Question 1
b. density
c. dispersion pattern
d. age structure
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is a. size.
Population size is the total count of individuals in a population at a specific time.
Population density refers to the number of individuals per unit area or volume.
Dispersion describes the spacing $s$ and arrangement of individuals within a habitat.
Age structure represents the distribution of individuals across different age groups.
Therefore, the factor that refers purely to the total count is the population size $N$.
This value is often used to calculate growth rates over a time interval $\Delta t$.
Question 2
b. density
c. size
d. age structure
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is b. density.
Population density is defined as the number of individuals of a species per unit area (e.g., $100$ trees per $km^2$) or volume (e.g., $50$ plankton per $m^3$).
Dispersion refers to the spacing patterns of individuals within those boundaries.
Population size refers to the total number of individuals, $N$, in the population regardless of area.
Age structure describes the distribution of individuals in different age groups.
Therefore, the ratio of $\frac{\text{Number of Individuals}}{\text{Unit Area or Volume}}$ specifically defines density.
Question 3
b. HIV
c. disease caused by Zika virus
d. disease caused by West Nile virus
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is a. malaria.
According to the World Health Organization ($WHO$), nearly $50\%$ of the global population lives in areas at risk of malaria transmission.
In $2022$, there were an estimated $249$ million cases of malaria across $85$ countries.
The disease is predominantly found in tropical and subtropical regions where Anopheles mosquitoes thrive.
While $HIV$ is a global pandemic, its prevalence does not put $50\%$ of the population at immediate risk of exposure.
Zika and West Nile viruses have significant impacts but are more geographically restricted compared to malaria.
Malaria remains one of the most widespread life-threatening parasitic diseases currently affecting humanity.
Question 4
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is b.
In population ecology, the variable $K$ represents the carrying capacity.
Carrying capacity is the maximum population size an environment can sustain.
The variable $r$ represents the intrinsic rate of increase or growth rate.
The variable $N$ is typically used to represent the actual population size.
Therefore, the pair “$K$ and carrying capacity” is the only accurate match.
Question 5
b. $170$
c. $450$
d. $486$
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The population size is estimated using the Lincoln-Petersen index formula:
$N = \frac{M \times C}{R}$
Where $M$ is the number of individuals marked in the first sample ($M = 90$).
Where $C$ is the total number of individuals caught in the second sample ($C = 80$).
Where $R$ is the number of marked individuals recaptured ($R = 16$).
Substituting the values: $N = \frac{90 \times 80}{16}$.
$N = \frac{7200}{16} = 450$.
Therefore, the estimated butterfly population size is $450$.
The correct option is c.
Question 6
b. They use resources that are patchily distributed.
c. They may experience intraspecific competition for vital resources.
d. They have no ecological interactions with each other.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c.
Uniform dispersion often results from direct interactions between individuals in the population.
It frequently arises due to intraspecific competition for limited resources like food or water.
Individuals maintain a specific distance from one another to ensure access to these vital resources.
Territoriality is a common behavioral mechanism that leads to this evenly spaced pattern.
In contrast, option a suggests clumped, b suggests clumped, and d suggests random dispersion.
Question 7
b. $r$ gets larger as a population gets larger.
c. $r$ gets smaller as a population gets larger.
d. $r$ is always at its maximum level ($r_{\text{max}}$).
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is a.
In the exponential growth model, the rate of population increase is given by $\frac{dN}{dt} = rN$.
The term $r$ represents the per capita growth rate, which is assumed to be a constant.
Unlike logistic growth, exponential growth assumes unlimited resources and no competition.
Because resources do not become scarce, the value of $r$ does not decrease as $N$ increases.
Therefore, $r$ remains independent of the population size ($N$).
While $r$ is often constant, it is not strictly required to be at $r_{\text{max}}$ unless conditions are ideal.
Question 8
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is b. $0.072/\text{individual}/\text{year}$.
The value of $r$ represents the per capita rate of increase, calculated as $r = b – d$.
First, calculate the birth rate ($b$): $452 / 1000 = 0.452$.
Next, calculate the death rate ($d$): $380 / 1000 = 0.380$.
Subtract the death rate from the birth rate: $0.452 – 0.380 = 0.072$.
This gives the intrinsic rate of increase per individual per year.
Question 9
b. It gets steadily smaller as the population size increases.
c. It remains constant as the population size increases.
d. It is highest when the population is at an intermediate size.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is d.
The logistic growth rate is defined by the equation $\frac{dN}{dt} = rN\left(1 – \frac{N}{K}\right)$.
At low population sizes ($N$), the growth rate is small because there are few individuals to reproduce.
As the population approaches the carrying capacity ($K$), the term $\left(1 – \frac{N}{K}\right)$ approaches $0$, slowing growth.
The maximum absolute growth rate occurs at the inflection point of the S-curve.
This point is reached when the population size is exactly half of the carrying capacity, $N = \frac{K}{2}$.
Therefore, the number of individuals added is highest at this intermediate size.
Question 10
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is d.
$K$-selected species live in stable environments near carrying capacity ($K$).
They typically exhibit a type I survivorship curve, meaning high survival rates in early life.
These species invest heavily in fewer offspring, leading to long generation times.
In contrast, $r$-selected species favor rapid reproduction and type III curves.
Examples of $K$-selected organisms include humans, elephants, and whales.
Therefore, the combination of high late-life survival and slow development defines this pattern.
Question 11
b. When the king penguin population density is stable, the leopard seal population size increases.
c. When the king penguin population density is stable, the leopard seal population size decreases.
d. When the king penguin population density is low, the leopard seal population size also decreases.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is d.
In a predator-prey relationship, the predator population size is dependent on the availability of its food source.
King penguins serve as the primary prey for leopard seals in this specific ecological scenario.
When the prey density is low, there is less energy available to support the predator population.
This lack of resources leads to a higher mortality rate or lower birth rate among predators.
Consequently, the leopard seal population size will decrease following a decline in the penguin population.
This interaction creates the characteristic coupled oscillations seen in ecological population dynamics.
Question 12
b. type $II$ or type $III$
c. type $I$
d. type $III$
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is d. type $III$.
Type $III$ curves characterize organisms that produce a large number of offspring.
These species typically provide little to no parental care for their young.
As a result, there is a very high mortality rate early in life.
The few individuals that survive the early stages tend to live for a long time.
Common examples include many fish species, marine invertebrates, and plants.
Question 13
▶️ Answer/Explanation
Density-dependent factors are those whose effects on the size or growth of the population vary with the population density.
Predation is a classic density-dependent factor because as a prey population grows, it attracts more predators.
In option d, the clam population decline is tied to the biological interaction with predatory gulls.
Options a, b, and c represent density-independent factors like weather or human intervention.
These abiotic factors kill individuals regardless of how many are present in the $1$ given area.
Therefore, only the predator-prey relationship reflects density-dependent regulation.
Question 14
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is a.
In ecology, the carrying capacity ($K$) is the maximum population size an environment can sustain.
Humanity has used technology to artificially expand this limit.
Agriculture provided a stable food supply, allowing for higher density living.
Industrialization improved medicine, sanitation, and resource distribution.
These advancements reduced density-dependent deaths that normally limit growth.
Consequently, the human population has maintained exponential growth for an extended period.
Question 15
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c.
Optimal foraging theory predicts that animals will maximize their net energy intake per unit of time.
Predators evaluate the energy gain from a prey item against the costs, such as search and handling time.
Mathematically, this is often expressed as maximizing the ratio $\frac{E}{h}$, where $E$ is energy and $h$ is handling time.
Choosing the largest prey (a) or easiest prey (b) may not be “optimal” if the energy-to-cost ratio is low.
Option (d) describes a change in diet (generalist behavior) but does not define the core mechanism of the theory.
Therefore, predators select prey that provides the maximum benefit for the lowest physiological cost.
Question 16
b. exploitative competition
c. symbiosis
d. mutualism
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is b. exploitative competition.
Exploitative competition occurs when two species indirecty interact by consuming the same limiting resource.
As one species uses the resource, it reduces the amount available for the other, negatively impacting both.
Unlike interference competition, there is no direct physical confrontation between the species.
Brood parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young.
Symbiosis and mutualism describe close physical or beneficial interactions, rather than resource depletion.
Therefore, the depletion of a shared resource is specifically categorized as exploitative competition.
Question 17
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is a. fundamental niche.
The fundamental niche represents the entire set of conditions under which a population can survive and reproduce.
It includes the full range of resources a species is theoretically capable of using in the absence of competition.
In contrast, the realized niche is the actual space and resources a species uses due to biotic constraints like predation.
Resource partitioning refers to the division of resources to avoid direct competition between species.
Relative abundance is a measure of how common or rare a species is relative to other species in a community.
Therefore, the potential range of resources is defined strictly by the fundamental niche.
Question 18
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is b. mutualism.
This is a ($+$ / $+$) relationship where both the human and the bacteria benefit.
Bacteria receive a stable environment and a consistent supply of nutrients.
Humans benefit as bacteria break down complex carbohydrates and synthesize vitamins.
Commensalism is incorrect as it implies one party is unaffected ($0$).
Endoparasitism is incorrect because the bacteria do not cause harm ($-$) to the host.
Ectoparasitism refers to organisms living on the outer surface of the host.
Question 19
b. very frequent and moderate intensity
c. very rare frequency and severe intensity
d. intermediate frequency and moderate intensity
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is d. intermediate frequency and moderate intensity.
This concept is known as the Intermediate Disturbance Hypothesis (IDH).
At low levels of disturbance, competitive dominant species exclude less competitive ones.
At high levels of disturbance, only a few stress-tolerant species can survive the high mortality.
Intermediate levels prevent competitive exclusion while allowing many species to colonize.
This balance results in the maximum $S$ (species richness) within an ecological community.
Therefore, a mix of moderate intensity and frequency maintains the highest biodiversity.
Question 20
b. character displacement
c. interference competition
d. cryptic coloration
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is b. character displacement.
Sympatric mammals live in the same geographic area and often compete for similar resources.
To reduce $interspecific$ competition, species evolve diverging morphological traits.
Differences in molar structure allow species to exploit different food niches.
This evolutionary process is known as character displacement.
It ensures the coexistence of species by minimizing niche overlap.
Other options like $cryptic$ $coloration$ or $predation$ do not specifically drive molar divergence.
Question 21
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is b.
A keystone species is defined by its disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance.
While many keystone species are apex predators (like wolves), they can also be ecosystem engineers (like beavers) or mutualists.
They are not typically the most abundant species in the ecosystem ($n$ is usually low).
Without them, the ecosystem would be dramatically different or cease to exist altogether.
Their presence maintains the structure and biodiversity of the entire ecological community.
Therefore, the defining characteristic is the critical importance of their ecological role.
Question 22
b. secondary succession
c. primary succession
d. facilitation
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c. primary succession.
Primary succession occurs in an environment that is $100\%$ devoid of vegetation and soil.
It begins on bare substrates, such as rock outcrops or newly cooled lava flows.
Pioneer species like lichens break down the rock to create the first layers of soil.
Over time, the community complexity increases until it reaches a stable climax state.
Secondary succession differs because it starts in areas where soil already exists.
Therefore, “bare and lifeless rock” is the defining characteristic of primary succession.
Question 23
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is b.
The theory states that species richness reaches an equilibrium ($S$) where immigration rates equal extinction rates.
Larger islands provide more resources and diverse habitats, which significantly reduces the extinction rate ($E$).
Because of lower extinction, large islands can support a higher equilibrium number of species than small islands.
Distance also plays a role, where islands closer to the mainland have higher immigration rates ($I$) than distant ones.
Therefore, the highest biodiversity is predicted for large islands located near the mainland.
Option a is incorrect because islands rarely reach the full mainland species count due to distance and area constraints.
Question 24
larger trees replace smaller shrubs;
presence of hemlock and spruce;
presence of shrubby willows, cottonwoods, and alders
presence of shrubby willows, cottonwoods, and alders;
presence of hemlock and spruce;
larger trees replace smaller shrubs
larger trees replace smaller shrubs;
presence of hemlock and spruce;
presence of lichen and mosses
presence of hemlock and spruce;
presence of lichen and mosses;
larger trees replace smaller shrubs
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is b.
Primary succession begins on bare rock with pioneer species like lichen and mosses.
These species build soil, allowing shrubby willows, cottonwoods, and alders to take root.
As soil nitrogen increases, hemlock and spruce (climax species) begin to dominate.
This sequence represents the transition from low-growing pioneers to larger trees.
At Glacier Bay, this transition reflects the time elapsed since glacial retreat.
Options a, c, and d are incorrect as they misplace the pioneer or climax stages.
Question 25
b. Jane Lubchenco
c. Joseph Connell
d. Robert Whittaker
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c. Joseph Connell.
The intermediate disturbance hypothesis ($IDH$) suggests that local species diversity is maximized when ecological disturbance is neither too rare nor too frequent.
Joseph Connell famously formalized this hypothesis in $1978$ through his studies on tropical rain forests and coral reefs.
He proposed that at high levels of disturbance, only “pioneer” species survive.
At low levels of disturbance, competitive dominant species exclude others, reducing diversity.
Therefore, intermediate levels of disturbance maintain a balance that allows for the highest species richness.
Question 26
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is d.
Henry Bates is famous for identifying Batesian mimicry.
In this biological phenomenon, a harmless species evolves to imitate a harmful species.
The yellow jacket serves as the “model” because it is venomous and avoided by predators.
The fly acts as the “mimic,” gaining protection by looking like the dangerous yellow jacket.
Predators mistake the fly for a stinging insect and choose not to eat it.
Therefore, Bates would conclude the harmless fly resembles the venomous yellow jacket.
Question 27
b. a robin catching and eating an earthworm
c. a crow eating a dead robin
d. a bacterium decomposing the feces of an earthworm
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is b.
A detrital food web begins with dead organic matter (detritus) and decomposers.
An earthworm is a primary consumer in the detrital food web as it eats dead leaves.
A robin is part of the grazing food web which typically involves living primary producers or their consumers.
When the robin eats the earthworm, energy and nutrients move from the detrital system back into the grazing system.
Option a describes movement within the detrital web.
Options c and d describe movement from the grazing web back into the detrital/decomposer web.
Question 28
b. a measure of the forest’s net primary productivity
c. a measure of the forest’s standing crop biomass
d. a measure of the forest’s ecological efficiency
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c. a measure of the forest’s standing crop biomass.
Standing crop biomass refers to the total dry mass of all living organisms at a specific time.
Gross primary productivity ($GPP$) is the total rate of energy capture by photosynthesis.
Net primary productivity ($NPP$) is the energy remaining after plant respiration ($R$), calculated as $NPP = GPP – R$.
Biomass represents the accumulated organic matter available in the ecosystem.
Ecological efficiency describes the percentage of energy transferred between trophic levels.
Therefore, “standing crop” specifically identifies the physical mass of the plant material present.
Question 29
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c. tropical rainforest.
Net primary productivity (NPP) is defined by the equation $NPP = GPP – R$.
Tropical rainforests have ideal conditions of high temperature and abundant rainfall year-round.
These conditions allow for a high rate of photosynthesis and dense vegetation growth.
While the open ocean covers more area, its NPP per unit area is very low due to nutrient limits.
Temperate forests and agricultural lands have lower NPP due to seasonal changes or less biomass.
On a per-square-meter basis, tropical rainforests consistently exhibit the highest carbon fixation rates.
Question 30
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is a. respiration.
Nutrients in the available-organic compartment consist of living organisms and detritus.
Respiration breaks down organic molecules (like carbohydrates) to release energy.
This process converts organic carbon back into inorganic $CO_2$.
Decomposition, often grouped with respiration, also releases inorganic nutrients ($N, P$) from organic matter.
In contrast, photosynthesis moves nutrients from inorganic to organic compartments.
Assimilation is the uptake of inorganic nutrients by plants to build organic tissues.
Sedimentation moves nutrients into unavailable “sink” compartments like rock or deep sediment.
Question 31
b. $\sim 30\%$
c. $\sim 50\%$
d. $\sim 90\%$
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is d. $\sim 90\%$.
In an ecosystem, only about $10\%$ of the energy is transferred to the next trophic level.
The remaining $\sim 90\%$ of the energy is used by the organisms at the current level.
This energy is consumed through metabolic processes such as cellular respiration.
A significant portion is also lost to the environment as heat.
Some energy remains in unconsumed body parts or waste products (detritus).
This inefficient transfer explains why food chains rarely exceed four or five levels.
Question 32
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is d.
Ecological efficiency is the percentage of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next.
Endotherms (like mammals) must burn a large portion of their ingested energy to generate metabolic heat.
This process is necessary to maintain a constant internal body temperature regardless of the environment.
Consequently, a smaller fraction of energy is available for production (growth and reproduction).
Ectotherms rely on external heat, allowing them to allocate more energy toward biomass.
Thus, the high metabolic cost of thermoregulation results in lower overall ecological efficiency for endotherms.
Question 33
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is d.
Energy availability begins with the Net Primary Productivity (NPP), which is the energy stored by producers.
As energy moves upward, only about $10\%$ is typically transferred to the next level.
This transfer rate is defined by the ecological efficiency of each level.
Energy at the highest level is the cumulative result of $NPP$ multiplied by efficiencies at every step.
Therefore, all lower trophic levels directly constrain the energy reaching the top.
Options a and b are incorrect as primary productivity occurs only at the first level.
Question 34
b. nitrogen
c. phosphorus
d. carbon
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c. phosphorus.
Biogeochemical cycles are divided into gaseous and sedimentary types based on their reservoir.
Oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon have gaseous cycles as their main reservoir is the atmosphere.
Phosphorus is a sedimentary cycle because its primary reservoir is the Earth’s crust (rocks).
Weathering of rocks releases phosphate ($\text{PO}_4^{3-}$) ions into the soil and water.
Plants absorb these minerals, which then move through the food chain to consumers.
Unlike gaseous cycles, these elements do not generally exist in a volatile or gaseous state.
Question 35
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is a.
Biological magnification refers to the increasing concentration of toxic substances in organisms at higher trophic levels.
Toxicants like $DDT$ or heavy metals are often fat-soluble and cannot be easily excreted or metabolized.
As energy moves up the food chain, biomass decreases while the total amount of toxin remains constant or accumulates.
Consequently, the concentration of the substance increases significantly at each successive level.
This results in top predators having the highest concentrations of these harmful materials.
Therefore, it describes the trend where concentration increases as we move from producers to top carnivores.
Question 36
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c.
A grazing food web is defined by its start with living photosynthetic producers.
Primary consumers (herbivores) must be present to graze upon these living plants.
Secondary consumers (carnivores) are needed to represent the higher trophic levels.
Options including detritivores or decomposers refer to the detrital food web.
In a grazing web, energy flows from producers $\rightarrow$ herbivores $\rightarrow$ carnivores.
Including all three groups ensures the experimental model mimics natural energy transfer.
Question 37
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is a. This will reflect mainly primary productivity.
Primary productivity is the rate at which solar energy is converted into organic compounds via photosynthesis.
In this process, autotrophs fix inorganic carbon ($\text{CO}_2$) into organic biomass.
Declining levels of carbon in an ecosystem suggest a decrease in the rate of carbon fixation.
Since producers are the entry point for carbon into the food web, this shift directly impacts primary productivity.
Higher trophic levels (secondary or tertiary) depend entirely on the carbon fixed at this initial stage.
Therefore, a fundamental decline in carbon levels is most primarily reflected in the productivity of the producers.
Question 38
b. $3$
c. at least $5$
d. at least $8$
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c. at least $5$.
Scientists widely recognize the “Big Five” mass extinction events in the Phanerozoic Eon.
The first was the Ordovician-Silurian extinction approximately $444$ million years ago.
The second was the Late Devonian extinction around $365$ million years ago.
The third was the Permian-Triassic extinction, the largest, roughly $252$ million years ago.
The fourth was the Triassic-Jurassic extinction about $201$ million years ago.
The fifth was the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction that wiped out the dinosaurs $66$ million years ago.
The Anthropocene is often suggested as the period of the “Sixth Mass Extinction” caused by human activity.
Question 39
b. $10\%$
c. $50\%$
d. $100\%$
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is b. $10\%$.
This concept is known as the Tens Rule in invasion biology.
It suggests that only $10\%$ of imported species actually escape into the wild.
Of those that escape, only $10\%$ (which is $1\%$ of the original) become established.
Furthermore, only $10\%$ of established species eventually become pests or invasive.
Most introduced species fail to survive due to lack of resources or unsuitable climate.
Therefore, the estimated establishment rate is approximately $10\%$.
Question 40
b. All areas in a fragment are closer to an edge.
c. Fragments maintain genetic diversity.
d. Fragments support smaller populations.
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is c. Fragments maintain genetic diversity.
Habitat fragmentation breaks large, continuous habitats into smaller, isolated patches.
This process reduces the core habitat area and increases the edge-to-interior ratio.
Smaller fragments support smaller populations, which are highly susceptible to genetic drift.
Isolation prevents gene flow between populations, leading to a loss of genetic diversity over time.
Therefore, maintaining diversity is not a consequence; rather, fragmentation decreases it.
Options a, b, and d accurately describe the physical and biological results of fragmentation.
Question 41
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is b.
Ships pump in ballast water at a “source” port to maintain stability and structural integrity.
This water contains local marine life, including bacteria, microbes, small invertebrates, and larvae.
When the ship reaches its “destination” port, this water is discharged into a new environment.
This process results in the unintentional transfer of invasive species across global oceans.
These non-native species can outcompete local wildlife and disrupt entire aquatic ecosystems.
Therefore, the primary ecological significance of ballast water is its role in global species dispersal.
Question 42
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is (b).
$\beta$-diversity measures the rate of change in species composition as one moves from one community to another.
It acts as a comparison between local ($\alpha$) diversity and regional ($\gamma$) diversity.
Mathematically, it can be represented as $\beta = \frac{\gamma}{\alpha}$.
Option (a) refers to $\gamma$-diversity, while (c) relates to endemism.
Option (d) describes the Minimum Viable Population ($MVP$) concept.
Therefore, $\beta$-diversity specifically highlights the differences across community boundaries.
Question 43
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is b.
The IUCN has assessed only a small fraction of the estimated $8.7$ million eukaryotic species on Earth.
Monitoring efforts are heavily biased toward vertebrates and conspicuous plants, leaving many invertebrates and fungi unexamined.
Many “Data Deficient” species are likely at risk but cannot be formally listed as threatened without more evidence.
Cryptozoic or deep-sea species often face habitat loss before they are even discovered or assessed.
Therefore, the current count of threatened species is a significant underestimation of the true global total.
Question 44
b. tourism opportunities
c. spiritual experiences
d. traditional medicinal treatments
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is d. traditional medicinal treatments.
Ecosystem services are divided into four categories: provisioning, regulating, supporting, and cultural.
Cultural services are the non-material benefits people obtain from ecosystems.
Educational, tourism, and spiritual benefits are all non-material and thus cultural.
Medicinal treatments involve the extraction of physical biological resources.
Because they provide a tangible product, they are classified as provisioning services.
Therefore, option d is the only choice that does not fit the cultural category.
Question 45
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is c.
Supporting services are fundamental processes that allow other ecosystem services to exist.
Water filtration by bivalves maintains the quality of the habitat for other aquatic life.
Options a, b, and d represent provisioning services because they involve extracted products.
Provisioning services provide physical goods like food, medicine, and raw materials.
Supporting services include nutrient cycling, soil formation, and primary production.
By filtering water, bivalves support the overall health and $100\%$ functionality of the ecosystem.
Question 46
b. humidity, because it determines their food quality
c. temperature, because it determines their sex
d. temperature, because it determines their nesting sites
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct option is c. temperature, because it determines their sex.
In many reptile species, such as crocodiles and turtles, the sex of the offspring is not determined by chromosomes.
Instead, it is determined by the incubation temperature of the eggs during a critical period of development.
This biological phenomenon is known as Temperature-dependent Sex Determination (TSD).
Higher or lower temperatures can result in a clutch being entirely male or entirely female.
Environmental temperature changes can therefore significantly impact the population sex ratios.
Other options are incorrect as humidity does not regulate internal body temperature in reptiles.
Question 47
b. extirpated
c. highly endangered
d. not at risk
▶️ Answer/Explanation
The correct answer is b. extirpated.
Extirpated refers to a species that no longer exists in a specific geographic area but survives elsewhere.
Extinct describes a species that has died out completely across the entire planet.
In this scenario, the species is gone from Canada but remains in the United States.
Therefore, it is locally extinct in Canada, which is the definition of extirpation.
Options c and d are incorrect because they describe the level of risk for a species still present in the area.
