste materials.
The “flame” aspect comes from a bundle of cilia that flickers like a flame to move liquid.
These cells are the primary structural unit of the protonephridial system in Phylum Platyhelminthes.
Flatworms (Planaria) and Tapeworms (Cestodes) both belong to this phylum.
In many standardized tests, b. flatworms is the most generalized correct category.

Question 30

In which of these animals would you most likely find a toothed radula?
a. lobsters
b. slugs
c. worms
d. corals
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is b. slugs.
A radula is a specialized anatomical structure found in mollusks.
It functions as a chitinous, toothed ribbon used for scraping or cutting food.
Slugs and snails belong to the class Gastropoda, which characteristically possess this organ.
Lobsters (arthropods) use mandibles rather than a radula for feeding.
Worms (like annelids) and corals (cnidarians) lack this specific molluscan structure.
Therefore, among the choices provided, only the slug possesses a radula.

Question 31

Which of these statements best defines a virus?
a. a naked fragment of nucleic acid
b. a disease-causing group of proteins
c. an entity composed of proteins and nucleic acids
d. an entity composed of proteins, nucleic acids, and ribosomes
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is c.

A virus is an infectious agent consisting of a nucleic acid core ($DNA$ or $RNA$).
This genetic material is encased within a protective protein shell called a capsid.
Unlike cells, viruses lack ribosomes and metabolic machinery for protein synthesis.
Option a describes viroids, which are smaller than viruses and lack proteins.
Option b refers to prions, which are infectious proteins lacking nucleic acids.
Therefore, an entity of proteins and nucleic acids accurately defines the viral structure.

Question 32

Viruses form a capsid around their nucleic acid core. What is this capsid composed of?
a. protein
b. lipoprotein
c. glycoprotein
d. polysaccharides
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is a. protein.
A viral capsid is the protective shell that encloses the genetic material ($DNA$ or $RNA$).
It is constructed from individual structural subunits called capsomeres.
These capsomeres are composed entirely of protein molecules.
While some viruses have an outer lipid envelope, the capsid itself is strictly proteinaceous.
Its primary functions are to protect the genome and aid in attachment to host cells.

Question 33

Which of the following is synthesized by reverse transcriptase?
a. RNA from DNA
b. DNA from RNA
c. proteins from DNA
d. proteins from RNA
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is b.
Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that catalyzes the process of reverse transcription.
In this process, a complementary \(\text{DNA}\) (\(\text{cDNA}\)) strand is synthesized using an \(\text{RNA}\) template.
This mechanism effectively reverses the standard flow of genetic information (Transcription).
It is primarily used by retroviruses, such as \(\text{HIV}\), to integrate their genome into the host cell.
Option a refers to transcription, while c and d involve translation and gene expression.
Therefore, the enzyme specifically builds \(\text{DNA}\) from an \(\text{RNA}\) source.

Question 34

Which of these statements best describes viroids?
a. the smallest type of virus
b. small infectious pieces of DNA
c. small infectious pieces of RNA
d. infectious pieces of DNA wrapped in a protein coat
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is c.

Viroids are sub-viral pathogens consisting solely of a short strand of circular, single-stranded $\text{RNA}$.
Unlike viruses, they lack a protective protein coat (capsid).
They are significantly smaller than the smallest known viruses.
These infectious agents primarily cause diseases in higher plants.
They do not contain $\text{DNA}$, making options b and d incorrect.
Because they lack proteins, they are classified as distinct from viruses, making option a incorrect.

Question 35

Which part of the $\text{SARS-CoV-2}$ is derived from the membrane system of the host cell?
a. viral envelope
b. $\text{S}$ protein
c. $\text{ACE2}$
d. nucleocapsid
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is a. viral envelope.
$\text{SARS-CoV-2}$ is an enveloped virus that acquires its outer lipid bilayer during the budding process.
This lipid layer is “pinched off” from the host cell’s internal membrane systems, specifically the $\text{ERGIC}$ (Endoplasmic Reticulum-Golgi Intermediate Compartment).
While the envelope contains viral proteins like the $\text{S}$ (Spike) protein, the lipid foundation itself is host-derived.
The $\text{S}$ protein and nucleocapsid are encoded by the viral genome and synthesized by the cell’s machinery.
$\text{ACE2}$ is a host cell surface receptor, not a structural part of the virus itself.
Therefore, the envelope is the only structural component directly derived from the host’s membrane.

Question 36

Which of these statements best describes temperate phages?
a. They cannot lyse host cells.
b. They turn their host cell into a prophage.
c. They integrate their DNA into the host cell’s chromosomes.
d. They break down the host cell’s chromosomes when their DNA enters the cell.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is c.
Temperate phages are capable of entering the lysogenic cycle.
In this cycle, the viral DNA integrates into the bacterial host chromosome.
Once integrated, the viral genome is referred to as a prophage.
The prophage is replicated along with the host $\text{DNA}$ during cell division.
Unlike virulent phages, they do not immediately lyse the host cell upon entry.
Environmental stressors can later trigger the prophage to exit and enter the lytic cycle.

Question 37

Which one of these characteristics applies to prions?
a. They can be transmitted only from animals to humans.
b. The diseases they cause progress very rapidly.
c. They have an amino acid sequence different from the normal protein.
d. They reproduce by misfolding normal proteins.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is d.
Prions are infectious pathogens composed entirely of protein material.
They do not contain nucleic acids like DNA or RNA for replication.
Instead, they “reproduce” by inducing existing normal proteins (\(PrP^C\)) to misfold.
This conformational change converts the normal protein into the infectious form (\(PrP^{Sc}\)).
The amino acid sequence remains identical; only the three-dimensional shape changes.
This process triggers a chain reaction, leading to protein aggregation and brain damage.

Question 38

Which of these statements applies to viral envelopes?
a. They contain glycoproteins of viral origin.
b. They are located between the virus’s capsid and its nucleic acid.
c. They are composed of a lipid bilayer derived from the viral membrane.
d. They are composed of peptidoglycan, the same material as bacterial cell walls.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is a.
Viral envelopes are derived from the host cell’s membrane, not a “viral membrane.”
The envelope contains glycoproteins that are encoded by the viral genome.
These proteins are essential for the virus to identify and bind to specific receptor sites on a host cell.
The envelope is the outermost layer, surrounding the capsid, rather than being located inside it.
Peptidoglycan is a structural component of prokaryotic cell walls and is never found in viruses.
Therefore, only the presence of viral glycoproteins accurately describes the nature of the envelope.

Question 39

What happens when a bacteriophage enters the lysogenic stage?
a. The bacteriophage enters the host cell and kills it immediately.
b. The bacteriophage enters the host cell, picks up host DNA, and leaves the cell unharmed.
c. The bacteriophage merges with the host cell’s plasma membrane, forming an envelope, and then exits the cell.
d. The bacteriophage’s DNA integrates into the host cell’s genome.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

Correct Option: d
In the lysogenic cycle, the viral DNA is integrated into the bacterial chromosome.
The integrated viral genome is then referred to as a prophage.
The host cell remains alive and continues to function and reproduce normally.
Every time the host bacterium undergoes binary fission, the prophage DNA is also replicated.
This allows the virus to persist in a latent state within a population of bacteria.
Under certain environmental stress, the prophage may exit the genome and initiate the lytic cycle.

Question 40

Which of these characteristics applies to both animal viruses and bacterial viruses?
a. They commonly have envelopes.
b. Only their nucleic acid enters the host cell.
c. They have a capsid divided into a head and a tail.
d. They bind to specific receptors on the host cell.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

Correct Option: d
Both animal and bacterial viruses (bacteriophages) must recognize and attach to specific surface receptors on the host cell membrane to initiate infection.
Option a is incorrect because envelopes are rare in bacterial viruses but common in animal viruses.
Option b is incorrect because many animal viruses enter the host cell entirely (capsid and all) via endocytosis or fusion.
Option c is incorrect because the “head and tail” structure is a signature of many bacteriophages, whereas animal viruses are typically spherical or helical.
Host specificity is determined by the precise fit between viral attachment proteins and host cell receptors.
This mechanism ensures that a virus only infects a specific range of host species or tissue types.

Question 41

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes plant viruses from animal viruses?
a. Plant viruses are easily curable.
b. Plant viruses are covered by a membrane envelope.
c. Plant viruses lack the ability to actively infect a host cell.
d. Plant viruses lack the ability to replicate their RNA genome.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct option is c.

Plant cells possess a rigid cellulose cell wall that acts as a physical barrier.
Unlike animal viruses, plant viruses cannot actively penetrate this wall via endocytosis.
They typically require mechanical damage or insect vectors to enter the cell.
Once inside, they move between cells through channels called plasmodesmata.
Animal viruses, by contrast, often bind to receptors to trigger active entry.
Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they do not represent defining distinctions.

Question 42

Suppose that your friend has chickenpox. Which of the following you might conclude?
a. She was infected with Flavivirus during her recent trip to Africa.
b. She was infected with Flavivirus, which she contacted after being in contact with livestock.
c. She was infected with varicella-zoster virus, and her immune system will prevent the onset of shingles later in her life.
d. She was infected with varicella-zoster virus, which might later in her lifetime also give her shingles.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The correct answer is d.
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV).
After the initial infection resolves, the virus stays latent in the nerve tissues.
Later in life, the virus can reactivate due to stress or a weakened immune system.
This reactivation results in a painful skin rash known as shingles (herpes zoster).
Options a and b are incorrect as Flavivirus causes diseases like Yellow Fever or Zika.
Option c is incorrect because the primary infection does not prevent, but rather enables, future shingles.

Question 43

You recently travelled to a tropical island and, upon your return, you start feeling fatigued, nauseated, and have a loss of appetite. You feel some abdominal pain on your right side beneath your lower ribs and you notice your stool is clay-coloured. Which of the following is the most likely reason for your condition?
a. You contracted hepatitis B, caused by a virus from $Papovaviridae$ viral family.
b. You contracted hepatitis B, caused by a virus from $Picornaviridae$ viral family.
c. You contracted hepatitis A, caused by a virus from $Picornaviridae$ viral family.
d. You contracted hepatitis A, caused by a virus from $Papovaviridae$ viral family.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Detailed solution

The symptoms of fatigue, nausea, and right-sided abdominal pain suggest acute viral hepatitis.
Clay-coloured stools indicate a lack of bile pigment, typically caused by liver inflammation or bile duct obstruction.
Hepatitis A is commonly associated with travel to regions with poor sanitation via the fecal-oral route.
The Hepatitis A virus ($HAV$) is a member of the $Picornaviridae$ family.
Hepatitis B belongs to the $Hepadnaviridae$ family, not $Papovaviridae$ or $Picornaviridae$.
Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A caused by a $Picornaviridae$ virus.
The correct option is c.

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